Anesthesia Equipment Part II (Ericksen) Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Shikani Optical Stylet made of?

A. Plastic
B. Aluminum
C. Stainless steel
D. Carbon fiber

A

C. Stainless steel

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2
Q

What feature does the Shikani Optical Stylet have at its distal end?

A. Rigid tip
B. Blunt distal tip
C. Unflexible distal tip
D. Malleable distal tip

A

D. Malleable distal tip
Design utilizes eye piece

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3
Q

For what purpose does the Shikani Optical Stylet have an oxygen port?

A. For inflating a balloon
B. For oxygen insufflation if the patient desaturates
C. For oxygen and suctioning secretions
D. For medication delivery

A

B. For oxygen insufflation if the patient desaturates

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4
Q

In what position should the Shikani Optical Stylet be inserted?

A. Head-down position, inserted midline
B. Neutral position, inserted midline
C. Extended position, inserted midline
D. Flexed neck position, inserted midline

A

B. Neutral position, inserted midline
Available in adult and peds sizes

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5
Q

The Shikani Optical Stylet is advanced into the ______ with light pressure and the tip kept ______ at all times to avoid injury.

A. trachea; anterior
B. esophagus; posterior
C. trachea; posterior
D. esophagus; anterior

A

A. trachea; anterior

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6
Q

The Shikani Optical Stylet can be used for which of the following purposes? (Select 3)

A. As a light wand
B. To check ETT placement
C. For suctioning secretions
D. For placement of double-lumen ETT

A

A. As a light wand
B. To check ETT placement
D. For placement of double-lumen ETT

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7
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of using an optical stylet?
A. It is difficult to use for routine intubations.
B. Trachea is visualized, decreasing the risk of esophageal intubation.
C. It results in increased c-spine movement compared to conventional laryngoscopy.
D. It can be used for nasal intubation.

A

B. Trachea is visualized, decreasing the risk of esophageal intubation.

Advantages
* Easy to use for routine and difficult intubations –* not hard to use*
* Trachea is visualized, esophageal intubation should not occur (reduced risk)
* Decreased incidence of sore throat –one shot and done and you’re in
* Results in less c-spine movement over conventional laryngoscopy

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8
Q

What is one of the disadvantages of using an optical stylet?
A. It has a decreased incidence of sore throat.
B. It can be adjusted into a precise direction like a traditional malleable stylet.
C. It cannot be used with nasal intubation.
D. It is always faster to use compared to conventional methods.

A

C. It cannot be used with nasal intubation.
Disadvantages
* Longer intubation time – depends on familiarity with it
* Cannot be used with nasal intubation -
* Cannot be adjusted into a precise direction compared to a traditional malleable stylet
* Only distal portion is malleable

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9
Q

Video laryngoscopes such as Glidescope, Co-Pilot, King, and McGrath are considered ______ because you can have your own.

A. expensive
B. unreliable
C. cheap
D. complex

A

C. cheap
You can buy your own

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10
Q

True or False

Some scopes have curved/straight blades to mimic laryngoscopes

A

True
mimic miller and mac blades and can even have an exaggerated curve

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11
Q

One advantage of video laryngoscopes is that they provide ______ anatomy.

A. unclear
B. minimized
C. magnified
D. obscured

A

C. magnified
Operater and assitant can see

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12
Q

Video laryngoscopes may result in decreased ______ movement because the head does not have to be adjusted as much.

A. arm
B. jaw
C. L-spine
D. c-spine

A

D. c-spine

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13
Q

A limitation of video laryngoscopes is that they require a ______ system, which needs to be charged or powered by batteries.

A. video
B. manual
C. hydraulic
D. pneumatic

A

A. video
Portability varies, but most you can pick up and go

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14
Q

The strongest predictors of failure for video laryngoscopes are altered neck anatomy due to the presence of a ______ scar, radiation changes, or mass.

A. surgical
B. accidental
C. cosmetic
D. birth

A

A. surgical

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15
Q

Why might video laryngoscopes be beneficial in legal cases?
A. They are cheaper than traditional methods
B. They require less training to use
C. They demonstrate correct technique
D. They do not cause OR fires

A

C. They demonstrate correct technique

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16
Q

Video laryngoscopes might result in a further distance from ______ patients.
A. non-infectious
B. infectious
C. healthy
D. pediatric

A

B. infectious

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17
Q

Dental injury is the most frequent ______-related claim.

A. surgical
B. dental
C. medical
D. anesthesia

A

D. anesthesia

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18
Q

The most likely teeth to be damaged during laryngoscopy are the ______.

A. molars
B. canines
C. upper incisors
D. wisdom teeth

A

C. upper incisors
Restored or weakened teeth
Ask if their teeth are their own/real. People will sue you…..no tooth gets left behind

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19
Q

Tooth protectors are a “reminder” to be aware of ______.

A. the gums
B. the throat
C. the teeth
D. the hard palate

A

C. teeth
*Placed on upper teeth during direct laryngoscopy. *

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20
Q

Tooth protectors protect from the blade causing ______ damage.

A. surface
B. internal
C. lateral
D. severe

A

A. surface

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21
Q

What do tooth protectors not guarantee safety from?
A. Superficial damage
B. Dental trauma
C. Infection
D. Laryngospasm

A

B. Dental trauma
Help you be more vigilant. Help avoid pinching teeth with the laryngoscope blade

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22
Q

Cervical spinal cord injury can occur due to ______ head positioning.

A. passive
B. aggressive
C. careful
D. neutral

A

B. aggressive
If the head doesn’t extend.. it doesn’t extend. Won’t magically open up after induction. Don’t force extension

CHECK ROM in pre-op

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23
Q

Manual in-line stabilization is considered better than having a ______ in place.

A. headrest
B. neck brace
C. C-collar
D. pillow

A

C. C-collar
Do not remove the collar. Let the neuro surgeon remove it and do the manual in-line stabilization

DOCUMENT what has happened

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24
Q

Damage to other structures in the oral cavity can include abrasions or hematomas, often when the ______ gets pinched.

A. tongue
B. lower lip
C. upper lip
D. cheek

A

C. upper lip
sometimes lips/mouth is dry and it can get pinched between the teeth and blade

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25
Q

Lingual and/or ______ nerve injury is a potential complication during laryngoscopy.

A. vagus
B. hypoglossal
C. facial
D. trigeminal

A

B. hypoglossal

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26
Q

Swallowing or aspirating a foreign body such as ______ can occur during laryngoscopy.

A. a suction catheter
B. a laryngoscope light bulb
C. a syringe
D. a scalpel

A

B. a laryngoscope light bulb
TEETH can be swallowed as well. MRI, CT

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27
Q

How can arytenoid subluxation be prevented during laryngoscopy?
A. Forcing the mouth open
B. Using excessive pressure
C. Easing in gently
D. Rotating and adjusting the head

A

C. Easing in gently and seeing all structures

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28
Q

What action can lead to anterior TMJ dislocation during laryngoscopy?
A. Easing in gently
B. Not forcing the mouth open
C. Using manual in-line stabilization
D. Forcing the mouth open

A

D. Forcing the mouth open

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29
Q

The most important factor in determining resistance to gas flow in the ETT is the ______ of the tube.

A. external diameter
B. connectors
C. tube length
D. internal diameter

A

D. internal diameter

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30
Q

As the internal diameter of the tube changes and the number of connections increases, the ______ also increases.

A. flow rate
B. resistance
C. pressure
D. volume

A

B. resistance
*any corrugation, turns and curves.
*

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31
Q

Shortening the tube length will ______ resistance.

A. decrease
B. increase
C. not affect
D. eliminate

A

A. decrease

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32
Q

Making the tube longer will ______ resistance.

A. increase
B. decrease
C. not affect
D. stabilize

A

A. increase

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33
Q

Changes in configuration and the addition of ______ can also affect resistance in the breathing system.

A. cables
B. connectors
C. humidifiers
D. monitors

A

B. connectors

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34
Q

Manufacturing requirements Trachael Tube
A smooth, non-porous surface is required to prevent secretion buildup and to allow the passage of a ______ catheter or bronchoscope.

A. feeding
B. intravenous
C. suction
D. urinary

A

C. suction
AND prevent trauma

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35
Q

The tracheal tube should conform to patient ______.

A. size
B. anatomy
C. condition
D. age

A

B. anatomy

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36
Q

Which of the following are manufacturing requirements for tracheal tubes? Select 2

A. Low cost
B. High flammability
C. Lack of tissue toxicity
D. Difficult sterilization

A

A. Low cost
C. Lack of tissue toxicity
..Easy to sterilize (unless disposible)

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37
Q

Tracheal tubes should have which of the following characteristics to ensure safety and functionality? Select 2

A. Non-flammability
B. Collapsible walls with sufficient strength
C. High reaction with anesthetic agents
D. Flimsy body

A

A. Non-flammability
B. Collapsible walls with sufficient strength

Sufficient body to maintain its shape and not flimsy

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38
Q

Tracheal tubes should have a ______ reaction with ______ agents and lubricants.

A. strong, anesthetic
B. smaller, chemical
C. lack of, anesthetic
D. moderate, environmental

A

C. lack of, anesthetic

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39
Q

The Murphy eye provides an alternate pathway for ______.

A. liquid flow
B. gas flow
C. blood flow
D. air flow

A

B. gas flow
If bevel is occluded from secretions, the Murphy eye can allow for gas flow

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40
Q

Which of the following are considered disadvantges of the Murphy eye in tracheal tubes? (Select 2)

A. It is not an alternative for gas flow
B. Prevents all types of occlusions
C. Can get locked with Magill forceps
D. Located at machine end of the tube
E. Fiber optic scopes can get caught

A

C. Can get locked with Magill forceps and hard to removed

E. Fiber optic scopes can get caught

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41
Q

Tracheal tubes should be designed with which of the following features? (Select 2)

A. Circular internal and external walls
B. Square internal and external walls
C. Flat bevel at the machine end
D. Slanted bevel at the patient end

A

A. Circular internal and external walls
D. Slanted bevel at the patient end
Slanted bevel helps view the larynx

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42
Q

Tracheal tubes can be ______ at the machine end.

A. shortened
B. bent
C. elongated
D. rotated

A

A. shortened

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43
Q

The Ring- Adair- Elvin (RAE) tube facilitates surgery around the head and neck because it can be:

A. nasal or oral
B. rigid or flexible
C. long or short
D. thick or thin

A

A. nasal or oral
Also known as right angle tubes

They hang down over the chin and it stays out of the way

Used for head and neck cases - tosils

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44
Q

During insertion, the RAE tube can be temporarily:

A. bent at a right angle
B. straightened
C. folded
D. shortened

A

B. straightened
Can use a stylet to intubate. When stylet removed it will retain it’s curvature/shape

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45
Q

The increased tube diameter of the RAE tube provides an increased distance from:

A. base to tip
B. top to bottom
C. tip to curve
D. front to back

A

C. tip to curve
Its a little longer than an ETT

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46
Q

One of the advantages of the RAE tube is that it is easy to:

A. secure
B. clean
C. insert
D. remove

A

A. secure
Flipping down over chin, add some tape and there ya go

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47
Q

A disadvantage of the RAE tube is that it is difficult to pass suction or scope due to the:

A. material
B. length
C. angle
D. diameter

A

C. angle

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48
Q

The RAE tube increases airway resistance because of the added: (pick 2)

A. length
B. diameter
C. weight
D. curve

A

A. length
D. curve

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49
Q

Armored tubes are also called:
Select 3

A. flexible tubes
B. reinforced tubes
C. disposable tubes
D. standard tubes
E. anode tubes
F. spiral embedded

A

B. reinforced tubes
E. anode tubes
F. spiral embedded

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50
Q

Armored tubes are useful when the tube is likely to be ______ or compressed.

A. straightened
B. bent
C. lengthened
D. expanded

A

B. bent
*

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51
Q

Armored tubes offer resistance to:

A. heat and cold
B. kinking and moisture
C. water and moisture
D. air and gas
E. kinking and compression

A

E. kinking and compression

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52
Q

To reinforce and keep shape, inside of armored tubes can be made of:

A. plastic
B. silicone
C. stainless steel
D. rubber

A

C. stainless steel
spiral metal tube to reinforce shape

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53
Q

Armored tubes are commonly used in ______ surgeries. Select 3

A. tracheal
B. head
C. cardiac
D. orthopedic
E. neck
F. abdominal

A

A. tracheal
B. head
E. neck
more durable for these procedures

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54
Q

Armored tubes need a ______ or forceps for insertion.

A. clamp
B. stylet
C. syringe
D. scope

A

B. stylet

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55
Q

A disadvantage of armored tubes is that they are difficult to use during ______ intubation.

A. oral
B. pediatric
C. emergency
D. nasal

A

D. nasal
absolutely difficult

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56
Q

Armored tubes can be damaged when:

A. exposed to heat
B. bent
C. biting
D. cleaned

A

C. biting
It will bend the tube

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57
Q

Armored tubes cannot be:

A. sterilized
B. cleaned
C. shortened
D. reused

A

C. shortened

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58
Q

Which of the following materials are used to make laser-resistant tubes? Select 3

A. Plastic only
B. Metallic
C. Silicone
D. Glass
E. Metal mixture

A

B. Metallic
C. Silicone

E. Metal mixture

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59
Q

Laser-resistant tubes are designed to:

A. absorb the laser beam
B. reflect the laser beam
C. transmit the laser beam
D. scatter the laser beam

A

B. reflect the laser beam

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60
Q

Laser-resistant tubes are effective against:

A. CO2 or UV laser
B. KTP laster or infrared laser
C. CO2 or KTP laser
D. KTP laster or visible light laser

A

C. CO2 or KTP laser

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61
Q

The cuffs of laser-resistant tubes contain:

A. saline solution only
B. methylene blue
C. distilled water
D. alcohol

A

B. methylene blue crystals

62
Q

Cuffs filled with methylene blue saline solution help the surgeon to:

A. inflate the tube
B. deflate the tube
C. detects tube bursts
D. secure the tube

A

C. detects tube bursts

63
Q

True or false

Cuffs on Laser-Resistant Tubes are not laser resistant and can burst

A

True

64
Q

Double cuffs should be filled with: Select 2

A. purified water
B. methylene blue
C. air
D. distilled water
E. saline solution

A

B. methylene blue
E. saline solution

65
Q

The ______ cuff should be filled first in double cuff systems.

A. proximal
B. distal
C. secondary
D. primary

A

B. distal

66
Q

If the proximal cuff is filled first, it prevents:

A. deflation of the distal cuff
B. inflation of the tube
C. proper sealing of the tube
D. filling of the distal cuff

A

D. filling of the distal cuff

67
Q

Tube markings can be found:

A. On the bevel side above the cuff
B. On the machine side above the cuff
C. On the distal end of the tube
D. On the patient side above the cuff

A

A. On the bevel side above the cuff

68
Q

Tube markings should be read from:

A. The proximal end to the distal end
B. The machine side to the patient side
C. The distal end to the proximal end
D. The patient side to the machine side

A

D. The patient side to the machine side

69
Q

Safety standards for tube markings include: (Select 4)

A. The word oral or nasal or oral/nasal
B. The tube size in internal diameter in mm
C. The tube size in external diameter in mm
D. The name of the manufacturer
E. The patient’s name

A

A. The word oral or nasal or oral/nasal
B. The tube size in internal diameter in mm
C. The tube size in external diameter in mm (Ericksen said)
D. The name of the manufacturer

70
Q

Graduated markings on the tube are in:

A. Inches
B. Millimeters
C. Centimeters
D. Micrometers

A

C. Centimeters

71
Q

Which of the following are included in the safety standards for tube markings? Select 2.

A. Radiopaque marker at machine end
B. Cautionary note for single use if disposable
C. Radiopaque marker at patient end
D. Instructions for cleaning and sterilization
E. The tube size in internal diameter in cm

A

B. Cautionary note for single use if disposable
C. Radiopaque marker at patient end

72
Q

Cuffs should be strong, tear-resistant, thin, soft, and:

A. Rigid
B. Thick
C. Pliable
D. Hard

A

C. Pliable

73
Q

Cuffs must not herniate over: Select 2

A. The proximal end
B. The machine end
C. The Murphy eye
D. The distal end
E. Bevel of the tube

A

C. The Murphy eye

E. Bevel of the tube
If it does herniate over, it will occlude the tube

74
Q

The cuff of a tracheal tube should typically be inflated with:

A. 2-4 mL of air
B. 5-7 mL of air
C. 8-10 mL of air
D. 11-15 mL of air

A

C. 8-10 mL of air
*Recheck cuff pressure frequently if using nitrous as this causes cuff inflation/expansion. *

75
Q

The recommended cuff pressure range is:

A. 10 - 15 mm Hg
B. 18 - 25 mm Hg
C. 20 - 30 mm Hg
D. 25 - 35 mm Hg

A

B. 18 - 25 mm Hg

76
Q

To prevent mucosal necrosis, cuff pressure should be kept below:

A. 15 mm Hg
B. 18 mm Hg
C. 25 mm Hg
D. 30 mm Hg

A

C. 25 mm Hg

77
Q

The wall of the high-volume, low-pressure cuff is:

A. Thick and rigid
B. Thin and compliant
C. Thick and compliant
D. Thin and rigid

A

B. Thin and compliant

Most of the cuffs we use are this type

78
Q

The high-volume, low-pressure cuff occludes the trachea without:

A. Compressing the tracheal wall
B. Contracting the tracheal wall
C. Inflating too much
D. Stretching the tracheal wall

A

D. Stretching the tracheal wall

79
Q

One advantage of the high-volume, low-pressure cuff is that it:

A. Applies more pressure than mucosal perfusion pressure
B. Is easy to regulate pressure
C. Is more difficult to insert
D. Increases the risk of mucosal necrosis

A

B. Is easy to regulate pressure

80
Q

The area of contact of the high-volume, low-pressure cuff is________, but the cuff adapts its shape to the ______ wall.

A. smaller, nasal
B. larger, esophageal
C. larger, tracheal
D. smaller, laryngeal
E. larger, pharyngeal

A

C. larger, tracheal

81
Q

True or False

In High volume, low pressure cuffs, there is less pressure applied to the trachea than mucosal perfusion pressure

A

True
There is even pressure and won’t cause mucosal necrosis

82
Q

Disadvantages of the high-volume, low-pressure cuff are: select 5

A. More difficult to insert and obscure view of tube tip and larynx
B. Cuff is more likely to be torn
C. More likely to cause a sore throat
D. May not prevent fluid leakage
E. Easy to pass NGT
F. Pressure exerted on trachea above mucosal perfusion pressure

A

A. More difficult to insert, may obscure view of the tube tip and larynx
B. Cuff is more likely to be torn during intubation
C. More likely to cause a sore throat
D. May not prevent fluid leakage despite having more contact with trachea
E. Easy to pass NGT

83
Q

The low-volume, high-pressure cuff has a ______ area of contact with the trachea.

A. large
B. small
C. moderate
D. variable

A

B. small
Circular in shape

These are mostly off the market now

84
Q

The low-volume, high-pressure cuff requires a ______ amount of pressure to achieve a seal.

A. small
B. moderate
C. large
D. variable

A

C. large
Distends and deforms the trachea

85
Q

One advantage of the low-volume, high-pressure cuff is better protection against ______.

A. infection
B. aspiration
C. inflammation
D. edema

A

B. aspiration

86
Q

One advantage of the low-volume, high-pressure cuff is:

A. Lower incidence of sore throat
B. Lower visibility during intubation
C. Higher incidence of mucosal necrosis
D. Increased difficulty in achieving a seal

A

A. Lower incidence of sore throat

87
Q

One disadvantage of the low-volume, high-pressure cuff is that the pressure exerted on the trachea is probably __________ mucosal perfusion pressure.

A. below
B. equal to
C. near
D. above

A

D. above
**leads to ischemic damage

88
Q

True or False

The Low-volume, High-pressure cuff has worse visibility during intubation than the High-volume, low-pressure cuff

A

False
The Low-volume, High-pressure cuff has better visibility during intubation

89
Q

The low-volume, high-pressure cuff should be replaced with a low-pressure cuff if ______ intubation is required.

A. emergency
B. elective
C. postoperative
D. diagnostic

A

C. postoperative

90
Q

The use of nitrous oxide tends to ______ cuff pressure.

A. decrease
B. increase
C. stabilize
D. not affect

A

B. increase

91
Q

Hypothermic cardiopulmonary bypass ______ cuff pressure due to cold-induced vasoconstriction along the tracheal wall.

A. decreases
B. increases
C. stabilizes
D. does not affect

A

A. decreases
Hypothermic cardiopulmonary bypass decreaes cuff pressure* due to cold-induced vasoconstriction along the tracheal wall.*

92
Q

Increases in altitude generally ______ cuff pressure.

A. decrease
B. increase
C. stabilize
D. do not affect

A

B. increase
Boyles law

93
Q

Coughing, straining, and changes in muscle tone generally ______ cuff pressure.

A. decrease
B. stabilize
C. do not affect
D. increase

A

D. increase

94
Q

After gaining confidence, you may not need to use a ______, and it is highly suggested to ______ the endotracheal tube in place to prevent displacement.

A. bite block, remove
B. stylet, secure
C. syringe, inflate
D. securing tape, shorten

A

B. stylet, secure

95
Q

Bite blocks or airways should not be placed in ______ or ______ positions due to mucosal damage.

A. emergent, supine
B. supine, seated
C. lateral, prone
D. lateral, seated

A

C. lateral, prone
Can place during emergence, with patient in a supine position to prevent biting on ETT

96
Q

When intubating the esophagus by mistake, it is important to:

A. Remove the tube immediately
B. Leave it in place and intubate around it
C. Ensure the patient is supine
D. Secure the tube with tape

A

B. Leave it in place and intubate around it
As long as your patient is pre-oxygenated enough

97
Q

Excessive force and repeated attempts during intubation can cause:

A. Nerve damage
B. Aspiration
C. Infection
D. Rapid recovery

A

A. Nerve damage

98
Q

Factors that can contribute to endotracheal tube trauma include:

A. Excessive force
B. Repeated attempts
C. Skill level of the operator
D. Difficulty of airway
E. Amount of muscle relaxation
F. All of the Above

A

All of the above

99
Q

To reduce trauma during intubation, keep the stylet ______ the tube and _________ the Murphy eye.

A. outside, below
B. inside, above
C. inside, distal
D. outside, lateral

A

B. inside, above

100
Q

Use vasoconstrictors for nasal intubation and pre-______ the nasal passage.

A. hydrate
B. pressurize
C. inflate
D. dilate

A

D. dilate

101
Q

Inadvertent bronchial intubation is more likely to occur in: Select 3

A. Male patients
B. Pediatric
C. Elderly patients
D. Female patients
E. Athletic patients
F. Emergencies

A

B. Pediatrics
D. Females
E. Emergencies
Peds and females - distance from the trachea to right main bronchus is shorter
Straighter in pediatric patients

102
Q

Inadvertent bronchial intubation typically affects which bronchus?

A. Left mainstem bronchus
B. Right mainstem bronchus
C. Upper bronchus
D. Lower bronchus

A

B. Right mainstem bronchus
Can lead to atelectasis

103
Q

The recommended depth of endotracheal tube insertion at the teeth for males is:

A. 19 cm
B. 21 cm
C. 23 cm
D. 25 cm

A

C. 23 cm

104
Q

To secure the endotracheal tube, the recommended depth at the teeth is approximately ______ cm for female patients

A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 26

A

A. 21

105
Q

The distance to the carina ______ with Trendelenburg and laparoscopy positions.

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. fluctuates

A

B. decreases
*During insufflation in laparoscopy, everything displaces cephalad. *
During surgery the ETT can become dislodged by instrumentation

106
Q

True or False

Fluid accumulation occurs above the cuff of an endotracheal tube

A

True
Blood, teeth, increased secretions. Can be difficult to use yankaur to get down to suction

107
Q

Upper airway edema can occur ______ along the path of the tube.

A. only at the tip
B. only at the entry point
C. anywhere
D. only in the trachea

A

C. anywhere

108
Q

Upper airway edema is dangerous in young children because the ______ cartilage completely surrounds the subglottic area, and the peak incidence occurs between ______ years old.

A. thyroid, 1-2
B. cricoid, 1-4
C. arytenoid, 3-5
D. epiglottis, 4-6

A

B. cricoid, 1-4yrs old

109
Q

The earliest signs of upper airway edema usually appear ______ hours to 48hrs postoperatively.

A. 0-1
B. 1-2
C. 2-4
D. 4-6

A

B. 1-2
*You can see s/s of increased wob, stridor, desaturation

110
Q

To prevent upper airway edema, avoid irritating stimuli such as ______ and maintain adequate anesthetic depth.

A. dry air
B. smoke
C. dust
D. URI

A

D. URI
Upper Respiratory Infection, as long as it is resolving you can proceed with sx
If patient has inadequate anesthetic depth or too light, may cause laryngospasms

111
Q

Causes of vocal cord granuloma include trauma, an ETT that is too large, infection, and excessive ______ pressure.

A. airway
B. cuff
C. blood
D. intubation

A

B. cuff
Those at most risk are adult females
Pay attention to cuff pressures

112
Q

Symptoms of vocal cord granuloma include: Select 4

A. Persistent hoarseness
B. Fullness
C. Intermittent cough
D. Chronic cough
E. Intermittent loss of voice
F. Difficulty swallowing
G. Clicking sensation

A

A. Persistent hoarseness
B. Fullness
D. Chronic cough
E. Intermittent loss of voice

113
Q

Treatments for vocal cord granuloma include:
Select 2

A. Laryngeal evaluation
B. Voice rest
C. Antibiotics
D. Surgery
E. Anti-inflammatory medications

A

A. Laryngeal evaluation - By ENT
B. Voice rest - No talking

114
Q

Bougies have a polyester base with:

A. Metal coating
B. Plastic coating
C. Resin coating
D. Silicone coating

A

C. Resin coating
Typically blue

115
Q

The distal end of a bougie is angled at:

A. 20-30 degrees
B. 30-45 degrees
C. 45-60 degrees
D. 60-75 degrees

A

B. 30-45 degrees

116
Q

Bougies are introduced with:

A. Posterior positioning of the tip
B. Lateral positioning of the tip
C. Anterior positioning of the tip
D. Vertical positioning of the tip

A

C. Anterior positioning of the tip
Feeling for tracheal rings
If patient is more anterior, a glidescope can be more helpful for intubation. The curvature is deeper than the Mac blade

117
Q

Indications for using bougies include:
Select 2
A. Blind intubation if glottic exposure is absent
B. ETT passage is difficult
C. Patient is fully awake
D. Clear visualization of the glottis
E. ETT passage is not difficult

A

A. Blind intubation if glottic exposure is absent
B. ETT passage is difficult

118
Q

When advancing a bougie, one should ______ and ______.

A. advance gently, feel for a clicking sensation across tracheal rings
B. use excessive force, withdraw immediately upon resistance
C. feel for a clicking sensation across tracheal rings, rotate the bougie rapidly
D. advance gently, rotate the bougie rapidly
E. use excessive force, feel for a clicking sensation across tracheal rings

A

A. advance gently, feel for a clicking sensation across tracheal rings

119
Q

Magill forceps are used primarily for:

A. Oral intubations
B. Nasal intubations
C. Tracheostomy
D. Suctioning

A

B. Nasal intubations
They help direct tube into the larynx
Should be immediately available

120
Q

A potential complication of using Magill forceps is:

A. Damage to tube cuffs
B. Tube displacement
C. Increased patient comfort
D. Decreased visibility

A

A. Damage to tube cuffs
and lodged in Murphy eye

121
Q

One indication for lung isolation during a thoracic procedure is to:

A. Increase lung capacity and decrease safety profile
B. Decrease safety and surgical exposure
C. Increase safety profile and surgical exposure
D. Reduce lung capacity and increase safety profile

A

C. Increase safety profile and surgical exposure
Remove diseased portion of the lung

122
Q

Lung isolation can help control contamination or hemorrhage by: Select 2

A. Preventing material in one lung from contaminating the other
B. Allows material in one lung from contaminating the upper respiratory tract
C. Allowing both lungs to be ventilated while the other hemorrhages
D. Allowing one lung to be ventilated while the other hemorrhages

A

A. Preventing material in one lung from contaminating the other
D. Allowing one lung to be ventilated while the other hemorrhages

123
Q

In the case of unilateral pathology, lung isolation excludes ______, ruptured cysts, or other issues with the diseased lung while allowing unilateral ______.

A. infections, ventilation
B. fistulas, ventilation
C. occlusions, perfusion
D. tumors, expansion
E. abscesses, inflation

A

B. Fistulas, ventilation

124
Q

The right mainstem bronchus is:

A. Longer and narrower
B. Shorter and straighter
C. Longer and straighter
D. Shorter and narrower

A

B. Shorter and straighter

125
Q

The right mainstem bronchus takes off from the trachea at a:

A. 25 degree angle
B. 45 degree angle
C. 30 degree angle
D. 60 degree angle

A

A. 25 degree angle

126
Q

The average length from the carina to the take-off of the right upper lobe is:

A. 5.5 cm
B. 3.5 cm
C. 2.5 cm
D. 4.5 cm

A

C. 2.5 cm

127
Q

The left mainstem bronchus takes off from the trachea at a:

A. 25 degree angle
B. 45 degree angle
C. 30 degree angle
D. 60 degree angle

A

B. 45 degree angle

128
Q

The average length from the carina to the take-off of the left upper lobe is:

A. 5.5 cm
B. 2.5 cm
C. 3.5 cm
D. 4.5 cm

A

A. 5.5 cm

129
Q

True or False

The left mainstem has a larger diameter than the right mainstem

A

False
The right mainstem has a larger diameter than the left main stem

130
Q

The right upper lobe (RUL) tracheal takeoff is very ______ to origin, while the left upper lobe (LUL) tracheal takeoff is more ______.

A. close, distal
B. far, distal
C. proximal, near
D. close, proximal

A

A. close, distal

131
Q

Common adult sizes for double-lumen tubes (DLTs) are:

A. 30, 32, 34, 36 Fr
B. 35, 37, 39, 41 Fr
C. 33, 35, 37, 39 Fr
D. 36, 38, 40, 42 Fr

A

B. 35, 37, 39, 41 Fr
Fr - french
Adult is odd

132
Q

Pediatric sizes for double-lumen tubes (DLTs) include:

A. 22, 24, 26 Fr
B. 24, 26, 28 Fr
C. 26, 28, 32 Fr
D. 28, 30, 32 Fr

A

C. 26, 28, 32 Fr
EVEN numbers

133
Q

Primarily, we use the ______ double-lumen tube (DLT), while the ______ DLT is used for left pneumonectomy, left lung transplantation, left mainstem bronchus stent, left tracheo-bronchus disruption.

A. left, right
B. right, left
C. pediatric, adult
D. adult, pediatric

A

A. left, right
Not used as often

*Ericksen - when we use a **right DLT **we are doing surgery on the left lung *

134
Q

Double-lumen tubes are placed similarly to a standard ETT but are more difficult due to ______ and ______.

A. length, flexibility
B. stiffness, size
C. color, shape
D. diameter, weight

A

B. stiffness, size

135
Q

When advancing a double-lumen tube through the larynx, the tip should be angled ______ into the trachea.

A. posteriorly
B. laterally
C. anteriorly
D. medially

A

C. anteriorly

136
Q

After the bronchial cuff passes the cords, the tube should be turned ______ degrees.

A. 45
B. 60
C. 90
D. 180

A

C. 90
Bronchial portion points toward the appropriate bronchus

137
Q

double lumen tube
Verification of the location of the bronchial port should be done with:

A. Direct visualization
B. X-ray
C. RSI Ultrasound
D. Fiberoptic scope

A

D. Fiberoptic scope

138
Q

The blue bronchial cuff should be just below the ______ in the appropriate bronchus.

A. trachea
B. carina
C. epiglottis
D. larynx
E. pharynx

A

B. carina

139
Q

True or False

The inflation of a bronchial ballon should be done under direct visualizaiton to verify proper placement

A

True
Fiberoptic scope

140
Q

Ensure the bronchial cuff does not ______ over the carina.

A. inflate
B. collapse
C. herniate
D. deflate

A

C. herniate

141
Q

To isolate a lung with a double lumen tube, you can:Select 2

A. Deflate the bronchial cuff
B. Clamp the tracheal connector
C. Deflate the tracheal cuff
D. Clamp the bronchial connector
E. Rotate the double-lumen tube

A

B. Clamp the tracheal connector
D. Clamp the bronchial connector
*Test this out before the surgeon gets into the room. *

142
Q

What is a common cause of unsatisfactory lung collapse when using a Double-Lumen Tube (DLT)?

A. Tube too distal in airway
B. Bronchial lumen in wrong mainstem
C. Tube is too cephalad in airway
D. Inadequate suction

A

B. Bronchial lumen in wrong mainstem *due to malposition *
Tube is too proximal in airway

143
Q

If the bronchial lumen is in the wrong mainstem, the recommended corrective measure is ______________.

A. Reinsertion
B. Using a fiberoptic bronchoscope
C. Switching to a single-lumen tube
D. Providing PEEP to the non-dependent lung

A

A. Reinsertion

144
Q

A tube that is too proximal in the airway should be corrected using a ______________.
A. Reinsertion
B. Using a fiberoptic bronchoscope
C. Switching to a single-lumen tube
D. Providing PEEP to the non-dependent lung

A

B. Using a fiberoptic bronchoscope

145
Q

When dealing with hypoxemia during DLT use, what factors need to be considered in patients with comorbidities? (Select 2)

A. PEEP to the dependent lung
B. Intermittent one-lung ventilation
C. Increasing FiO2
D. Intermittent two-lung ventilation
E. PEEP to the independent lung

A

A. PEEP to the dependent lung - due to lung dz
D. Intermittent two-lung ventilation - talk to the surgeon. Want to prevent V/Q mismatch
Hypoxemia can also be caused my malpositioned tube - must be reinserted

146
Q

In which scenarios is a DLT is NOT advisable and a bronchial blocker should be used instead? (Select 5)

A. Nasal intubation
B. Supraglottic stenosis
C. Patients with tracheostomy
D. Easy intubation
E. Single-lumen tube already in place
F. Subglottic stenosis
G. Difficult intubation
H. Oral intubation

A

A. Nasal intubation
C. Patients with tracheostomy
E. Single-lumen tube already in place -
F. Subglottic stenosis -harder time to get DLT down
G. Difficult intubation - use a normal ETT and then place a bronchial blocker

147
Q

True or False

It is ok to use a Double Lumen tube for continued postoperative intubation

A

False
If patient needs continued postoperative intubation, keep them asleep and switch out to normal ETT

148
Q

Bronchial blockers can block a segment of lung without __________ the entire lung, a task that cannot be done with a DLT.

A. Collapsing
B. Ventilating
C. Obstructing
D. Isolating
E. Intubating

A

D. Isolating
CANNOT be done with a DLT only a bronchial blocker

149
Q

Which anatomical feature makes the use of bronchial blockers difficult?

A. Low right upper lobe bronchus takeoff
B. High right upper lobe bronchus takeoff
C. Narrow trachea
D. Wide left mainstem bronchus

A

B. High right upper lobe bronchus takeoff
May still be able to use bronchial blocker…

150
Q

What is a potential complication during surgery when using bronchial blockers?

A. Tube displacement
B. Fixation by staples
C. Vocal cord damage
D. Increased mucus production

A

B. Fixation by staples
Tell surgeon nicely to remove them

151
Q

What difficulties are associated with the use of bronchial blockers? (Select 4)

A. Left upper lobe bronchus takeoff is high
B. Tracheal bronchus
C. Fixation by staples during surgery
D. Perforation by suture needle
E. Perforation by instrumentation
F. Increased secretion clearance

A

B. Tracheal bronchus - might need a second bronchial blocker or DLT
C. Fixation by staples during surgery
D. Perforation by suture needle
E. Perforation by instrumentation

Can happen with double lumen tube, but they are stiffer and more compliant