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VET 2050 Fa24 > Anesthesia > Flashcards

Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

What is General anesthesia characterized as?

A

Insensibility to feeling and pain through unconsciousness.
#11, McCurnin’s (electronic version) 10th ed. Pg 2916

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2
Q

What is the criteria for an ASA IV?

A

Patients with severe systematic disease that is a constant threat to life. These patients are at high risk.
#11, McCurnin’s (electronic version) 10th ed. Pg 2921

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2
Q

What is the recommended fasting time for small ruminants?

A

12-18
#11, McCurnin’s (electronic version) 10th ed. Pg 2920

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3
Q

Mydriasis is a common adverse effect of anticholinergic administration. What is mydriasis?

A

Dilation of the pupil.
#11, McCurnin’s (electronic version) 10th ed. Pg

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4
Q

Between the drugs Atropine and Glycopyrrolate, which is more rapid acting?

A

Atropine
#11, McCurnin’s (electronic version) 10th ed. Pg 2923

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5
Q

What is neuroleptanalgesia?

A

1 IB

state of profound sedation and analgesia that is produced by simultaneous administration of a opioid and and a tranquilizer

McCurrin’s 10th edition pg 928

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6
Q

What do we administer anticholinergics?

A

1 IB

counteract effects from the PNS stimulation (bradycardia, salivation)

McCurrin’s 10th edition pg 928

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7
Q

How can we tell if the endotracheal tube is placed correctly?

A

1 IB

reservoir bag contraction, fog/condensation in the tube, palpate trachea, ETCO2 monitor look for waveforms

McCurrin’s 10th edition pg 947

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8
Q

Normal blood pressure values for dogs and cats.

A

1 IB

systolic - 100-160
mean - 60-90
diastolic - 50-70
minimum pressure - 60

McCurrin’s 10th edition pg 956

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9
Q

Normal blood pressure values for horses.

A

1 IB

systolic - >80
mean - 60-90
diastolic - > 50
minimum pressure - 70

McCurrin’s 10th edition pg 956

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10
Q

When should a patient be extubated?

A

When the patient has a swallowing reflex or can voluntarily move limbs, head, tongue, or is chewing.
McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg 961
#5

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11
Q

How do you properly select an endotracheal tube size?

A
  1. Based on the animals’ size
  2. length from the tip of the nose to the thoracic inlet.
    McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg 945
    #5
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12
Q

What is the effect on the heart when using alpha-2’s?

A

Initial hypertension followed by prolonged hypotension. Bradycardia. Decreased cardiac output.
McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg 931
#5

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13
Q

What are some side effects of phenothiazine tranquilizers?

A

Vasodilation, hypotension, hypothermia and tachypnea.
McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg 930
#5

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14
Q

What is the criteria for an ASA III?

A

Patient with severe systemic disease
McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg 929
#5

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15
Q

How long should food be withheld from dogs and cats before anesthesia?

A

8-12 Hours
McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg 928
#6

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16
Q

How would you leak test a rebreathing system?

A

Close the pop off, fully occlude the Y piece, fill the system with oxygen via the flush until the pressure manometer reads a pressure of 30cm h2o. Ensure oxygen flow is off, and watch to make sure there is no pressure drop for 10 seconds.
McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg 938
#6

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17
Q

When a patient has an E status with their ASA, what does this indicate?

A

This is assigned to any patient that is an emergency. For example, a healthy young dog that has a stick wedged in its mouth. This may be an ASA1E.
McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg 928
#6

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18
Q

What ASA status would a patient with a pyometra be placed in?

A

ASA IV
McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg 929
#6

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19
Q

What drug is used as a reversal agent for Opioids?

A

Naloxone
McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg 931
#6

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20
Q

How do the effects of Alfaxalone differ from Propofol?

A

Alfaxalone causes minimal cardiovascular depression, no excitement, no muscle twitching, or pain on injection.

McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg. 933
#19 JY

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21
Q

What is dead space when referring to ET tubes?

A

Breathing passages and tubes that convey fresh gas to the alveoli but in which no gas exchange can occur

McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg. 945
#19 JY

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22
Q

What are some of the characteristics of the F 1 anesthetic plane?

A

Fear, excitement, struggling, HR increase, RR increase, panting, urination, defecation, and losing the ability to stand

McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg. 949
#19 JY

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23
Q

What are some of the characteristics of the stage 2 anesthetic plane?

A

Loss of voluntary control, irregular breathing pattern, involuntary reactions (vocalizing, reflex struggling, and vocalizations) elevated heart rates, dilated pupils, and marked muscle tone

McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg. 949
#19 JY

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24
Q

What are some of the characteristics of the stage 3 anesthetic plane?

A

Muscle relaxation, decreased HR, decreased RR, loss of reflexes, decreased tear production, and loss of pupillary light response

McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg. 949
#19 JY

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25
Q

Why is regurgitation more common during anesthesia?

A

Because of the relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter
#9 McCurnins 10th Edition pg. 971

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26
Q

In patients with liver disease what drug should be avoided?

A

Acepromazine
#9 McCurnins 10th Edition pg. 962

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27
Q

What are two conditions that would be an ASA IV?

A

Pyometra and Pneumothorax
#9 McCurnins 10th Edition pg. 929

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28
Q

How long do you fast horses prior to anesthesia?

A

8-12hrs
#9 McCurnins 10th Edition pg. 928

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29
Q

In blocked cats what drug should be avoided?

A

Ketamine
#9 McCurnins 10th Edition pg. 962

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30
Q

Define sedation vs. tranquilization

A

Sedation: state of calm of drowsiness
Tranzuilization: state of relaxation and reduced anxiety

SS 18
McCurnin’s 10th Edition
pg. 927

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31
Q

What are the reversal agents for alpha-2 adrenergic drugs?

A

Yohimbine, atipamezole, and tolazoline

SS 18
McCurnin’s 10th Edition
pg. 931

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32
Q

What is MAC and how does it relate to inhalant anesthesia?

A

MAC: minimum alveolar concentration
Represents the potency of inhalant anesthetics based off the percent concentration required to prevent a response to surgical simulation in 50% of patients

SS 18
McCurnin’s 10th Edition
pg. 934

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33
Q

Define laryngospasm during intubation.
Common in what species?

A

Glottis closes forcibly preventing the advancement of endotracheal tube during intubation.
Common in cats, pigs, and small ruminants

SS 18
McCurnin’s 10th Edition
pg. 947

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34
Q

What is the normal end-tidal CO2 for patients under anesthesia?

A

40-55 mmHg

SS 18
McCurnin’s 10th Edition
pg. 956

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35
Q

What are the common Benzodiazepines used in veterinary patients?

A

Diazepam, Midazolam, and zolazepam
PL 8 McCurnin 10th Edition pg. 930

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36
Q

What opioids are pure Mu agonists?

A

Morphine, Fentanyl, Oxymorphone and Hydromorphone
PL 8 McCurnin 10th Edition pg. 931

37
Q

What is an advantage of Propofol?

A

Quick onset of action and quick recovery
PL 8 McCurnin 10th Edition pg. 932

38
Q

How does a Scavenging system work?

A

It is connected to the pop-off valve or another breathing circuit outlet and transfers waste anesthetic gases outside the building through a system of hoses and pipes
PL 8 McCurnin 10th Edition pg. 944

39
Q

What would an animals vitals look like if they were too deep under anesthesia?

A

Heart Rate: Decreased
Respiration Rate: Decreased
Pulses: Weak/Nonpalpable
Mucous membranes: Pale
CRT: Prolonged (>2)
PL 8 McCurnin 10th Edition pg. 949

40
Q

How often should a patient’s eyes be lubricated during surgery?

A

Every 90 mins
JM #10
McCurnin 10th ed pg 960

41
Q

What steps should be taken if a patient begins vomiting during general anesthesia?

A

The patient’s head should be quickly positioned lower than the body to allow the vomitus to flow out. The oral cavity/pharynx should be suctioned and cleaned.
JM #10
McCurnin 10th ed pg 971

42
Q

How many liters of oxygen does a full E tank of oxygen contain?

A

660 L
JM #10
McCurnin 10th ed pg 939

43
Q

What is another name for a pop-off valve?

A

Adjustable pressure-limiting valve (APL)
JM #10
McCurnin 10th ed pg 938

44
Q

This device is often used in rabbits and cats. It creates seal around the laryngeal opening without invading without invading the tracheal lumen

A

a SAD or Supraglottic airway device
JM #10
McCurnin 10th ed pg 935

45
Q

What are the anesthesia machine systems?

A

17 AG

Carrier Gas Supply, Anesthetic Vaporizer, Breathing Circuit

McCurnin 10th Ed. Pg. 937

46
Q

What is the proper oxygen flow rate for chamber induction?

A

17 AG

5 L/minute

McCurnin 10th Ed. Pg. 941

47
Q

What are the parts of a rebreathing circuit?

A

17 AG

Fresh Gas Inlet, Inhalation Valve, Inhalation Hose, Y-Piece, Exhalation Hose, Reservoir Bag, Pop-Off Valve

McCurnin 10th Ed. Pg. 943

48
Q

What drug should be avoided in colic patients?

A

17 AG

Acepromazine

McCurnin 10th Ed. Pg. 963

49
Q

When should opioids be given to c-section patients?

A

17 AG

After delivery to avoid detrimental effects on the fetus.

McCurnin 10th Ed. Pg. 963

50
Q

What is the only drug that can be mixed with Diazepam?

A

7 MJ

Ketamine

McCurnin’s 10th ed pg 930

51
Q

What are the effects produced on the different opioid receptors?

A

7 MJ

Mu- analgesia, euphoria, dependence, miosis, hypothermia, respiratory depression

Kappa- analgesia, miosis, sedation

Sigma- dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and cardiac stimulation, mydriasis

McCurnin’s 10th ed pg 931

52
Q

What damage can occur when there is excessive pressure in the breathing circuit?

A

7 MJ

Dyspnea, lung damage, pneumothorax, decreased cardiac output

McCurnin’s 10th ed pg 944

53
Q

How long should cattle be fasted prior to anesthesia?

A

7 MJ

Food- 24-48 hours
Water- 8-12 hours

McCurnin’s 10th ed pg 928

54
Q

What does the position of the eyeball under anesthesia tell us?

A

7 MJ

Central- too light or too deep

Ventromedial- surgical anesthetic plane

McCurnin’s 10th ed pg 953

55
Q

What are dissociative drugs?

A

A group of injectables that cause sedation and can cause immobilization/unresponsiveness (ketamine)

McCurnin’s 10th ed pg 933
#15

56
Q

What are side effects of dissociative drugs?

A

Increased heart rate and blood pressure, respiratory depression, arrythmias, hypersalivation, increased cerebrospinal fluid pressure

McCurnin’s 10th ed pg 933
#15

57
Q

How to confirm proper placement of the endotracheal tube?

A

Watch the reservoir bag as the patient breathes, palpate the neck (only 1 hard tube should be noted), check ETCO2, condensation will appear on the tube

McCurnin’s 10th ed pg 947
#15

58
Q

How to check proper cuff inflation?

A

Inflate the cuff until you can no longer ear air leaking at 20cm H2O when giving a breathe

McCurnin’s 10th ed pg 947
#15

59
Q

Why might we preoxygenate the patient?

A

Preoxygenation helps increase the available oxygen in the patients lungs, and helps them tolerate apnea from induction better

McCurnin’s 10th ed pg957
#15

60
Q

What drug can be splashed onto the glottis to help reduce laryngospasm while intubating?

A

Lidocaine

McCurnin’s 10th ed pg 947
#16 RW

61
Q

How often should patients under anesthesia be monitored?

A

At least every 5 minutes from healthy ASA I patients and more often for high-risk patients.

McCurnin’s 10th ed pg 949
#16 RW

62
Q

What is the reversal agent for dexmedetomidine?

A

Atipamezole (Antisedan)

McCurnin’s 10th ed pg 931
#16 RW

63
Q

What are two common examples of anti-cholinergic agents used during anesthesia?

A

Atropine, Glycopyrrolate

McCurnin’s 10th ed pg 929
#16 RW

64
Q

What is the maximum pressure that can be allowed in the breathing circuit during a small animal pressure procedure?

A

20 cm H20.

McCurnin’s 10th ed pg 969
#16 RW

65
Q

Question: What is the primary purpose of pre-anesthetic evaluation?

A

To assess patient health, identify potential risks, and select appropriate anesthesia protocols.
#4, GG, McCurnin Pg. 928

66
Q

What are common anesthetic monitoring parameters?

A
  1. Heart rate
  2. Respiratory rate
  3. Blood pressure
  4. Oxygen saturation
  5. End-tidal CO2
    #4, GG, McCurnin, Pg. 949
67
Q

What is the purpose of recovery monitoring?

A

To ensure patient safety, monitor vital signs, and prevent complications during the recovery phase.
#4, GG, McCurnin, Pg. 960

68
Q

What are key indicators of effective circulation during anesthesia?

A
  1. Palpable strong pulse
  2. CRT ≤ 2 seconds
  3. Pink mucous membranes
  4. Normal blood pressure
    #4, GG, McCurnin, Pg. 951
69
Q

Which arteries are used to place an arterial line during equine anesthesia?

Why are arterial lines often placed during equine anesthesia?

A

Facial, transverse facial or dorsal pedal arteries.

Arterial lines are placed to get an accurate blood pressure and to draw blood gases during anesthesia.

3 LD
McCurnin’s 10th ed
pg 965

70
Q

What are key indicators of effective oxygenation during anesthesia?

A
  1. SpO2 ≥ 90%
  2. Pink mucous membranes
  3. Normal respiratory rate and depth
  4. ETCO2 within normal range
    #4,GG, McCurnin, Pg. 951
71
Q

Which species is guaifenesin used in and why?

A

Equine because it is an injectable muscle relaxant and sedative that can be used in combination with other agents.

3 LD
McCurnin’s 10th ed
pg 934

72
Q

The gas into which the liquid inhalant anesthetic evaporates is known as what?

A

Carrier gas

3 LD
McCurnin’s 10th ed
pg 938

73
Q

How long should food and water be withheld from horses before surgery?

A

Food - 8-12 hrs
Water 0-2 hrs

3 LD
McCurnin’s 10th ed
pg 928

74
Q

Why should acepromazine not be used in patients that are suffering from hypovolemia?

A

Acepromazine’s main side effect is peripheral vasodilation which causes hypotension.

3 LD
McCurnin’s 10th ed
pg 930

75
Q

What is the blood-gas partition coefficient?

A

Measurement of the tendency of an agent to dissolve in blood.
McCurnin’s 10th ed. p. 934
#13

76
Q

What is vapor pressure?

A

Measurement of the tendency of a liquid to evaporate.
McCurnin’s 10th ed. p. 934
#13

77
Q

Which inhalant anesthetic require a special electronic vaporizer and why?

A

Desflurane, high vapor pressure and a low- blood gas partition coefficient. Boiling point is near room temperature.
McCurnin’s 10th ed. p. 934
#13

78
Q

What is “double drip”?

A

Ketamine and Guaifenesin
McCurnin’s 10th ed. p. 934 #13

79
Q

What is “triple drip”?

A

Xylazine, Ketamine, Guaifenesin (glyceryl guaiacolate)
McCurnin’s 10th ed. p. 934 #13

80
Q

Is it important to always use premedications prior to inducing ruminants?

A

No. In many cases, ruminants are calm during induction and require mild restraint and no premedication.
14 BR
McCurnin’s 10th ed. pg 967

81
Q

How should a horse be evaluated, post anestesia, to determine whether it can be returned to its stall?

A

The horse should be able to stand and walk in a steady circle within the recovery stall. It should be muzzled for 1-3 hours after being returned to its stall.
14 BR
McCurnin’s 10th ed. pg 966

82
Q

What is the difference between manual and mechanical ventilation?

A

Manual ventilation is when the person running anesthesia squeezes the reservior bag to give a breath.

Mechanical ventilation is provided by a ventilator.
14 BR
McCurnin’s 10th ed. pg 969

83
Q

What are some of the problems that patients undergoing chamber induction can experience?

A

Stress, trauma, vomiting, airway blockage, or other issues. Additionally, monitoring parameters can’t accurately be assessed.
14 BR
McCurnin’s 10th ed. pg 959

84
Q

In small animals, what is the most frequently used evaluation of muscle tone?

A

Jaw tone is the most commonly used. Muscle tone can also be assessed using the size of the anal opening (closed at higher planes, open at deeper planes).
14 BR
McCurnin’s 10th ed. pg 953

85
Q

What is considered a rough/stormy recovery?

A

A patient will thrash, vocalize, paddles, tries to bite, falls over, or other uncontrolled behavior.
McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg 971 #12

86
Q

What can happen if a patient is in an excessive depth of anesthesia.

A

Cardiopulmonary arrest
McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg 970 #12

87
Q

Which drug should you not premed with if a patient has an urethral obstruction?

A

Benzodiazepines
McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg 968 #12

88
Q

Why does bloat occur in ruminants under anesthesia?

A

Ruminants cannot eructate to expel gas from their rumen.
McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg 966 #12

89
Q

What is local anesthesia?

A

Loss of sensation in a localized body part or region induced by administration of a drug or other agent without loss of consciousness.
McCurnin’s 10th ed. Pg 927 #12

VET 2050 Fa24 (10 decks)

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