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Anderson Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Internal carotid

A

goes inside head and doesn’t branch until much later

- not blood supply to anything in face or head and neck

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2
Q

arterial vs venus system

A

arterioles branch

venus goes here and there

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3
Q

branches of external carotid

Some Anatomists like Fucking, Others Prefer S&M

A
  • Sup thyroid
  • Asc pharyngeal
  • Lingual
  • Facial
  • Occipital
  • Posterior Auricular artery
  • Superficial temporal
  • Maxillary
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4
Q

terminal branches of external carotid

A

maxillary artery

superficial temporal artery

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5
Q

Are communicating arteries blood supply?

A

no

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6
Q

When internal carotid finally branches what does it branch to?

A

opthalamic

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7
Q

Where is dividing line between circle of willis and vertebral basilar system?

A

Post cerebral and superior cerebellar

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8
Q

where do vertebral arteries come from?

A

subclavian

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9
Q

What do vertebral arteries go through?

A

C6 foramen to C1

out atlantooccipital junction

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10
Q

spinal arteries are branches of what?

everything else branches off what?

A

vertebral

basilar

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11
Q

berry aneurism: which arteries

sx

A

anterior communicating
post communicating
middle cerebral
sudden excruciating HA

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12
Q

AVM: which arteries

sx

A

may occur anywhere

chronic HA

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13
Q

When does Hypertensive encephalopathy occur?

sx

A

diastolic BP above 120

confusion, drowsiness, ha, nausea

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14
Q

toxic encephalopathy

A

liver and kidney can’t get rid of toxins

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15
Q

deepest jugular vein that drains everything inside and most outside head

A

internal jugular

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16
Q

external jugular drains what?

A

backside of skull

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17
Q

confluens of sinuses

A

transverse sinus, superior and inferior saggital sinuses come together here

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18
Q

confluens forms what?

A

inion (bump on back of head)

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19
Q

most of brain blood comes from

A

sigmoid sinus

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20
Q

cavernous sinus and pterygoid plexus are what and what can they cause?

A

communicating areas with external face and neck

infections leading to encephalitis

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21
Q

cowdry bodies common in

A

herpes

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22
Q

negri bodies common in

A

rabies

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23
Q

intracranial pressure leads to

A

papilledema

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24
Q

cerebral edema

A

too much pressure going in
brain hypoxic and acidotic = brain damage
*common after injury, radiation, long term HTN

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25
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

enlarged ventricles

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26
Q

carbon dioxide buildup =

A

acidosis which can lead to necrosis

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27
Q

low O2/low pH =

A

hypoxia/ischemia

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28
Q

encephalomalacia

A

necrosis

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29
Q

CN1

A

olfactory
sensory
smells

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30
Q

CN2

A

optic
sensory
see

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31
Q

CN3

A

oculomotor
motor
superior oblique muscle

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32
Q

mneumonic for cranial nerves sensory or motor

A 
Some 
Say 
Marry
 Money
But 
My 
Brother
Says
Be 
Brave
Marry
Me
***B = mixed
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33
Q

what does CN 12 do?

A

motor to tongue

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34
Q

What does CN 11 do?

A

motor to trap and SCM

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35
Q

What does CN5 do?

A

feels the face, chews

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36
Q

What does CN6 do?

A

L.R. muscle

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37
Q

What does CN 7 do?

A

moves face, taste, cry, salivate

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38
Q

What does CN9 do?

A

glossopharyngeal

taste, saliva, swallow, baroreceptors

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39
Q

What does CN10 do?

A

taste, swallow, talk, lift palate

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40
Q

Nuclei distribution for PONs

A

CN 5,6,7,8

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41
Q

Nuclei distribution for Midbrain

A

CN 3,4

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42
Q

Nuclei distribution for Medulla

A

CN 9,10,11,12

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43
Q

Nuclei distribution for diencephalon

A

CN 1,2

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44
Q

what order does brainstem go in?

A 
top down:
midbrain
pons
medulla
spinal cord
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45
Q

sense of touch inside nose

A

CN5

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46
Q

anosmia due to

A

noxious chemicals or tumors or fractures of cribriform plate

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47
Q

sense of smell uses

vision uses

A 
smell = cAMP
vision = cGMP
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48
Q

where are cones/ high sensitive area?

A

fovea of macula

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49
Q

embryonically, eye grows out of

A

brain

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50
Q

sclera is

A

outer area, CT/same as dura

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51
Q

all of nerve fibers, receptive tissue

A

retina (same as brain)

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52
Q

blood vessels of eye are in

A

choroid (same as arachnoid)

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53
Q

lens is a ___ muscle and it gets ___ when pull it

A

round

smaller

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54
Q

when ciliary muscle contracts it goes from ____ to ___

relaxed ciliary muscle associated with ______ vision and when it is contracted it is associated with ____ vision.

A

thin to plump
far
near

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55
Q

aqueos humor is the same as and drains where?

A

extracellular fluid with no blood, etc.

canal of flegm

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56
Q

afferent vs efferent

A

afferent: coming in
efferenet: going out

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57
Q

disease with degeneration of pigment cell layer that leads to blindness

A

macular degeneration

light goes in, but can’t see

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58
Q

lesion at chiasm

A

bitemporal hemianopsia

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59
Q

optic nerve problem before pathways cross leads to

A

complete blindness in that eye

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60
Q

lesion behind chiasm

A

homonomous hemianopsia (seen in brain tumor patients)

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61
Q

where are cones

A

fovea of macula
central (rods periphery)
make you see color (cones = color)

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62
Q

parasympathetic activity of eye nemonic

A 
(beauty under a bright light) = small pupil, thick lens
contracted muscle
constricted pupil
fatter lens
near sight
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63
Q

sympathetic

A

relaxed ciliary muscle
dilated pupil
far sight

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64
Q

facial nerve does more than facial expression

A

salivation
tearing
taste (ant2/3)
motor to post digastric and strapedius

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65
Q

What are first and second holes that facial nerve goes through?

A

1st: internal acustic meatus
2nd: styloid mastoid foramen

66
Q

who goes through styloid mastoid foramen?

A

motor branch of facial nerve

67
Q

styloid mastoid foramen is important for which disease?

A

bells paulsy (all branches involved)

68
Q

***which cranial nerves are involved with anterior and posterior tongue taste?

A

ant: 7 taste (5 for touch)
post: 9 is back two thirds taste and touch

69
Q

**what muscle is innervated by CN9?

A

stylopharyngeus

70
Q

what hole does CN9 go through?

A

medulla through foramen to target areas

71
Q

what nerve operates parotid gland?

A

CN9

72
Q

ability of tongue to touch roof of mouth is what CN?

A

CN10 (every other motion of tongue is CN12)

73
Q

salty, sweet, sour, bitter are innervated with which CNs?

A

7 because they are tasted on anterior tongue

sour and bitter are 9 (post)

74
Q

optokinetic nystagmus

A

looking out of a train

- nystagmus improves image

75
Q

vestibular nystagmus

A

move head to quickly or put cold water in ear

76
Q

most common cause of pathologic nystagmus

A

horizontal nystagmus due to vestibular nerve swelling (hearing and balance issues)

77
Q

endolymph

perilymph

A

intracellular (K rich)

extracellular (Na rich)

78
Q

organ of corti

A

in basilar membrane

perilymph and endolymph associated

79
Q

lateral and medial geniculate bodies

A

auditory is medial (internal)

vision is lateral (external)

80
Q

gag reflex

A

CN 9 is sensory

CN 10 motor

81
Q

speech is which CN?

A

CN 12 (hypoglossal)

82
Q

Wernicke’s area

A 
sensory aphasia (word salad)
- difficulty understanding written/spoken language
83
Q

Broca’s area

A

motor aphasia

- understanding is intact

84
Q

parasympathetic ganglia come from

A

brainstem

85
Q

sympathetic ganglia come from

A

from thoracic nerve roots

- goes to heart and bronchi

86
Q

from chest through half of abdomen have

A

vagal influence: parasympathetic

87
Q

sexual response cycle uses

A 
both parasympathetic (arousal) and sympathetic (climax)
- all come from lower sacral nerve roots
88
Q

sympathetic bronchial response

A

dilates

constricts with parasympathetic

89
Q

saliva secretion is

A

parasympathetic

90
Q

how does PNS interact with spinal cord?

A

sensory input from dorsal horn

motor input from ventral

91
Q

what horn is involved with Polio?

A

sensory dorsal horn issues

92
Q

grey matter and white in spinal cord

A

grey synaptic in center

white is outer tracts

93
Q

spinal level reflexes

A 
C-5 bicep
C-6 brachioradialis
C-7 triceps
C-8 finger flex
L-4 patellar
L-5 foot
94
Q 
fiber types
A- alpha 
B- beta
A- gamma
A- delta
B
C
A

A- alpha: biggest fastest (motor neurons)
B- beta: touch and pressure
A- gamma: slower motorneurons
A- delta: touch, pressure, fast, pain
B: preganglionic autonomic fibers
C: smallest slowest (yes or no) pain and temp

95
Q

Golgi Tendon Organ

A

measures tension and inhibits alpha to protect against over stretch

96
Q

anterolateral system

A

lower sensitivity: anything shared with dorsal column:

  • pain
  • thermal
  • crude touch
  • tickle and itch
  • sexual sensation
97
Q

Upper vs lower motor neurons

A 
UMN defects (hyper): spastic paralysis, hyerreflexia, pos babinski
LMN (hypo): atrophy, flaccid paralysis, fibrillations, hyporeflexia, neg babinksi
98
Q

what are the 3 sensory pathways?

A

spinothalamic: pain and temp
fasciculus cuneatus, gracilis: concious proprioception
spinothalamic and medial leminiscus: light touch

99
Q

diancephalon

A

anything with the word thalamus

hypothalamus, thalamus, epithalmus

100
Q

fast vs slow pain fibers

A

slow: end at diencephalon
fast: sensory humunculus (give specific info)

101
Q

what can cross BBB?

A

lipid soluble, gases, water

BBB maintains constant env for neurons, prevents escape of neurotransmitters.

102
Q

CSF

A

extracellular fluid and plasma

created by choroid plexus

103
Q

what amino acid does the main membrane transport system use?

A

glutathione

104
Q

what hormones enhance cellular AA uptake?

A

GH and insulin

105
Q

excitatory neurotransmitters

A

glutamate and aspartate

106
Q

inhibitory neurotransmitters

A 
GABA
glycine
serine
alanine
cystathione
107
Q

inactive neurotransmitters

A

glutamine
lysine
threonine
leucine

108
Q

brain transmitter uppers

A 
serotonin
ACTH
norepi
epi
dopamine
glycine (also downer)
109
Q

downers

A 
GABA
nitric oxide
histamine
neurosteroids
glycine (also upper)
110
Q

primary sulfur containing amino acids and

what does it do?

A

cysteine

helps make glutathione and taurine

111
Q

what form of sulfur is toxic?

A

sulfite (not sulfate)

sulfate used in brain to get rid of junk

112
Q

What helps get rid of sulfites by turning them into sulfate?

A

Mo intermediary

113
Q

Methylation or methyl step involves what?

A

folic acid and B12

114
Q

what enzyme creates and enzyme that breaks down acetyl choline

A

choline acetylase

acetylcholine esterase breaks down

115
Q

reason muscle don’t go into muscle tetany

A

acetlycholine esterase

116
Q

most pesticides are

A

choline esterase inhibitors

would cause prolonged muscle tetany

117
Q

tryptophan makes _____ by hydroxylating tryptophan with _____

A

seratonin

5HTP

118
Q

** Seratonin can be turned into _____ in the diencephalon

A

melatonin

  • depression = can’t sleep either because no seratonin = no melatonin
119
Q

tryptophan is ____ dependent

deficiency in ____ can lead to seratonin deficiency

A

B6

B6

120
Q

circadian rhythm is driven by?

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus which receives input from retina.

121
Q

primary circadian rhythm hormones

A

melatonin (sleep)

cortisol (wake)

122
Q

What leads to cortisol surge?

What leads to melatonin release?

A
  • ACTH

- low light leads to increased activity of retina-hypothalamic pathway which leads to pineal gland melatonin release

123
Q

high doses of corticosteroids leads to

A

sleeplessness (brain thinks it is awake constantly)

124
Q

***phenylalanine converts to? what enzyme is used?

A 
tyrosine
phenylalanine hydroxylase (deficeint in children with phenylketonuria (PKU))
125
Q

number one cause of mental retardation?

caused by what?

A

PKU

deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase

126
Q

tyrosine is used for:

A

base for thyroid hormone syntheses
used in TCA cycle for energy
makes melanin
hydroxylated to L-DOPA and then to Dopamine

127
Q

difference between PNS and CNS catecholamine producing neurotransmitters

A

N-Methyl-Transferase (final step for formation of EPI)

128
Q

L-Dopa to Dopamine is dependent on what?

A

B6 and B1

129
Q

Dopamine to NE inhibited by and stimulated by?

A

inhibited by: gluatathione, cysteine, B-5

stimulated by: copper and vit c

130
Q

If you don’t get rid of catecholamines what happens

What disease has this?

A

go into hyper metabolic state
(increased HR, manic/psychotic rage, PNS breaks down)
- pheochromocytoma

131
Q

Two enzyme reactions critical for getting rid of catecholamines

A

MAO
COMT
VMA (most important intermediate) tested in urine to see if overproducing catecholamines.

132
Q

what is tested in urine to see if overproducing catecholamines?

A

VMA

133
Q

what is donor of NO and what enzyme

A

arginine

NO synthase

134
Q

NO associated with

what does it do?

A

GMP (vision)

vascular smooth muscle dilation (control HTN, erectile tissues, etc) dependent on GMP

135
Q

histadine is bioconverted to ____ using ____

A

histamine

B1 and histadine decarboxylase

136
Q

purposes of histamine

A

peripherally: part of cytokine system to trigger immune response (good)

137
Q

first step to get histamine out of the body
next step
final step

A

1) methylate
2) MAO (monoamine oxydase: also used to get rid of catecholamines, seratonin, etc.)
3) removed through liver

138
Q

what converts glutamine to GABA?

why is this important

A 
GABA decarboxylase (B1 dependent)
important because GABA (primary inhibitory neurotransmitter) is formed by same thing that makes glutamate (primary excitatory neurotransmitter)
139
Q

basal nuclei do what?

A

filter info to and from motor cortex
talk to cerebellum
= purposeful normal movement

140
Q

vestibulocerebellum
pontocerebellum
spinocerebellum

A
  • balance and eye movement coordination
  • planning and initiation of movement
  • synergy, which controls rate, force, range of movement
141
Q

diseases from basal nuclei

A

parkinsons and hutingtons

142
Q

choreaform/hutington’s chorea

A

jerky uncontrolled movements
younger
progress to death

143
Q

Parkinson’s is damage to
sx
cause

A 
substantia nigra (dopaminergic system)
festinating gait, cog-wheel rigidity, pill-rolling, resting tremor
autoimmune or drug-induced
144
Q

ALS/Lou Gerhig’s

A 
loss of UMN or LMN
muscle atrophy
weakness
hyper-reflexia
death due to resp complication
145
Q

most common organisms for 0-4 weeks infxn

A

Group B strep, E. coli, Listeria

146
Q

most common organism 4 weeks->50

A

S pneumoniae

147
Q

difference between encephalitis and meningitis

A

presence of neurologic deficit in encephalitis due to inflammation of brain

148
Q

clinical signs of brain tumors

A

drowsiness, lethargy, personality changes, psychosis, seizures, HA, N/V, papilledema (same for most issues with brain)
** new seizures could be due to tumor

149
Q

neuroglial tumors

A 
all called astrocytomas up to grade 3.
glioblastoma multiforme (grade 4 astrocytoma): most common brain tumors of adults
150
Q

peripheral nerve tumors

A

schwannoma = benign
acoustic neuroma = CN8
neurofibroma = benign if solitary
neurofibromatosis = autosomal dominant (Von Recklinghausens)

151
Q

Demyelinating disorders

A

MS is biggest: glove and stalking parasthesias (CNS)

Guillain-Barre Syndrome (PNS): first flu-like illness, then ascending paralysis

152
Q

Dysmyelination disorders (CNS)

A

leukodystrophy

abnormal myelin

153
Q

B1 deficiency due to alcoholism

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

154
Q

dementia, dermatitis, diarrhea, death (4D’s)

A

Pellegra/niacin def (B3)

*used to be mental hospitals filled with people who just had B3 deficiency

155
Q

macrocytic anemia, degeneration of spinal cord, not cured by folate

A

vit B12 def

156
Q

folate does not cure what in B12 def

A

neurologic component

157
Q

diffuse cortical atrophy, neurofibrillary tangles, senile plaques in cortex, abnormal tau proteins, microglia, astrocytes

A

alzeimer’s

158
Q 
lysosomal storage disease
progressive neurodegenerative disorder
paralysis, dementiamia, seizures follow dev retardation
def of hexosaminidase A
death by age 4
A

Tay-Sachs

159
Q
  • def of what enzyme in Tay-Sachs
A

hexosaminidase A

160
Q

alpha-glucosidase deficiency

A

Pomp’s

161
Q

lack of what enzyme in PKU

A

phenylalanine hydroxylase

162
Q

toxic levels of copper storage

liver, brain, eye (Kaiser-Fleisher rings)

A

Wilson’s Disease

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