Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards > Anderson Cardio > Flashcards

Anderson Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

most common neonatal malformation

A

interventricular septum defects (IVSD)

- holosystolic murmur (blood between r and l ventricle in systole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is IVS?

A

final event in separating aortic and pulmonary outflow from heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

25% of IVS defects occur in which portion?

A

membranous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

tetrology of fallot

A

VSD (ventricular septal defect) dextraposed (aorta turned to right), pulmonary stenosis, RV hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

right atrium gets its blood supply from ____ and left atrium gets its blood from _____

A

IVC and SVC

pulmonary veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which valves are on the right side?

which valves are on the left side?

A

right: tricuspid and pulmonic (draining venous into lungs)
left: mitral and aorta (draining lungs and pumping into body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

S1 is

S2 is

A

S1 (lub): closure of atrioventricular (tricuspid and mitral)

S2 (dub): closure of semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when is systole?

diastole?

A

between S1 and S2

between S2 and S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

regurgitation

stenosis

A

blood flowing backwards

hardening of valves = not enough blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

during systole which valves should be closed

during diastole?

A

tricuspid and mitral

aortic and pulmonic closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

closed valves are ____ and open valves are ______

A

regurg

stenotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

systolic murmurs

A

aortic and pulmonic stenosis

tricuspid and mitral regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

diastolic murmurs

A

aortic and pulmonic regurg

tricuspid and mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CAD is usually on which side?

A

left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what part of the heart is supplied by the right coronary artery?
left?

A

right: right ventricle and post left ventricle
left: feeds anterior and lateral portions of left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

cause of ischemia

complications of ischemia

A

angina pectoris
sudden cardiac death
coronary artery spasm
complications: LCHF, arrhythmias, MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

most common cause of LCHF

A

chronic ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

SA node is where

bundle branches are where

A

right atrium

one on right and two on left (follow coronary arteries and left branches)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

actute vs subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

acute is more rare and attacks normal heart valves

subacute is more common and attacks abnormal heart and can have low virulent microbes that cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

rheumatic heart disease

A

post rheumatic sequelae (systemic reation to past beta hemolytic infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

most common valve disease

A

mitral valve prolapse (heard between lub and dub)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what causes bacterial myocarditis

A

staph, strep, corynebacterium diptheria

dilation and flabby ventricular myocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what causes rickettsial myocarditis

A

typhus, rocky mt spotted fever

dilation and flabby chambers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

most common myocardial disease

A

viral myocarditis

coxsacki-B, flu, CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

sequelae of myocardial disease

A

CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

dilated cardiomyopathy

A

most common
enlarged heart
young people acute dyspnia is what is seen
seen in alcoholics, hypothyroid, postpartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

secondary disease (seen in Pompe’s, Hurler’s, sarcoidosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

idiopathic hypertrophic subacute stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

pericarditis

A

secondary to infection in lung or radiation
understernum chest pain
constrictive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

worst MI

A

transmural MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

right vagus nerve goes to
left vagus goes to
disruption leads to
vagus innervation is

A 
SA node (slows freqency)
AV node (slows conduction)
rhythm disfunction
Parasympathetic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

cardiac muscle at rest

During and AP there is

A

troponin (tp) and tropomysin (tm) block actin/myosin binding

Ca influx: Ca binds to Tp and Tm which leads to actin myosin binding, ATP to ADP and muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which organelle takes ca out of muscle cell during relaxation phase

A

t-tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

EPI does what in heart

A

cAMP and phosphorylation

it holds Ca channel open longer (important because you can alter cardiac strength this way)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

cardiac AP has a

A

plateau because really long AP potential

-mediated by Ca channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are the areas of the sympathetic supply of the aorta?

A 
celiac (esophagus to stomach)
in mesenteric (duodenum to ascending colon and transverse colon to rectum)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

vertebral arteries branch off what?

A

subclavian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what does subclavian change to?

A

subclavian, then axillary, then brachial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ext iliac artery becomes what?

A

femoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

benign tumors end in

A

oma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

polyartaritis nodosa

A

necrotizing inflammation of small and med cranial vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

temporal arteritis (giant cell arteritis)

A

inflammation in whole carotid tree

- notice by touching temples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Buerger’s (thromboangitis obliterans)

A

men, heavy smokers, nodular phlebitis, gangrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Raynaud’s phenomenon

A

secondary in people who have SLE, Buerger’s etc.

Raynaud’s disease is primary idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

aortic dissection

A

lumen of aorta dissects due to pressure and loss of patency. Looks like a double barrel. See severe back pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

thrombi vs embolis

A

embolis: moving around. Broke of thrombus
thrombus: clot that has formed in blood vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

mostly seen in HIV
purple black papules
HHV infection can trigger
dangerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

hemangioma

- can cause what disease

A

capillary: benign
cavernous: larger, associated with Lindau van hipple (hemangioma in place of an organ)

49
Q

where does the largest decrease in pressure occur?

A

the largest decrease in pressure occurs across the arterioles because they are the site of highest resistance

50
Q

where is pressure highest and lowest in heart

A

highest: aorta
lowest: venae cavae

51
Q

HTN - difference between primary and secondary

A

> 140/90
mostly essential HTN and we don’t know what causes it
secondary HTN is due to some other disease

52
Q

Cor Pulmonale

A

right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary HTN

53
Q

difference between serum and plasma

A

plasma: draw in tube that has anti-coagulant and all cloating factors stay in blood.
serum: whole blood allowed to clot and clot removed

54
Q

gamma globulin series

A

antibodies

55
Q

lymphoid stem cells turn into what?

A

T-cells in thymus

56
Q

difference between heme iron and non heme iron

A

heme iron: comes from meat and doesn’t need transferring for uptake (easier to raise iron levels if you use heme iron)
non heme iron: rust (body doesn’t like this type because it oxidizes everything). Needs to be taken up by transferrin

57
Q

ferrous iron

ferric iron

A

Fe 2+

Fe 3+

58
Q

lactoferrin

A

sequestering agent in blood used when infection active to keep Fe away from bacteria so replication is slower

59
Q

porforin ring

A

place where you stick iron

60
Q

ferrochelatase

A

puts Fe 2+ in middle of porforin ring and call it heme

61
Q

where are reticuloendothelial cells

A

bone marrow, liver cells

62
Q

where do you see ferritin in vascular world?

A

capillaries

63
Q

porpherias

A

overproducing 1 or more porphorin’s

  • intermediates to porforin ring are toxic
  • unexplained abdominal pain, neurologic symptoms
64
Q

T hemoglobin

A

protected for that is folded up with no oxygens

it is a magnet for gases

65
Q

myoglobin

A

muscle stored oxygen

66
Q

is arterial or venous blood more acidic?

A

venous because it has higher levels of CO2

67
Q

what stimulates dumping of O2?

A

acidity/CO2, increased temp, 2,3 BPG

68
Q

what are three forms of CO2 that is brought to lungs?

A

dissolved
carbaminohemoglobin
HCO3 which is the major form (90%)

69
Q

CO2 plus hemoglobin is called

A

carbaminohemoglobin

70
Q

bohr affect

A

hide CO2 in bigger molecule and then release it when it gets to the lung (example HC03)
*runs identically in two directions: CO2 to CO3 in peripheral tissue and then CO3 to CO2 in lungs

71
Q

carbonic anhydrase

A

another example of bohr effect

72
Q

How is anemia caused

A

decrease iron, poison mitochondria, put lead in system (don’t form porforin), or decrease in vitamin B6

73
Q

folic acid and B12/cobalamin always work together and are used in

A

methyl transfer reactions

74
Q

most common reason for hemolytic anemia is

A

G6PD deficiency because no NADPH produced and don’t recycle glutathione so RBCs blow up

75
Q

what do you see in pernicious anemia?

what type of cells are affected?

A

atrophic gastritis with loss of parietal cells

76
Q

heinz bodies

A

G6PD deficiency

77
Q

teardrop cells, basophilic stippling, target cells

A

seen in both thalassemias

78
Q

difference between alpha and beta thalassemia

A

born with defect in alpha or beta forming genes have thallasemia

79
Q

see what type of anemia in thalassemia

A

hypochromic microcytic (small cells with higher Hgb)

80
Q

polycythemia major

A

diagnosed as a young child

81
Q

polycythemia minor

A

undiagnosed until they are an adult

82
Q

crescent shaped cells

A

sickle cell anemia

83
Q

anaplastic anemia

A

pancytopenia after exposure to drug, infection, etc.

84
Q

polycthemia vera

A

myeloproliferative disease with high Hgb, viscous blood

85
Q

multiple myeloma

A

lytic lesions
plasma cells
hypercalcemia

86
Q

what type of proteins seen in urine of Multiple Myeloma patient

A

bence jones proteins

87
Q

most common leukemia and cancer in children

A

acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

88
Q

most common leukemia in adults

A

acute myeloblastic leukemia

89
Q

which type of white cell dyscrasia has the philadelphia chromosome

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

90
Q

most common overall leukemia and most common over 60

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia

91
Q

leukemia common in middle aged men with pancytopenia and B cells

A

Hairy Cell Leukemia

92
Q

intrinsic pathway clotting cascade
measured by
drugs

A

blood trauma (turbulence and viscosity) or collagen and blood contact

  • measure by PTT
  • heparin
93
Q

extrinsic pathway
measured by
drugs

A

damage outside of blood vessel (vitamin K dependent clotting factors 2,7,9,10)
PT/INR

94
Q

vitamin K dependent clotting factors in extrinsic pathway

A

2,7,9,10

95
Q

Pouseuille’s Equation

A

resistance to blood vessels

thicker blood = greater resistance

96
Q

Hemophilia A

A

factor VIII def
sex linked recessive
males
spontaneous bleeding of joints

97
Q

Hemophilia B/Christmas Dz

A

factor IX def

male

98
Q

Von Willebrand’s

A 
autosomal dominant 
VWF needed for platelet clumping
spontaaneous bleeding from mucus membranes
prolonged bleeding time and PTT
normal platelets
99
Q

what factors are vitamin K dependent?

what protein is def in vit k def?

A

needed for factors II,VII,IX,X

protein c

100
Q

thrmobocytopenia

A

too few platelets

below 70,000

101
Q

DIC

A

increased consumption of platelets

102
Q

systemic response to hemorrhage

A

baroreceptors sense change in pressure and sends info to brain. Brain tells body to constrict arterioles and veins, decrease hydrostatic pressure, activate renin angiotensin system, activate aldosterone-sodium system to increase blood volume in response to hemorrhage

103
Q

when does hypovolemic shock occur

A

when lose more than 20% of blood

104
Q

oncotic pressure

hydrostatic pressure

A

keeps fluid in
drives fluid out
(starling forces)

105
Q

anasarca

A

generalized edema (not seen often)

106
Q

half of US deaths are caused by

A

cardiovascular disease resulting from myocardial or cerebral infarctions

107
Q

B lymphocyte tumor
maxilla or mandible
EBV/malaria, Africa
sequelae of non-hodgkins lymphoma

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

108
Q

young adults or 60 yo
curable
intermittent spiking fever
one node then spreads

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

109
Q

most common lymphoma
more deadly prognosis
associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma

A

non-hodgkins lymphoma

110
Q

P wave coincides with ____

A

diastole/filling atrial depolarization

111
Q

QRS segment coincides with ___

A

isovolumetric contraction (no valves open)

112
Q

T wave coincides with

A

ejection/systole

113
Q

Intrinsic ability of heart to adapt to changing blood volumes

A

Frank Starling law: the greater the heart is filled during diastole (preload), the greater the volume of blood that will be pumped into aorta

114
Q

changes in arterial pressure (after load) have ___ effect on rate of pumping by heart

A

little

115
Q

cardiac output =

A

cardiac output = heart rate x stroke volume
CO = HR x SV
* more ventricular pressure = more output

116
Q

Right sided CHF

A

emphysema, mitral stenosis, left ventricular failure

pleural effusion, ascites

117
Q

Left CHF

A

ischemic heart dz, systemic HTN

crackles, cough, cyanosis

118
Q

cor pulmonale

A

right ventricular hypertrophy due to pulmonary HTN

Boards (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions