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Anatomy > Anatomy Exam #2 > Flashcards

Anatomy Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

Sclerotome give rise to

A

Bones, cartilage, and tendon

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2
Q

Myotome give rise to

A

Muscles

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3
Q

Dermatome give rise to

A

Dermis of skin

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4
Q

Loose Connective Tissue Examples

A

lamina propria beneath epithelial lining of digestive tract

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5
Q

Dense Irregular Connective Tissue

A

dermis of skin, organ capsules, submucosa layer of digestive tract

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6
Q

Dense regular connective tissue

A

ligaments, tendons, aponeuroses, corneal stroma

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7
Q

Mesenchyme is the origin of ?

A
  • origin of all connective tissue

- develops mainly from mesoderm

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8
Q

Mucoid Connective Tissue

A

matrix of the fetal umbilical cord

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9
Q

Reticular Connective Tissue

A

bone marrow, liver, pancreas, adrenal gland, all lymphoid organs except the thymus

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10
Q

Hurler’s syndrome

A

Lysosomal storage disease

gargoyle disease

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11
Q

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A
  • rubberman syndrome
  • Major symptoms include joint hypermobility, cutaneous laxity (i.e., stretchy skin), abnormal scar formation, vascular rupture
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12
Q

Marfan syndrome

A
  • Patients tend to be tall, with long and thin limbs, long fingers (and toes), can suffer from scoliosis
  • abe lincoln
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13
Q

Scleroderma

A
  • Thickening of skin

- Essentially, dysregulation of fibroblasts and myofibroblasts leads to excessive collagen deposition, causing fibrosis

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14
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta

A
  • irregular bone formation

- the middle character

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15
Q

Scurvy

A
  • Vitamin C deficiency

- Symptoms include bleeding gums, loose teeth, tooth loss, poor wound healing, edema

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16
Q

Psoriasis

A

is a disease characterized by patchy lesions caused by greater keratinocyte proliferation in the stratum basale and stratum spinosum and an accelerated cell cycle

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17
Q

Layers of skin

A

stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale, dermis

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18
Q

Platelets function

A

Clotting, vessel wall repair

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19
Q

Erythrocytes Function

A

O2 & CO2 transport

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20
Q

Leukocytes

A

immune response

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21
Q

Babesiosis

A

Depressed RBC and platelet counts that is a parasite that passes by ticks

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22
Q

eosinophils

A
  • Elevated levels indicates parasitic infection
  • Major contributor to inflammatory response
  • Major contributor to allergies – dermatitis, rheumatoid arthritis, reflux esophagitis, asthma
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23
Q

neutrophils aka neutrocytes

A
  • Most abundant WBC
  • “First responders”
  • Phagocytose bacteria (other anti-microbial actions)
  • Neutropenia can indicate aplastic anemia, leukemia, chemotherapy
  • Neutropenia increases risk of infection
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24
Q

basophils

A
  • Involved in inflammatory response

- Deviations from normal count difficult to detect because baseline/normal count is already very low

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25
Q

mast cells

A
  • Involved in parasite response, angiogenesis, wound healing, inflammation
  • Implicated in allergic response and anaphylaxis
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26
Q

lymphocytes

A

Primary role: identification of self vs non-self

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27
Q

memory cells

A

These cells “remember” prior encounters with pathogens and tumors which facilitates faster and more effective immune response

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28
Q

Where are monocytes held and what can happen if this organ is damaged?

A
  • held in the spleen and are released when an infections occurs
  • if spleen is damaged, at risk for infection
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29
Q

Erythrocytes

A

Red blood cells

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30
Q

Sickle-cell disease

A

Point mutation that turns a hemoglobin A into a hemoglobin S – HbS or Hb-S

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31
Q

porphyria

A
  • Result from defective heme
  • Symptoms in some types include blistering after sunlight exposure
  • Symptoms can be mitigated by the ingestion of blood
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32
Q

From which skeletal locations do we harvest hematopoietic marrow?

A

Iliac crest

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33
Q

Leukemia

A
  • Pathological proliferation of bone marrow stem cells

- Diagnosis: repeated CBCs with elevated WBC counts

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34
Q

Polycythemia

A
  • Overproduction of RBCs

- Manifests as abnormal thromboses

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35
Q

The median nerve innervates what muscles?

A

3 thenar muscles (recurrent branch) and 1,2 lumbricals

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36
Q

Main artery to superficial palmar arch

A

ulnar artery

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37
Q

Main artery to deep palmer arch

A

radial artery (lies under anatomical snuff box and passes between adductor policis head)

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38
Q

muscle that runs over the hypothenar muscles and function?

A

palmaris brevis covers/protects ulnar nerve and artery

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39
Q

Dorsal interossei muscle action?

A

DAB abduction (connect to digit 1,4,5)

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40
Q

Palmar interossei muscle action

A

PAD adduction (connect to digits 2-4)

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41
Q

Lumbrical action along with dorsal and palmar interossei

A
  • Flex the fingers at the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joints
  • all connect to extensor expansion
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42
Q

Superficial radial nerve innervates what in the hands?

A

Lateral two-thirds of the dorsum of the hand

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43
Q

DR. CUMAB

A

Wrist Drop: radial nerve
Claw Hand: ulnar nerve
Ape Hand and Benediction hand: median nerve

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44
Q

Deep branch of the Ulnar Nerve innervates?

A
  • Three hypothenar muscles
  • Medial two lumbricals
  • Adductor pollicis
  • Deep head of the FPB
  • All palmar and dorsal interossei
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45
Q

Laceration of the median nerve at the wrist results inn

A
  • paralysis of the thenar muscles and the first two lumbricals:
  • opposition of the thumb is not possible
  • fine control movements of the 2nd and 3rd digits are impaired
  • sensation is also lost over the thumb and adjacent two and a half fingers
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46
Q

Radial Nerver innervation

A

brachioradialis

ECRL

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47
Q

Deep Branch of Radial

A

ECRB

Supinator

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48
Q

Posterior interosseous nerve

A

everything but ECRL, ECRL, supinator, brachioradialis

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49
Q

Tennis Elbow

A

-Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (ECRB)
-Caused from repetitive or overuse use of superficial extensor muscles
Pain over lateral epicondyle that radiates down the posterior surface of the forearm

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50
Q

Golfer’s Elbow

A

felt on the medial epicondyle

Repetitive or overuse of flexor muscles

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51
Q

Mallet/Baseball Finger

A

Hyperextension of a long extensor tendon at the distal interphalangeal joint

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52
Q

Zonula adherens

A

Cell to cell
Actin
Cadherin

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53
Q

Desmone

A

Cell to cel
Intermediate
Catherin

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54
Q

Focal Contact

A

Cell to matrix
actin
integrin

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55
Q

Hemidesmosome

A

cell to matrix
intermediate
integrin

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56
Q

Microvilli location

A

intestin kidneys

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57
Q

Stereocilia are and location

A

long microvilli

epididymis (absorption) and ear cochlea (sensory receptors)

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58
Q

Cilia action and location

A 
transport material (beating dynein)
respiratory tract, oviducts
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59
Q

Zonula Occludens (tight junction) location

A

stomach and kidney

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60
Q

coracoid-acromial arch

A

coracoid process, coracoacromial lig, and acromion

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61
Q

Fall on shoulder

A

dislocate acromioclavicular joint with coracolavicular lig rupture

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62
Q

Fall on elbow

A

dislocate acromioclavicular joint only

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63
Q

Dislocating shoulder can risk rupture of what arteries and nerves

A

ant/post. circumflex humeral a, axillary/radial nerve

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64
Q

Subluxation and dislocation of radial head

A

anular ligament

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65
Q

Colles’ fracture

A

fracture distal end of radius

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66
Q

Quadricep Muscles

A

Vastus lateralis, intermedius, medialis, rectus femoris
Innervation: Femoral nerve
Action: Extend at knee

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67
Q

Obturator Externus innervation

A

obturator nerve

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68
Q

Femoral Sheath includes and excludes

A

includes: femoral artery, vein, and ingiuneal lymph
excludes: femoral nerve

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69
Q

Pes Anserinus and insertion

A
  • semitendinosus, gracilis, satoris

- sup part of medial surface of tibia

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70
Q

Obturator nerve innervates

A

Adductor longus, brevis, magnus (adductor part), obturator externus, gracilis

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71
Q

Obturator internus, superior gemelli innervation

A

nerve to obturator internus

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72
Q

Quadratus femoris and inferior gemelli innervation

A

nerve to quadrates femoris

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73
Q

Superior Gluteal nerve innervates

A

G med, G min, and TENSOR FASCIA LATAE

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74
Q

Intragluteal injections

A

Superolateral quadrant

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75
Q

Superior Gluteal Nerve injury

A
  • loss function of G med, G min
  • paralyzed hip in go up
  • Pos. Trendelenburg Test
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76
Q

Week 4

A

curved, with upper limb buds

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77
Q

Week 5

A

hand and foot plates

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78
Q

Week 6

A

fingers, toes, ears, or at least their primordia are clear

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79
Q

Week 7

A

arm is longer, bent at elbow, fingers distinct but likely webbed

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80
Q

Week 8

A

Fingers should be free, toes should be distinct but likely webbed – tail present

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81
Q

Collagen type IV

A

Gives structure to basal lamina

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82
Q

Blood supply to posterior thigh

A
  • perforating branch or medial circumflex femoral

- BICEP FEMORIS: same + inf. gluteal a

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83
Q

Innervation to posterior thigh

A
  • All tibial nerve

- Except BICEP FEMORIS (SHORT HEAD): common fibular

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84
Q

Hamstring Muscles attachment

A

Ischial Tuberosity [except bicep femoris (shorted): linea aspera]

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85
Q

Vein and nerve that run posterior to gastrocnemius?

A

medial sural->sural nerve, and small saphenous vein

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86
Q

Anterior Leg Compartment Muscles and innervation

A

EHL, EDL, tibialis anterior

Deep fibular nerve

87
Q

Lateral leg compartment muscles and innervation

A

Fibularis longus and brevis

Superficial fibular nerve

88
Q

soleus action

A

workhorse of plantarflexion

89
Q

plantaris action

A

proprioception

90
Q

popliteus action

A

laterally rotates the femur to “unlock” the knee and initiates flexion of the knee

91
Q

Deep Fibular branches in the foot

A

lateral and medial branch of deep fibular

92
Q

Jones fracture

A

5th metatarsal tuberosity fracture

93
Q

medial plantar nerve innervates

A

FDB, FHB, abductor hallucis, & first lumbrical

94
Q

lateral plantar nerve innervates

A

adductor hallucis, interossei, lumbricals 2-4, quadratus plantae

95
Q

what innervate the EDB

A

deep fibular nerve

96
Q

Fovea

A

pit on femur head for attachment point for ligament of the head of femur

97
Q

Break of the femoral head will damage what?

A

Med/Lat circumflex a.

98
Q

Dislocation of the hip can injure?

A

sciatic nerve

99
Q

arterial supply the cruciate ligaments, synivial membrane, and peripheral margins of the menisci

A

middle genicular a

100
Q

What ligaments are usually torn during an ankle sprain?

A
  • anterior talofibular ligament and sometimes calcaneofibular
  • eversion
101
Q

Potts Fraction-Dislocation

A
  • Pulls on the strong medial collateral ligament and often tears off the medial malleolus. The talus then move laterally shearing off the lateral collateral malleolus or breaking the fibula
  • inversion
102
Q

Medial longitudinal arch bone make up

A

calcaneus, talus, navicular, three conforms, and three metatarsals

103
Q

Lateral longitudinal arch bone make up

A

calcaneus, cuboid and two metatarsals

104
Q

Layers of the heart (outside->in)

A

epicardium, myocardium, endocardium

105
Q

Ebstein’s anomaly

A

Tricuspid valve displaced towards apex making the right atrium larger than normal

106
Q

Chordae tendineae

A

stringy part in the ventricles that play a vital role in holding the atrioventricular valves in place while the heart is pumping blood

107
Q

Aortic Valve three cusps

A

right (right coronary a.), post, left (left coronary a.)

108
Q

Most likely areas for artery coronary artery occlusion?

A
  1. Anterior interventricular (LAD) branch of LCA
  2. RCA
  3. Circumflex branch of LCA
109
Q

Diastole what valves are closed

A

pulmonary and aortic valves (atrium filling w blood)

110
Q

systole what valves are closed

A

tricuspid and mitral valves (ventricle pumping blood)

111
Q

parasympathetic innervation of the heart

A

vagus nerve (decrease heart rate)

112
Q

sympathetic innervation of the heart

A

Lateral horn gray mater T1-T4

113
Q

Heart pain

A

angina

114
Q

Cardiac skeleton is made up of

A

left and right fibrous trigone

115
Q

what the wall called that separate the right and left ventricle

A

septum

116
Q

cardiac skeleton purpose

A
  • Prevents the openings overly extended
  • Provides attachment for leaflets and cusps
  • Provides attachment for myocardium
  • Electric insulator between atria and ventricles
117
Q

what vein is used for a coronary bypass surgery

A

great saphenous vein

118
Q

Septical Defect

A

blood can pass from atrium to atrium or ventricle to ventricle

119
Q

Pericardiocentesis

A

A needle is inserted into the pericardial cavity through the fifth intercostal space left to the sternum or to the left of the xiphoid process

120
Q

Right Lung parts

A

Superior: Apical, Posterior, Anterior
Middle: Lateral, Medial
Inferior: Superior, ant. basal, medial basal, lat. basal, post. basal

121
Q

Left Lung Part

A

Superior: Apical, Posterior, Anterior, Sup lingual, inf. lingual
Inferior: Superior, Anterior basal, Medial basal, lat. basal, post. basal

122
Q

Sac around lung part

A

parietal pleura, pleural cavity, visceral pleura

123
Q

where can fluid accumulate in the lungs

A

costodiaphragmatic recess and costomediastinal (sternocostal) recess

124
Q

left and right pleural move laterally at what rib

A

left 4 (cardiac notch), right 6

125
Q

anterior inferior pleural ending

A

8th costal cartilage (midclavicular line) 10th costal cartilage (midaxillary line)

126
Q

posterior inferior pleural

A

medially (12th rib) laterally (10th rib)

127
Q

herothorax

A

fluid accumulations within the pleural cavity include: blood (hemothorax), serous fluid (hydrothorax), pus (pyothorax), and lymphatic fluid (chylothorax)

128
Q

Thoracentesis puncture area

A

midaxillary line at the seventh, eighth, or ninth intercostal space

129
Q

intercostal space location

A

under named rib

130
Q

visceral pleura blood supply

A

bronchial and pulmonary arteries

131
Q

Pleural innervation

A
  • lower intercostal nerves innervate the costal and peripheral part of the diaphragmatic pleurae
  • Phrenic nerves innervate the mediastinal and the central part of the diaphragmatic pleurae
132
Q

Bronchial arteries supply

A

structures of the root of the lung, the bronchi to the level of the respiratory bronchioles, the supporting connective tissue and visceral pleura

133
Q

Hilar Lymphadenopathy

A

abnormal increase in size of the bronchopulmonary nodes

134
Q

Lung/trachea sensory nerve

A

vagus nerve

135
Q

Ligament between aorta and pulmonary trunk

A

ligamentum arteriosum

136
Q

True ribs

A

1-7

137
Q

False ris

A

8-10 cartilage connects to above rib

138
Q

Floating ribs

A

11, 12

139
Q

intercostal muscles are innervated by what nerve

A

intercostal nerve

140
Q

intercostal arteries beginning and end

A
  • branch off descending aorta, have a collateral branch, end by connecting to the internal thoracic artery
  • 12th rib subcostal artery
141
Q

sternal angle location

A
  • articulation of 2nd rib

- start of aortic arch

142
Q

Xiphisternal joint location

A

apex of the heart

143
Q

Intercostal Nerve Block

A

most block intercostal and collateral nerve for full numbness

144
Q

loss function of phrenic nerve results in

A

paralysis of corresponding side of diaphragm

145
Q

Formed from branches coming off the sympathetic trunk

A

Splanchnic nerves

146
Q

Cardiac shadow or silhouette (bottom to top)

A
  • Left side of Xray: left ventricle, main pulmonary arch, aortopulmonary window, aortic arch
  • Right side of Xray: inferior vena cava, right atrium, superior vena cava
147
Q

is a closed sac that covers the heart and the beginning of its great vessels (layers)

A
  • Pericardium

- fibrous pericardium, serous pericardium

148
Q

pericardium sensory innervation

A
  • phrenic nerve (C3,C4,C5)

- pain correlates to dermatomes

149
Q

pulmonary valve make up

A

left right anterior

150
Q

right coronary artery branches

A
  1. SA nodular branch
  2. right marginal branch
  3. posterior interventricular branch
151
Q

Left coronary artery branches

A
  1. anterior interventricular branch

2. circumflex branch -> left marginal branch

152
Q

Coronary arteries and corresponding viens

A
  • Posterior interventricular branch a -> middle cardiac c
  • marginal branch -> small cardiac v.
  • anterior interventricular branch -> great cardiac vein
153
Q

Cardiac conducting system

A
  1. Sinu-atrial node
  2. Atrioventricular node
  3. Bundle of His (right branch through moderator band, left branch)
  4. Purkinje cells
154
Q

what should be administered when platelets are low

A

Tpo

155
Q

what should be administered when RBCs are low

A

Epo

156
Q

what should be administered when granulocytes are low

A

GM-CSF

157
Q

where does hemopoiesis take place in fetal?

A

liver and spleen

158
Q

where does hemopoiesis take place in adults

A

red bone marrow

159
Q

Aortic valve area of auscultation

A

right 2nd sternal intercostal space

160
Q

Pulmonic valve area of auscultation

A

left 2nd sternal intercostal space

161
Q

tricuspid valve area of auscultation

A

left 5th sternal intercostal space

162
Q

mitral valve area of auscultation

A

left 5th midclavicular intercostal space

163
Q

Hamstring muscles and their origin

A
  • semitendinosis, semimembranosus, and bicep femoris (long head)
  • ishial tuberosity
164
Q

gracilis orgin

A

pubis symphysis

165
Q

quadricep muscles and origins and insertions

A
  • rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, intermedius, lateralis
  • ORIGIN: anterior inferior iliac spine: rectus femoris
  • INSERTION: tibial tuberosity
166
Q

iliosas insertion

A

lesser trochanter

167
Q

satoris origin

A

anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS

168
Q

Iliotibial band insertion

A

lateral condyle of tibia

169
Q

Tensor fascia latae origin

A

anterior superior iliac spine

170
Q

biceps femoris insertion

A

head of fibula

171
Q

poster gluteal nerves

A

sup/inf gluteal nerves, sciatic nerve, posterior femoral cutaneous nerve, pudendal

172
Q

posterior gluteal nerves

A

sup/inf gluteal nerves, sciatic nerve, posterior femoral cutaneous nerve, pudendal

173
Q

ectoderm

A

parts of the skin, the brain and the nervous system

174
Q

mesoderm

A

gives rise to bones, muscles, the heart and circulatory system, and internal sex organs

175
Q

endoderm

A

turns into the inner lining of some systems, and some organs such as the liver and pancreas

176
Q

What is the mediastinum

A

It is the central compartment of the thoracic cavity and contains all thoracic viscera except the lungs

177
Q

What is located in the superior mediastinum

A 
The trachea and upper parts of the great vessels
 More info:
1.	Superior vena cava (SVC)
2.	Brachiocephalic veins 
3.	Arch of the aorta
4.	Thoracic duct
5.	Trachea
6.	Esophagus
7.	Vagus nerve
8.	Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
9.	Phrenic nerve
10.	thymus
178
Q

What is found in the posterior mediastinum

A
  1. Esophagus
  2. Thoracic aorta
  3. Azygos and hemiazygos veins
  4. Thoracic duct
  5. Vagus nerves
  6. Sympathetic trunk
  7. Splanchnic nerves
179
Q

Pericarditis

A
  • Inflammation of pericardium, which can result in the following, and has symptoms of dysphagia, dyspnea, cough, pain when breathing in and paradoxic pulse (variation in pulse such that it becomes weaker with inhalation and stronger with exhalation. It is more difficult for heart to pump with more pressure during inhalation, while some pressure is released during exhalation.)
  • Treated with pericardiocentesis (removal of fluid to relieve pressure)
  • 5th intercostal space to L of sternum
180
Q

secrete lipid to make cells impermeable to water

A

Lamellar granules

181
Q

Which strata has the granules that contribute to the function of the skin as a permeability layer?

A

Stratum granulosum

182
Q

Langerhan cells location

A

spinous layer

183
Q

Dermatoglyphs (fingerprints) formed by

A

the interdigitations b/w the dermal papillae and the epidermal ridges which are in the epidermis

184
Q

thin skin vs thick skin

A

you don’t see the stratum lucidum in thin skin

185
Q

Melanocytes derived from

A

ectoderm

186
Q

Bullous pemphigoid (blisters) occur where

A

occurs at the dermal –epidermal junction

187
Q

Which receptor in the skin detects coarse touch, Vibration?

A

Pacinian corpuscle

188
Q

sebaceous gland

A

by hair follicle that secretes oily substance

189
Q

arector pili muscle

A

muscle connected to hair in dermis

190
Q

Know that eccrine sweat glands are associated with hyperhidrosis, a condition where you sweat excessively, and know this is what they look like under a micrograph

A

See pdf

191
Q

Which type of epithelium makes up the epidermis?

A

Stratified squamous keratinized

192
Q

What lies deep to the dermis?

A

Subcutaneous hypodermis or superficial fascia

193
Q

What is the primary cell type in the epidermis?

A

Keratinocytes

194
Q

how does Stratum basale attach to dermis

A

hemidesmosomes and integrin

195
Q

Which sensory receptors in the epidermis detect light-touch (tactile)?

A

Basal merkel cells

196
Q

Osteoprogenitor

A 
-Origin and location
   Embryonic mesenchyme
-Location
   Periosteum and endosteum
   Lining Haversian canals
-Phenotype
   Flat, Spindle-shaped
   Ovoid or elongated nuclei
-Fate
   Osteoblasts or chondrogenic cells
197
Q

Osteoblasts

A 
-Origin
  Osteoprogenitor cells
-Location
  Surface of active bone
-Phenotype & function
  Cuboidal, large nucleus, RER, Golgi complex. 
  Produce and secret osteoid
-Fate
  Osteocytes, Bone Lining Cells, Apoptosis
198
Q

Osteocytes

A 
-Origin
  Osteoblast
-Location
  Within bone matrix
-Phenotype & Function
  Flat and lenticular shaped
  Regulate blood calcium levels
  Sense mechanical strain 
-Fate
  Apoptosis
199
Q

Osteoclats

A 
-Origin
  Bone marrow derived mononucleated cells
-Location
  Howship’s lacunae/Resorption bays
-Phenotype & Function
  Multinucleated (up to 50)
  Cytoplasm has a foamy appearance
  Acidophilic
  4 Zones
  Bone maintenance 
  Regulate blood calcium levels
-Fate
  Apoptosis
200
Q

Parathyroid Hormone have what effect on bone activity

A

Increased osteoclast activity

201
Q

Calcitonin have what effect on bone activity

A

Decreased osteoclast activity

202
Q

osteoblast

A

form bone

203
Q

osteoclast

A

reabsorb bone

204
Q

Osteoporosis

A
  • Estrogen and testosterone production deficiency.

- Age-related inflammation (NF-κB)

205
Q

Rickets

A
  • Thickening of the growth plate
  • Production of cartilage and osteoid
  • Soft bones
  • Bone deformities (bowing of bones)
  • Vitamin D deficiency
206
Q

Osteomalacia

A
  • Vitamin D deficiency or Malabsorption
  • Pseudo fractures and excessive osteoid
  • Indoors for long periods of time
207
Q

Acromegaly

A

-GH hypersecretion

Benign tumor on the anterior pituitary

208
Q

Chondrogenic cells

A 
-Origin
  Mesenchymal cells
-Phenotype 
  Spindle-shaped, abundant free ribosomes
-Location
  Periosteum
-Fate
  Chondroblasts or osteoprogenitor
209
Q

Chondroblasts

A 
-Origin
  Chondrogenic or mesenchymal cells
-Phenotype & Function
  Round, abundant RER, Golgi complex, basophilic
  Secrete cartilage matrix
-Location:
  Between chondrogenic and chondrocytes
-Fate
  Chondrocytes
210
Q

Chondrocytes

A 
-Origin
  Chondroblast
-Phenotype & Function
  Oval to round shape, large nucleus, abundant RER and       well developed Golgi apparatus
  Produce and Maintain extra cellular matrix
-Location
  Embedded in the Cartilage Matrix
-Fate
  Apoptosis
211
Q

Hyaline Cartilage

A

-Matrix
type II Collagen, aggrecans, chondronectin, and extracellular fluid
-Locations
Subadults: template for long bones during development, epiphyseal growth plates for long bones.
Adult: Nose, larynx, ventral ends of ribs, tracheal rings and bronchi, articular surface of moveable joints
-Functions
Structural support for respiratory tract
Extensive cross-linking among components
Allows for low-friction movement at joints

212
Q

Elastic Cartilage

A

-Matrix
Type II Collagen, aggrecan, elastic fibers
-Locations
Pinna of the ear, external and internal auditory tubes, the epiglottis and larynx
-Functions
Provides support for soft tissue and allows for flexibility

213
Q

Fibrocartilage

A

-Matrix
Type I and II collagen, chondroitin sulfate and dermatan sulfate
-Locations
Intervertebral disks, pubic symphysis, articular disks, and some enthesis
-Functions
Provides cushioning, resistance to compression and tearing, and tensile strength
- NO

214
Q

Osteoarthritis

A 
-Most common Joint Disorder
  Wear and Tear
  Injury
-Usually Involves:
  Femoral Head
  Knee
  Vertebra (cervical & lumbar)
  Hands
-Symptoms
  deep, aching pain exacerbated by use morning stiffness, grating or popping sensation in the joint, limited range of movement

Anatomy (7 decks)

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