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Anatomy > Anatomy Exam 2 > Flashcards

Anatomy Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what attaches the scapular spine in the dog and horse

A

m.omotransversarius
m.trapezius
m.supraspinatus
m.deltoideus (scapular part)

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2
Q

what attaches to the acromion on the dog (absent in horses)

A

m.deltoideus (acromial part)

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3
Q

what attaches to the supraglenoid tubercle/tuberosity in the dog and the horse

A

m.biceps brachii

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4
Q

what attaches to the supraspinous fossa in the dog and horse

A

m.supraspinatus

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5
Q

what attaches to the infraspinous fossa in the dog and horse

A

m.infraspinatus

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6
Q

what attaches to the subscapular fossa in the dog and horse

A

m.subscapularis

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7
Q

what attaches to the greater tubercle in the dog and horse

A

m.supraspinatus m.infraspinatus
m.deep pectoral

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8
Q

what attaches to the lesser tubercle in the dog and horse

A

m.subscapularis
m.coracobrachialis
m.deep pectoral
medial head of m.triceps brachii

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9
Q

what attaches to the deltoid tuberosity in the dog and horse

A

m.deltoideus
lateral head of triceps m. (horse only)

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10
Q

what attaches to the medial epicondyles in the dog and horse

A

flexor muscles
flexor carpi radialis
flexor carpi ulnaris
superficial digital flexor
deep digital flexor
pronator teres
m.anconeus

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11
Q

what attaches to the lateral epicondyles in the dog and horse

A

majority of extensor muscles
common digital extensor
lateral digital extensor
extensor carpi ulnaris
m.aconeus
supinator

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12
Q

what attaches to the olecranon in the dog and horse

A

triceps brachii muscles (4 heads in dog, 3 heads in horse)
m.tensor fascia antebrachii

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13
Q

what attaches to the accessory carpal bone in the dog and horse

A

flexor carpi ulnaris
extensor carpi ulnaris

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14
Q

what bony features are unique to the cats thoracic limb

A

suprahamate process (scapula)
supracondylar foramen (humerus)

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15
Q

what is a common site for elbow dysplasia

A

medial coronoid process

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16
Q

name the extrinsic muscles of the thorax

A

m.trapezius
m. latissimus dorsi
m. rhomboideus
m. omotransversarius
m. serratus ventralis
superficial pectoral m.
deep pectoral m.
m. brachiocephalicus

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17
Q

what artery is the primary arterial blood supply to the entire thoracic limb

A

axillary a.

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18
Q

what artery is the primary arterial blood supply to the manus or digit (horse)

A

medial palmar a.

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19
Q

where is the superficial cervical lymph node located? what does it drain?

A

deep to m. omotransversarius
drains distal limb and caudal head/neck

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20
Q

what does the axillary lymph node drain?

A

proximal part of limb and chest wall

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21
Q

what are the boundaries of the carpal canal

A
  1. proximal carpal bones (radial, ulnar, accessory)
  2. palmar carpal fibrocartilage
  3. flexor retinaculum
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22
Q

what are the contents of the carpal canal

A
  1. digital flexor tendons (SDF and DDF)
  2. tendon of m.flexor carpi radialis
  3. median a.
  4. median and ulnar nn.
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23
Q

what is the function of the carpal sheath in horses

A

surround tendons of SDF and DDF through carpal canal

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24
Q

what is the function of the digital sheath in horses

A

surrounds tendons of SDF and DDF as they pass over fetlock, proximal to metacarpophalangeal joint –> middle phalanx

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25
Q

what attaches to the metacarpal tuberosity in the horse

A

extensor carpi radialis m.

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26
Q

what attaches to the extensor process in the horse

A

common digital extensor m.

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27
Q

what are some bony feature differences in the horse compared to the dog

A

scapula: carilage “withers”, no acromion, has tuber of the spine
humerus: greater, less, intermediate tubercles
fused radius/ulna
carpal bones: accessory, ulnar, radius, intermediate
metacarpals: 2-4
digit: 3

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28
Q

what are the three ligaments that bind down the flexor tendons as they pass over the fetlock in the horse

A
  1. annular ligament of the fetlock
  2. proximal digital annular ligament
  3. distal digital annular ligament
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29
Q

what are the 3 distal sesamoidean ligaments in the horse

A
  1. straight sesamoidean ligaments
  2. oblique sesamoidean ligaments
  3. cruciate sesamoidean ligaments
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30
Q

differ between nerve blocks and joint blocks

A

nerve blocks: anesthetic around sensory nerve, prevents AP transmission, anesthetic in distribution of nerve distal to point of injection

joint blocks:anesthetic directly into, no effect outside synovial space, anesthetic in synovial membrane and articular surfaces

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31
Q

what does the stay apparatus in the forelimb include

A

tendon of origin of biceps brachii
internal tendon of biceps brachii
lacertus fibrosus
radial check ligament
carpal check ligament
suspensory apparatus (suspensory ligament, proximal sesamoid bones, distal sesamoidean ligaments)

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32
Q

what is the function of the palmar annular ligament

A

binds flexor tendons to proximal sesamoid bones

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33
Q

what muscle bears majority of the trunks weight

A

m.serratus ventralis

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34
Q

what are some bony differences in the cow compared to dog/horse

A

scapula: acromion, scapular cartilages
humerus: greater, less tubercles
fully developed radius/ulna with 2 interosseous spaces
carpal bones: accessory, ulnar, radial, intermediate, 2+3 fused, 4
metacarpals: 3+4 fused and 5
digits: 3-4

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35
Q

what are some muscle differences in the cow

A

common digital extensor has 2 bellies, medial t goes to digit 3, lat t goes to digit 3/4
lateral digital ext. t goes to digit 4
SDF m. 2 bellies/2 tendons
Interflexorius mm. (SDF m. ↔ DDF m.)
DDF m. 3 heads/single tendon but splits in metacarpus

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36
Q

what are some ligament differences in the cow

A

the suspensory ligament attaches to SDF and splits 5 times at fetlock to proximal sesamoids and extensor tendons
proximal interdigital lig
distal interdigital lig

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37
Q

what are arterial differences in the cow

A

primary supply is the median a.
palpable pulse is the palmar common digital a. III
axial and abaxial digital aa.

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38
Q

what are nerve differences in the cow

A

radial n goes to hoof (dorsal side)
median and ulnar n. (palmar side)
axial and abaxial palmar digital nn. (from median n)

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39
Q

what is the main vein we care about in the cow

A

dorsal common digital v. III

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40
Q

what does exposure during embryonic period (organogenesis) result in

A

birth defects

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41
Q

what does teratology result in

A
  1. agensis: developmental failure
  2. developmental excess
  3. incomplete development
  4. persistence of embryonic structures
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42
Q

what is a totipotent cell

A

potential of zygotes daughter cells to differentiate into any cell type

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43
Q

what is a morula

A

16 totipotent cells in the embryo

splitting of this into two separate concepti results in identical twins

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44
Q

Why are radiographs taken near term not likely to be injurious to a fetus?

A

Because the fetus near term has already had most of its cellular differentiation take place

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45
Q

what does endoderm give rise to

A

mucosa of GI and respiratory systems & ducts of accessory digestive gland

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46
Q

what does mesoderm give rise to

A
  1. paraxial –> somites (dermatome, sclerotome, myotome) = dermis,vert. column & skeletal muscles
  2. intermediate (kidneys, gonads, repro system)
  3. lateral plate (w/ ectoderm = body wall and w/ endoderm = mesenteries and gut)
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47
Q

what does ectoderm give rise to

A

epidermis and nervous tissue (neuroectoderm)

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48
Q

contrast totipotent and pluripotent

A

totipotent is the potential of zygotes daughter cells to differentiate into any cell type; describes the zygote

pluripotent is the potential to become a variety of different cell types but it restricted relative of the totipotency of the zygote; type of cell

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49
Q

what is the vertebral formula for dogs/cats

A

C7 T13 L7 S3

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50
Q

what is the vertebral formula for the horse

A

C7 T18 L6(5) S5

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51
Q

what is the vertebral formula for the ox

A

C7 T13 L6 S5

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52
Q

What thoracic vertebrae is termed the anticlinal vertbrae and why

A

T11
spinous process is perpendicular to the axis

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53
Q

where does the nuchal ligament attach in the dog? horse/ox?

what differs between these species?

A

dog: spinous processes of first few thoracic vertebrae –> axis
horse/ox: spinous processes of first few thoracic vertebrae –> occipital bone

dogs do not have the laminar part of the nuchal ligament, only the funicular part

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54
Q

which ligaments are discontinuous

A

interarcuate ligament
interspinous ligament

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55
Q

what are the 3 bursae associated with nuchal ligament in the

A
  1. cranial nuchal bursa
  2. caudal nuchal bursa
  3. supraspinous bursa
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56
Q

what are the epaxial muscles

A

m.splenius
iliocostalis system of mm.
longissimus system of mm.
transverospinalis system mm. (complexus and biventer cervicis)

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57
Q

m.serratus ventralis
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: transverse processes of C3-7, ventral halves of ribs 1-7/8
insertion: serrated face of scapula

58
Q

m.deltoideus
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: scapular spine (scapular part) & acromion (acromial part)
insertion: deltoid tuberosity on the humerus

59
Q

m.infraspinatus
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: infraspinous fossa
insertion: greater tubercle of humerus

60
Q

m.supraspinatous
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: supraspinous fossa
insertion: greater tubercle of humerus

61
Q

m.subscapularis
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: subscapular fossa
insertion: lesser tubercle of humerus

62
Q

triceps brachii (long head)
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: caudal border of scapula
insertion: olecranon

63
Q

triceps brachii (lateral head)
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: tricipital line of humerus
insertion: olecranon

64
Q

triceps brachii (medial head)
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: lesser tubercle of humerus
insertion: olecranon

65
Q

triceps brachii (accessory head)
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: neck of humerus
insertion: olecranon

66
Q

m.biceps brachii
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: supraglenoid tubercle of scapula
insertion: ulnar and radial tuberosities

67
Q

m.brachialis
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: lateral proximal humerus
insertion: ulnar and radial tuberosities

68
Q

m.extensor carpi radialis
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: lateral supracondylar crest
insertion: dorsal aspect of proximal metacarpals 2-3

69
Q

common digital extensor m.
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: lateral epicondyle of humerus
insertion: extensor process of digits 2-5

70
Q

lateral digital extensor m.
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: lateral epicondyle of humerus
insertion: proximal and middle phalanx and digits 3-5

71
Q

m.extensor carpi ulnaris
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: lateral epicondyle of humerus
insertion: accessory bone

72
Q

m.flexor carpi radialis
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: medial epicondyle of humerus
insertion: palmar aspect of metacarpals 2-3

73
Q

superficial digital flexor m.
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: medial epicondyle of humerus
insertion: proximal middle phalanx of digits 2-5

74
Q

m.flexor carpi ulnaris
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: medial epicondyle of humerus (humeral head) & olecranon (ulnar head)
insertion: accessory carpal bone

75
Q

deep digital flexor m.
origin:
insertion:

A

origin:
caudal border ulna (ulnar head)
medial radius (radial head)
medial epicondyle (humeral head)
insertion: palmar aspect of distal phalanx of digits 2-5

76
Q

suprascapular n.
motor or sensory
innervation

A

motor
m.supraspinatus & m.infraspinatus

77
Q

subscapular n.
motor or sensory
innervation

A

motor
m.subscapularis

78
Q

musculocutaneous n.
motor or sensory
innervation

A

motor & sensory
biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis

79
Q

axillary n.

A

motor & sensory
teres major, teres minor, m.deltoideus

80
Q

thoracodorsal n.
motor or sensory
innervation

A

motor
m.latissimus dorsi

81
Q

lateral thoracic n.
motor or sensory
innervation

A

motor
deep pectoral m. & m.cutaneus trunci

82
Q

radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation

A

motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii

82
Q

radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation

A

motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii

82
Q

radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation

A

motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii

82
Q

radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation

A

motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii

82
Q

radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation

A

motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii

82
Q

radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation

A

motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii

82
Q

radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation

A

motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii

83
Q

median n.
motor or sensory
innervation

A

motor and sensory
pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, SDF, pronator quadratus

84
Q

ulnar n
motor or sensory
innervation

A

motor and sensory
flexor carpi ulnaris & DDF

85
Q

HORSE
m.biceps brachii
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: supraglenoid tubercle
insertion: radial tuberosity

86
Q

HORSE
m.extensor carpi radialis
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: craniolateral distal humerus
insertion: metacarpal tuberosity

87
Q

HORSE
m.extensor carpi obliquus
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: shaft of radius
insertion: 2nd metacarpal

88
Q

HORSE
m. flexor carpi radialis
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: medial epicondyle
insertion: medial splint bone

89
Q

HORSE
lateral digital extensor m.
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: lateral epicondyle
insertion: proximal middel phalanx

90
Q

HORSE
common digital extensor m.
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: lateral epicondyle
insertion: extensor process of distal phalanx

91
Q

HORSE
superficial digital flexor m
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: medial epicondyle
insertion: palmar aspect of proximal middle phalanx

92
Q

HORSE
deep digital flexor m.
origin:
insertion:

A

origin: humeral, ulnar, radial heads
insertion: semilunar line of coffin bone

93
Q

what are the bony boundaries of the thoracic inlet

A

T1 + 1st + manubrium

94
Q

asternal false ribs are which ones?

A

T10-12

95
Q

which rib is the floating rib

A

T13 in carnivores

96
Q

name the consistent and inconsistent bursae of the shoulder/elbow joints and what species they are found in

A

infraspinatus bursa - consistent, all species
intertubercular bursa - consistent, horse/ox only
subcutaneous olecranon bursa - inconsistent, equine only

97
Q

what is the most important shoulder extensor muscle?

A

brachiocephalic m.

98
Q

two common signs of forelimb lameness

A
  1. head bob
  2. shoulder prop
99
Q

what is the joint that allows for significant pronation in carnivores but is relatively immobile in large animals

A

proximal radioulnar joint

100
Q

what ribs are asternal in the dog? horse?

A

dog 10-12
horse 9-18

101
Q

what is the prominent and palpable vein unique to equine and ox in the distal trunk that drains caudally

A

superficial thoracic vein “spur vein”

102
Q

what nerves are blocked in a ring block prior to a declaw procedure? where do you inject?

A

median n.
superficial brr of radial n.
dorsal and palmar brr of ulnar n.
lateral/proximal to carpal pad, medial to carpal pad, dorsomedial to carpus

103
Q

what is the anatomic rationale for the preferred site of thoracocentesis

A

costomedial and costodiaphragmatic recess due to reduced risk of laceration of the lung

104
Q

Identify the structures that penetrate the diaphragm through each of the three natural apertures.

A

Caudal vena cava through the caval foramen
Esophagus through the esophageal hiatus
Aorta through the aortic hiatus

105
Q

Name the innervation to the diaphragm and from what spinal cord segments this nerve arises.

A

Phrenic Nerve - somatic nerve; arises from the spinal nerve segments C5-7

106
Q

what two parts are there of the trachea? what are their blood supply?

A

cervical = branch of common carotid a.
thoracic = bronchoesophageal a.

107
Q

what is the trachea modification in ruminants and pigs?

A

tracheal bronchus that arises proximal to tracheal bifurcation and goes to cranial lobe of right lung

108
Q

describe the different lobation patterns of canines/felines, equine and ruminants

A

canine/feline & ruminants: left lung has 2 lobes (cranial & caudal), cranial with cranial/caudal parts; right lung with 4 lobes (cranial, caudal, middle, accessory)

equine: left lung has 2 lobes (cranial & caudal), cranial with cranial/caudal parts; right lung with 3 lobes (cranial, caudal, accessory)

109
Q

what is the cardiac notch? relate this feature to echocardiograms?

A

cardiac notch: space between cranial and middle lobes in the right lung; allows heart to be right against body wall allowing for less interference during ECG

110
Q

Distinguish between functional and nutritional blood supplies to the lungs

A

nutritional = bronchial aa.
functional = pulmonary aa.

111
Q

why do enlarged lymph nodes commonly present a cough even though resp tract not directly involved

A

they can compress your trachea or lungs

112
Q

what nerves are blocked by a RUMM block? where do you inject?

A

radial, ulnar, median, musculocutaneous

proximal to lateral epicondyle
proximal to medial epicondyle

113
Q

where do you inject for sciatic n block

A

between greater trochanter and ischiatic tuberosity, 2/3 to greater trochanter; advance perpendicular

114
Q

where do you inject for a tibial and common fibular n block

A

in groove betwen biceps femoris and semitendinosus, once contact with femur is made, retract 1 cm and inject

115
Q

where do you inject for a common fibular n. block

A

SQ caudal to head of fibula

116
Q

where do you inject for a stifle joint block

A

lateral to patellar ligament between lateral condyle and tibial tuberosity

117
Q

most common dairy cow foot disease

A

laminitis/coriosis

118
Q

no visible swelling in the bovine foot

A

laminitis/coriosis, sole ulcer/abscess, white line disease, hoof cracks, hairy foot warts

119
Q

visible swelling in the bovine foot

A

foot rot and sepsis

120
Q

what structure normally resists physiological hyperextension in the thoracic limb

A

palmar carpal fibrocartilage

121
Q

what is the difference between a horse having swelling around the tendon or swelling around the fetlock

A

swelling near tendon = swelling of tendon sheath
swelling near fetlock on the bone = swelling of palmar pouch of metacarpophalangeal joint

122
Q

what are bowed tendon a result of?
what can be cut to release pressure?

A

tendinitis: swelling of SDF and DDF
palmar annular ligament prevents tendons from bulging out over fetlock; can damage flexor tendons if constricting them enough and can be cut to release pressure

123
Q

what gives rise to the notochord?
what is the notochords function?
how does formation occur?

A

mesoderm
induces formation of CNS & head
forms cranial to caudal as primitive streak retreats

124
Q

describe paraxial mesoderm differentiation

A

paraxial –> somites
dermatome = dermis
sclerotome = vertebral column
myotome = skeletal mm.

125
Q

describe the differentiation of sclerotome

A

induced by notochord
retains segmental pattern
notochord is retained as nucleus pulposus of intervertebral discs

126
Q

what are common failures of the vertebral column due to sclerotome differentiation

A

spina bifida (failure of arch to form or fuse)

block vertebra (inappr. fusion of adjacent vertebrae)

hemivertebra (vertebral body develops asymmetrically)

127
Q

describe differentiation of the myotome

A

myoblasts are precursors for skeletal mm
migrate to destinations and take innervation with them

128
Q

what organizes proximal to distal elements of the limb during limb bud formation

A

AER

129
Q

which limb develops fast than the other

A

thoracic > pelvic

130
Q

what is necessary/required for the development of joints

if this doesn’t occur, what can be a result?

A

movement

ankylosis: fused joints
arthrogryposis: abnormal angulation of joints/crooked limbs

131
Q

define polydactyly

A

excess digits

132
Q

define amelia

A

failure of limb bud to form, absence of limb

133
Q

define notomelia

A

limb in the wrong place

134
Q

define polymedlia

A

extra limbs

135
Q

define syndactyly

A

few digits, failure to split

Anatomy (16 decks)

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