Anatomy Exam 2 Flashcards
what attaches the scapular spine in the dog and horse
m.omotransversarius
m.trapezius
m.supraspinatus
m.deltoideus (scapular part)
what attaches to the acromion on the dog (absent in horses)
m.deltoideus (acromial part)
what attaches to the supraglenoid tubercle/tuberosity in the dog and the horse
m.biceps brachii
what attaches to the supraspinous fossa in the dog and horse
m.supraspinatus
what attaches to the infraspinous fossa in the dog and horse
m.infraspinatus
what attaches to the subscapular fossa in the dog and horse
m.subscapularis
what attaches to the greater tubercle in the dog and horse
m.supraspinatus m.infraspinatus
m.deep pectoral
what attaches to the lesser tubercle in the dog and horse
m.subscapularis
m.coracobrachialis
m.deep pectoral
medial head of m.triceps brachii
what attaches to the deltoid tuberosity in the dog and horse
m.deltoideus
lateral head of triceps m. (horse only)
what attaches to the medial epicondyles in the dog and horse
flexor muscles
flexor carpi radialis
flexor carpi ulnaris
superficial digital flexor
deep digital flexor
pronator teres
m.anconeus
what attaches to the lateral epicondyles in the dog and horse
majority of extensor muscles
common digital extensor
lateral digital extensor
extensor carpi ulnaris
m.aconeus
supinator
what attaches to the olecranon in the dog and horse
triceps brachii muscles (4 heads in dog, 3 heads in horse)
m.tensor fascia antebrachii
what attaches to the accessory carpal bone in the dog and horse
flexor carpi ulnaris
extensor carpi ulnaris
what bony features are unique to the cats thoracic limb
suprahamate process (scapula)
supracondylar foramen (humerus)
what is a common site for elbow dysplasia
medial coronoid process
name the extrinsic muscles of the thorax
m.trapezius
m. latissimus dorsi
m. rhomboideus
m. omotransversarius
m. serratus ventralis
superficial pectoral m.
deep pectoral m.
m. brachiocephalicus
what artery is the primary arterial blood supply to the entire thoracic limb
axillary a.
what artery is the primary arterial blood supply to the manus or digit (horse)
medial palmar a.
where is the superficial cervical lymph node located? what does it drain?
deep to m. omotransversarius
drains distal limb and caudal head/neck
what does the axillary lymph node drain?
proximal part of limb and chest wall
what are the boundaries of the carpal canal
- proximal carpal bones (radial, ulnar, accessory)
- palmar carpal fibrocartilage
- flexor retinaculum
what are the contents of the carpal canal
- digital flexor tendons (SDF and DDF)
- tendon of m.flexor carpi radialis
- median a.
- median and ulnar nn.
what is the function of the carpal sheath in horses
surround tendons of SDF and DDF through carpal canal
what is the function of the digital sheath in horses
surrounds tendons of SDF and DDF as they pass over fetlock, proximal to metacarpophalangeal joint –> middle phalanx
what attaches to the metacarpal tuberosity in the horse
extensor carpi radialis m.
what attaches to the extensor process in the horse
common digital extensor m.
what are some bony feature differences in the horse compared to the dog
scapula: carilage “withers”, no acromion, has tuber of the spine
humerus: greater, less, intermediate tubercles
fused radius/ulna
carpal bones: accessory, ulnar, radius, intermediate
metacarpals: 2-4
digit: 3
what are the three ligaments that bind down the flexor tendons as they pass over the fetlock in the horse
- annular ligament of the fetlock
- proximal digital annular ligament
- distal digital annular ligament
what are the 3 distal sesamoidean ligaments in the horse
- straight sesamoidean ligaments
- oblique sesamoidean ligaments
- cruciate sesamoidean ligaments
differ between nerve blocks and joint blocks
nerve blocks: anesthetic around sensory nerve, prevents AP transmission, anesthetic in distribution of nerve distal to point of injection
joint blocks:anesthetic directly into, no effect outside synovial space, anesthetic in synovial membrane and articular surfaces
what does the stay apparatus in the forelimb include
tendon of origin of biceps brachii
internal tendon of biceps brachii
lacertus fibrosus
radial check ligament
carpal check ligament
suspensory apparatus (suspensory ligament, proximal sesamoid bones, distal sesamoidean ligaments)
what is the function of the palmar annular ligament
binds flexor tendons to proximal sesamoid bones
what muscle bears majority of the trunks weight
m.serratus ventralis
what are some bony differences in the cow compared to dog/horse
scapula: acromion, scapular cartilages
humerus: greater, less tubercles
fully developed radius/ulna with 2 interosseous spaces
carpal bones: accessory, ulnar, radial, intermediate, 2+3 fused, 4
metacarpals: 3+4 fused and 5
digits: 3-4
what are some muscle differences in the cow
common digital extensor has 2 bellies, medial t goes to digit 3, lat t goes to digit 3/4
lateral digital ext. t goes to digit 4
SDF m. 2 bellies/2 tendons
Interflexorius mm. (SDF m. ↔ DDF m.)
DDF m. 3 heads/single tendon but splits in metacarpus
what are some ligament differences in the cow
the suspensory ligament attaches to SDF and splits 5 times at fetlock to proximal sesamoids and extensor tendons
proximal interdigital lig
distal interdigital lig
what are arterial differences in the cow
primary supply is the median a.
palpable pulse is the palmar common digital a. III
axial and abaxial digital aa.
what are nerve differences in the cow
radial n goes to hoof (dorsal side)
median and ulnar n. (palmar side)
axial and abaxial palmar digital nn. (from median n)
what is the main vein we care about in the cow
dorsal common digital v. III
what does exposure during embryonic period (organogenesis) result in
birth defects
what does teratology result in
- agensis: developmental failure
- developmental excess
- incomplete development
- persistence of embryonic structures
what is a totipotent cell
potential of zygotes daughter cells to differentiate into any cell type
what is a morula
16 totipotent cells in the embryo
splitting of this into two separate concepti results in identical twins
Why are radiographs taken near term not likely to be injurious to a fetus?
Because the fetus near term has already had most of its cellular differentiation take place
what does endoderm give rise to
mucosa of GI and respiratory systems & ducts of accessory digestive gland
what does mesoderm give rise to
- paraxial –> somites (dermatome, sclerotome, myotome) = dermis,vert. column & skeletal muscles
- intermediate (kidneys, gonads, repro system)
- lateral plate (w/ ectoderm = body wall and w/ endoderm = mesenteries and gut)
what does ectoderm give rise to
epidermis and nervous tissue (neuroectoderm)
contrast totipotent and pluripotent
totipotent is the potential of zygotes daughter cells to differentiate into any cell type; describes the zygote
pluripotent is the potential to become a variety of different cell types but it restricted relative of the totipotency of the zygote; type of cell
what is the vertebral formula for dogs/cats
C7 T13 L7 S3
what is the vertebral formula for the horse
C7 T18 L6(5) S5
what is the vertebral formula for the ox
C7 T13 L6 S5
What thoracic vertebrae is termed the anticlinal vertbrae and why
T11
spinous process is perpendicular to the axis
where does the nuchal ligament attach in the dog? horse/ox?
what differs between these species?
dog: spinous processes of first few thoracic vertebrae –> axis
horse/ox: spinous processes of first few thoracic vertebrae –> occipital bone
dogs do not have the laminar part of the nuchal ligament, only the funicular part
which ligaments are discontinuous
interarcuate ligament
interspinous ligament
what are the 3 bursae associated with nuchal ligament in the
- cranial nuchal bursa
- caudal nuchal bursa
- supraspinous bursa
what are the epaxial muscles
m.splenius
iliocostalis system of mm.
longissimus system of mm.
transverospinalis system mm. (complexus and biventer cervicis)
m.serratus ventralis
origin:
insertion:
origin: transverse processes of C3-7, ventral halves of ribs 1-7/8
insertion: serrated face of scapula
m.deltoideus
origin:
insertion:
origin: scapular spine (scapular part) & acromion (acromial part)
insertion: deltoid tuberosity on the humerus
m.infraspinatus
origin:
insertion:
origin: infraspinous fossa
insertion: greater tubercle of humerus
m.supraspinatous
origin:
insertion:
origin: supraspinous fossa
insertion: greater tubercle of humerus
m.subscapularis
origin:
insertion:
origin: subscapular fossa
insertion: lesser tubercle of humerus
triceps brachii (long head)
origin:
insertion:
origin: caudal border of scapula
insertion: olecranon
triceps brachii (lateral head)
origin:
insertion:
origin: tricipital line of humerus
insertion: olecranon
triceps brachii (medial head)
origin:
insertion:
origin: lesser tubercle of humerus
insertion: olecranon
triceps brachii (accessory head)
origin:
insertion:
origin: neck of humerus
insertion: olecranon
m.biceps brachii
origin:
insertion:
origin: supraglenoid tubercle of scapula
insertion: ulnar and radial tuberosities
m.brachialis
origin:
insertion:
origin: lateral proximal humerus
insertion: ulnar and radial tuberosities
m.extensor carpi radialis
origin:
insertion:
origin: lateral supracondylar crest
insertion: dorsal aspect of proximal metacarpals 2-3
common digital extensor m.
origin:
insertion:
origin: lateral epicondyle of humerus
insertion: extensor process of digits 2-5
lateral digital extensor m.
origin:
insertion:
origin: lateral epicondyle of humerus
insertion: proximal and middle phalanx and digits 3-5
m.extensor carpi ulnaris
origin:
insertion:
origin: lateral epicondyle of humerus
insertion: accessory bone
m.flexor carpi radialis
origin:
insertion:
origin: medial epicondyle of humerus
insertion: palmar aspect of metacarpals 2-3
superficial digital flexor m.
origin:
insertion:
origin: medial epicondyle of humerus
insertion: proximal middle phalanx of digits 2-5
m.flexor carpi ulnaris
origin:
insertion:
origin: medial epicondyle of humerus (humeral head) & olecranon (ulnar head)
insertion: accessory carpal bone
deep digital flexor m.
origin:
insertion:
origin:
caudal border ulna (ulnar head)
medial radius (radial head)
medial epicondyle (humeral head)
insertion: palmar aspect of distal phalanx of digits 2-5
suprascapular n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor
m.supraspinatus & m.infraspinatus
subscapular n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor
m.subscapularis
musculocutaneous n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor & sensory
biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
axillary n.
motor & sensory
teres major, teres minor, m.deltoideus
thoracodorsal n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor
m.latissimus dorsi
lateral thoracic n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor
deep pectoral m. & m.cutaneus trunci
radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii
radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii
radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii
radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii
radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii
radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii
radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii
median n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory
pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, SDF, pronator quadratus
ulnar n
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory
flexor carpi ulnaris & DDF
HORSE
m.biceps brachii
origin:
insertion:
origin: supraglenoid tubercle
insertion: radial tuberosity
HORSE
m.extensor carpi radialis
origin:
insertion:
origin: craniolateral distal humerus
insertion: metacarpal tuberosity
HORSE
m.extensor carpi obliquus
origin:
insertion:
origin: shaft of radius
insertion: 2nd metacarpal
HORSE
m. flexor carpi radialis
origin:
insertion:
origin: medial epicondyle
insertion: medial splint bone
HORSE
lateral digital extensor m.
origin:
insertion:
origin: lateral epicondyle
insertion: proximal middel phalanx
HORSE
common digital extensor m.
origin:
insertion:
origin: lateral epicondyle
insertion: extensor process of distal phalanx
HORSE
superficial digital flexor m
origin:
insertion:
origin: medial epicondyle
insertion: palmar aspect of proximal middle phalanx
HORSE
deep digital flexor m.
origin:
insertion:
origin: humeral, ulnar, radial heads
insertion: semilunar line of coffin bone
what are the bony boundaries of the thoracic inlet
T1 + 1st + manubrium
asternal false ribs are which ones?
T10-12
which rib is the floating rib
T13 in carnivores
name the consistent and inconsistent bursae of the shoulder/elbow joints and what species they are found in
infraspinatus bursa - consistent, all species
intertubercular bursa - consistent, horse/ox only
subcutaneous olecranon bursa - inconsistent, equine only
what is the most important shoulder extensor muscle?
brachiocephalic m.
two common signs of forelimb lameness
- head bob
- shoulder prop
what is the joint that allows for significant pronation in carnivores but is relatively immobile in large animals
proximal radioulnar joint
what ribs are asternal in the dog? horse?
dog 10-12
horse 9-18
what is the prominent and palpable vein unique to equine and ox in the distal trunk that drains caudally
superficial thoracic vein “spur vein”
what nerves are blocked in a ring block prior to a declaw procedure? where do you inject?
median n.
superficial brr of radial n.
dorsal and palmar brr of ulnar n.
lateral/proximal to carpal pad, medial to carpal pad, dorsomedial to carpus
what is the anatomic rationale for the preferred site of thoracocentesis
costomedial and costodiaphragmatic recess due to reduced risk of laceration of the lung
Identify the structures that penetrate the diaphragm through each of the three natural apertures.
Caudal vena cava through the caval foramen
Esophagus through the esophageal hiatus
Aorta through the aortic hiatus
Name the innervation to the diaphragm and from what spinal cord segments this nerve arises.
Phrenic Nerve - somatic nerve; arises from the spinal nerve segments C5-7
what two parts are there of the trachea? what are their blood supply?
cervical = branch of common carotid a.
thoracic = bronchoesophageal a.
what is the trachea modification in ruminants and pigs?
tracheal bronchus that arises proximal to tracheal bifurcation and goes to cranial lobe of right lung
describe the different lobation patterns of canines/felines, equine and ruminants
canine/feline & ruminants: left lung has 2 lobes (cranial & caudal), cranial with cranial/caudal parts; right lung with 4 lobes (cranial, caudal, middle, accessory)
equine: left lung has 2 lobes (cranial & caudal), cranial with cranial/caudal parts; right lung with 3 lobes (cranial, caudal, accessory)
what is the cardiac notch? relate this feature to echocardiograms?
cardiac notch: space between cranial and middle lobes in the right lung; allows heart to be right against body wall allowing for less interference during ECG
Distinguish between functional and nutritional blood supplies to the lungs
nutritional = bronchial aa.
functional = pulmonary aa.
why do enlarged lymph nodes commonly present a cough even though resp tract not directly involved
they can compress your trachea or lungs
what nerves are blocked by a RUMM block? where do you inject?
radial, ulnar, median, musculocutaneous
proximal to lateral epicondyle
proximal to medial epicondyle
where do you inject for sciatic n block
between greater trochanter and ischiatic tuberosity, 2/3 to greater trochanter; advance perpendicular
where do you inject for a tibial and common fibular n block
in groove betwen biceps femoris and semitendinosus, once contact with femur is made, retract 1 cm and inject
where do you inject for a common fibular n. block
SQ caudal to head of fibula
where do you inject for a stifle joint block
lateral to patellar ligament between lateral condyle and tibial tuberosity
most common dairy cow foot disease
laminitis/coriosis
no visible swelling in the bovine foot
laminitis/coriosis, sole ulcer/abscess, white line disease, hoof cracks, hairy foot warts
visible swelling in the bovine foot
foot rot and sepsis
what structure normally resists physiological hyperextension in the thoracic limb
palmar carpal fibrocartilage
what is the difference between a horse having swelling around the tendon or swelling around the fetlock
swelling near tendon = swelling of tendon sheath
swelling near fetlock on the bone = swelling of palmar pouch of metacarpophalangeal joint
what are bowed tendon a result of?
what can be cut to release pressure?
tendinitis: swelling of SDF and DDF
palmar annular ligament prevents tendons from bulging out over fetlock; can damage flexor tendons if constricting them enough and can be cut to release pressure
what gives rise to the notochord?
what is the notochords function?
how does formation occur?
mesoderm
induces formation of CNS & head
forms cranial to caudal as primitive streak retreats
describe paraxial mesoderm differentiation
paraxial –> somites
dermatome = dermis
sclerotome = vertebral column
myotome = skeletal mm.
describe the differentiation of sclerotome
induced by notochord
retains segmental pattern
notochord is retained as nucleus pulposus of intervertebral discs
what are common failures of the vertebral column due to sclerotome differentiation
spina bifida (failure of arch to form or fuse)
block vertebra (inappr. fusion of adjacent vertebrae)
hemivertebra (vertebral body develops asymmetrically)
describe differentiation of the myotome
myoblasts are precursors for skeletal mm
migrate to destinations and take innervation with them
what organizes proximal to distal elements of the limb during limb bud formation
AER
which limb develops fast than the other
thoracic > pelvic
what is necessary/required for the development of joints
if this doesn’t occur, what can be a result?
movement
ankylosis: fused joints
arthrogryposis: abnormal angulation of joints/crooked limbs
define polydactyly
excess digits
define amelia
failure of limb bud to form, absence of limb
define notomelia
limb in the wrong place
define polymedlia
extra limbs
define syndactyly
few digits, failure to split
