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FINAL FINAL > Anatomy and Physiology (Complete) > Flashcards

Anatomy and Physiology (Complete) Flashcards

1
Q

What is anatomy?

A

The study of body structure, and the relationship between structures of living organisms.

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2
Q

What is physiology?

A

The study of living organisms, and their parts and function.

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3
Q

What are the levels of structural organisms, from smallest to largest?

A 
Chemical 
Cellular 
Tissue 
Organ
Organ System 
Organism
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4
Q

What is catabolism?

A

Breaking down

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5
Q

What is anabolism?

A

Building up

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6
Q

What are the functions of the integumentary system?

A 
Protect 
Regulate temperature 
Eliminate some waste 
Detect sensations 
Help produce vitamin D
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7
Q

What is included in the integumentary system?

A

The external body covering

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8
Q

What is included in the skepetal system?

A

Bones, joints, and ligaments of the body

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9
Q

What is the function of the skeletal system?

A

Support and protection
Aid in body movement
Give rise to blood cells
Store fats

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10
Q

What is the function of the muscular system?

A

Produces body movement
Stabolizes position
Generates heat

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11
Q

What is the function of the nervous system?

A

Fast acting control system

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12
Q

What is the function of the cardiovascular system?

A

Circulate blood to deliver O2 and nutrients and to remove CO2 and other waste products

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13
Q

What is the correct anatomical positioning?

A

Body erect with feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing forward.

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14
Q

What is prone body position?

A

Body laying horizontal, face down

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15
Q

What is supine body position?

A

The body is laying horizontal, face up.

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16
Q

What is the sagittal body section?

A

A cut made lengthwise or on the longitudinal plane of the body. Divides the body into left and right parts.

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17
Q

What is the midsagittal body section?

A

A cut made alon the medial plane. Diviging the body into equal left and right parts.

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18
Q

What is the frontal section (coronal plane) of the body?

A

A cut made along the longitudinal plane of the body, dividing it into front and back parts.

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19
Q

What is the tranverse section of the body?

A

A cut made along a horizontal plane, dividing the body into upper and lower parts.

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20
Q

Where is the superior part of the body?

A

Towards the head or upper body

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21
Q

What is the inferior part of the body?

A

Away from the head, or the lower body structure.

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22
Q

What is the anterior part of the body?

A

Towards the front of the body

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23
Q

What is the posterior part of the body?

A

Towards the back of the body

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24
Q

What is the medial part of the body?

A

Towards or at the midline of the body

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25
Q

What is the lateral part of the body?

A

Away from the midline of the body.

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26
Q

What two subdivisions are included in the dorsal body cavity?

A

Cranial cavity and Spinal cavity

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27
Q

What is the cranial cavity?

A

The space inside the bony skull, protecting the brain

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28
Q

What is the Spinal cavity?

A

Extends from the crainal cavity to the end of the veretebral column, protects the spinal cord.

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29
Q

What is included in the ventral body cavity?

A

Contains all structures within the chest and abdomen.

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30
Q

What are the two subdivisions of the ventral body cavity?

A

Thoracic cavity

Abdominal Pelvic cavity

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31
Q

What is the thoracic cavity?

A

Organs are somewhat prtected by the rib cage

Seperated from the rest of the ventral cavity by the diaphragm

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32
Q

What is the abdominal pelvic cavity?

A

Inferior to the diaphragm

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33
Q

How much water is approximately in living cells?

A

60% water

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34
Q

What are the 3 main regions of all cells?

A
  1. Plasma membrane
  2. Nucleus
  3. Cytoplasm
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35
Q

How is the double phospholipid layer of the plasma membrane arranged, and what is the purpose of this?

A

“Tail to tail” - tails are hydrophobic

Makes protein molecules float

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36
Q

What does hydrophilic mean?

A

Water loving

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37
Q

What does hydrophobic mean?

A

Water hating

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38
Q

What are microvilli?

A

Tiny fingerlike projections that greatly increase the cell surface area for absorption

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39
Q

What are the three kinds of membrane junctions?

A

Tight membrane junctions
Desosomes
Gap Junctions

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40
Q

What are tight membrane junctions?

A

They are impermeable, leak proof sheets that prevent substances from passing through the extracellular space between cells.

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41
Q

What are desosomes?

A

Anchoring junctions that prevent cells from being pulled apart

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42
Q

What are gap junctions?

A

Mainly functions as communication and are commonly seen in the heart.

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43
Q

What is the main function of the nucleus?

A

It is the control center of the cell, contains DNA

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44
Q

What are the three areas of the nucleus?

A

Nuclear envelope
Nucleoli
Chromatin

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45
Q

What is the nuclear envelope?

A

Selectively permable, and contains nuclear pores

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46
Q

What is a nucleoli?

A

Sites where ribosomes are assembled.

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47
Q

Where in the cell are chromatin?

A

scattered in the nucleus

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48
Q

What do chromatin consist of?

A

a network or loose bumpy threads of DNA and protein

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49
Q

What is the cytoplasm?

A

The semi-fluid like structure located outside the nucleus and inside the plasma membrane

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50
Q

What are the three major elements of the cytoplasm?

A

Cytosol
Organelles
Inclusions

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51
Q

What is the cytosol?

A

A semitransparent fluid in which the other elements are suspended.

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52
Q

What are inclusions?

A

Chemical substances that may or may not be present.

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53
Q

What are cytoplasmic organelles?

A

Specialized organelles, each with its own specialized function for maintaining the cell.

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54
Q

What are the mitochondria responsible for?

A

The formation of ATP which provides energy for all cellular activities.

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55
Q

What are ribosomes made of?

A

Protein and RNA

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56
Q

Where are ribosomes found in the cell?

A

free in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough ER

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57
Q

What is the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

A system of fluid filed tubules in the cytoplasm that carries substances from one part of the cell to another.

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58
Q

What are the two kinds of Endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Rough ER

Smooth ER

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59
Q

What covers the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A

ribosomes

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60
Q

What is the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

The synthesis and breakdown of cholesterol, fat metabolism, and detoxification of drugs.

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61
Q

What is the appearence of the golgi apparatus?

A

A stack of flattened membranous sacs found close to the nucleus.

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62
Q

What is the major function of the golgi apparatus?

A

To modify and package proteins in specific ways depending on their final destination

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63
Q

What are the membranous sacs of the golgi apparatus called?

A

cisternae

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64
Q

What is the main function of lysosomes in the cell?

A

the cell demolition sites

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65
Q

What are abundant in lysosomes and why?

A

White blood cells, to engulf the bacteria and other harmful substances.

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66
Q

What are perioxisomes?

A

Membranous sacs containing oxidase enzymes, that use oxygen to break down harmful substances like alcohol

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67
Q

Where are perioxisomes most abundant in the body?

A

The liver and kidneys

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68
Q

What are the three types of cytoskeleton elements?

A

microfilaments
Intermediate filaments
microtubules

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69
Q

What are cilia?

A

finger-like cellular extensions that move material across the cell surface

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70
Q

Where are cilia commonly found?

A

In the respiratory system

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71
Q

What are flagellum, and where are they found?

A

long, whip-like projections that propels the cell, found on sperm

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72
Q

What are pseudopods?

A

Protrusions of the cell surface that aid in phagocytosis

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73
Q

What is passive transport?

A

No energy is required for the cell to be transported

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74
Q

What is diffusion?

A

Particles move from a higher concentration to a lower concentration. No energy required.

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75
Q

What is osmosis?

A

Simple diffusion of water

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76
Q

What is active transport?

A

The cell must provide metabolic energy (ATP) to drive the transport process

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77
Q

What is exocytosis?

A

Materials are moved out of the cell, parkaged in a membranous vesicle by the golgi aparatus

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78
Q

What is endocytosis?

A

Extracellular substances are engulfed in a vesicle, then it moves to the cytoplasm here it fuses with a lysosome and is digested.

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79
Q

What are the two kinds of endocytosis?

A

Phagocytosis - cell eating

Pinocytosis - cell drinking

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80
Q

What is interphase?

A

When the cell grows and carries on its metabolic processes.

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81
Q

What happens during prophase?

A

As division occurs, chromatin begin to coil and shorten into visible bar like bodies called chromosomes. The centrioles seperate and move towards opposite ends of the cell

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82
Q

What happens during metaphase?

A

Chromosomes cluster and align at the center of the cell

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83
Q

What happens during anaphase?

A

The centromeres that have held the chromatids split and move to opposite ends of the cell.

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84
Q

What happens during telophase?

A

Chromosomes uncoil and become thread again, spindle breaks down.

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85
Q

What is the difference between meiosis and mitosis?

A

Meiosis is basically just mitosis, but with sex cells. PMAT occurs twice as well.

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86
Q

What are the base pairs of the nitrogen-containing bases in DNA?

A

A-T

G-C

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87
Q

What are the four nitrogenous bases of DNA?

A

Adenine
Thymine
Guanine
Cytosine

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88
Q

Describe the appearance of DNA

A

Double Helix

Coiled like spiral staircase.

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89
Q

What is the master blueprint for protein synthesis?

A

DNA

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90
Q

How does RNA differ from DNA?

A

RNA is a single strand, has ribose sugar and a Uracil base instead of a thyamine.

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91
Q

What are the three types of RNA?

A

tRNA (transfer)
rRNA (ribosomal)
mRNA (messenger)

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92
Q

What is histology?

A

The study of tissue

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93
Q

What are the four main types of tissue?

A

Epithelial
Connective
Muscle
Nervous

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94
Q

What are the four functions of epithelial tissue?

A

Protection
Absorption
Filtration
Secretion

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95
Q

Where is epithelial tissue in the body?

A

Outer surface of both and internal organs, and inside the digestive tract and blood vessels.

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96
Q

Does epithelial tissue have a nerve supply?

A

NO

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97
Q

What are the three types of cell layers within epithelial tissue?

A

Simple, Stratified, and pseudo-stratified.

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98
Q

How many layers is simple epithelial tissue?

A

ONE

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99
Q

How many layers is stratified epithelial tissue?

A

Multiple layers

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100
Q

How many layers is pseudostratified epithelial tissue?

A

One layer

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101
Q

What are the three cell shape types of epithelial tissue?

A

Squamous (squished down circles)
Cubodial (uniform squares or circles)
Columnar (Rectangles)

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102
Q

What are 5 types of connective tissue?

A 
Loose connective tissue 
Adipose 
Cartilage 
Bone 
Blood
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103
Q

What is loose connective tissue?

A

Tissue that joins bone structures, thin filling between body parts.

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104
Q

What is adipose tissue?

A

Releases fat when energy is needed, used for protection and insulation.

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105
Q

What are the three types of connective tissue fibers?

A

Collagen fibers
Reticular fibers
Elastic fibers

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106
Q

What are the three types of muscle tissue?

A

Skeletal
Cardiac
Smooth

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107
Q

What are the two kinds of nervous tissue cells?

A

Neurons

Neuroglial

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108
Q

Which type of tissue regenerates esaily?

A

Epithelial, and fibrous connective tissue and bone.

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109
Q

What type of tissue regenerates poorly?

A

Skeletal muscle

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110
Q

What types of tissue are replaced with scar tissue instead of regenerating?

A

Cardiac muscle and nervous tissue

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111
Q

What are the two kinds or tissue membranes?

A

Epithelial and connective

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112
Q

What membrane is the skin?

A

Cutaneous membranes

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113
Q

What are the three types of epithelial membranes?

A

Mucous membranes
Serous membranes
Cutaneous membranes

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114
Q

What are mucosa?

A

Mucous membranes that live body cavities that open to the outside.

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115
Q

What is serous membranes?

A

Smooth membrane consisting of a thin layer of cells which excrete fluid.

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116
Q

What is the one type of connective tissue membrane?

A

Synovial membrane

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117
Q

Where are synovial membranes found?

A

At freely movable joints

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118
Q

What is included in the integumentary system?

A

The skin and its accessory structures, like hair, nails.

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119
Q

What are the three parts of skin, from outside in??

A

Epidermis
Dermis
Subcutaneous

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120
Q

What are some functions of the skin?

A 
Protects against injury 
Prevents dehydration 
Maintains body temperature 
Sweat glands 
Protect from sun
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121
Q

What is the bodies first line of defense?

A

SKIN

122
Q

What are the four principal cells of the epidermis?

A

Keratinocytes
Melanocytes
Langerhans
Merkel Cells

123
Q

What are keratinocytes of the epidermis?

A

Produce keratin to protect the skin and tissue from heat and chemicals.

124
Q

What percentage of the epidermis is made up of keratinocytes?

A

90%

125
Q

What are melanocytes in the epidermis?

A

Produce melanin which gives skin its colour and protects against UV rays

126
Q

What are the langerhans of the epidermis?

A

Middle section that performs immunological attack against foreign substances.

127
Q

What do the merkel cells of the epidermis do?

A

Detect touch sensations

128
Q

What are the three pigments of the skin?

A

Melanin
Carotene
Hemoglobin

129
Q

What colours do melanin make the skin?

A

Pale yellow, brown, or black.

130
Q

What are freckles?

A

Accumulated melanin

131
Q

What are the three layers of the shaft and root of hair?

A

Medulla
Cortex
Cuticle

132
Q

What is the medulla layer of hair?

A

Inner layer, 2-3 layers containing pigment and air spaces.

133
Q

What is the cortex layer of hair?

A

The middle later, contains pigment in dark hair but mostly air in grey or white hair.

134
Q

What are nails?

A

Hard, keratinized epidermal cells.

135
Q

What are the three parts to a nail?

A

The nail body, the free edge, and the nail root.

136
Q

What is the nail body?

A

Portion of the nail that is visible

137
Q

What is the free edge of the nail?

A

The part extending past the edge of the digit

138
Q

What is the nail root?

A

The part of the nail buried in the skin

139
Q

What is the whiteish crescent shaped area of the nail body called?

A

The lunula

140
Q

What are the two kinds of wound healing?

A

Epidermal wound healing and deep wound healing

141
Q

What are the four phases of deep wound healing?

A

Inflammatory phase
Migratory phase
Proliferative phase \
Maturation phase

142
Q

What happens during the inflammatory phase of deep wound healing?

A

A blood clot forms to stop bleeding, inflammation occurs.

143
Q

What happens during the migratory phase of deep wound healing?

A

The clot becomes a scab to bridge the wound

144
Q

The process of scar tissue formation is called what?

A

Fibrosis

145
Q

What are the characteristics of a first degree burn?

A

Involves only the epidermis
Mild pain and redness, no blistering
Skin functions remain intact
Healing occurs in 3-6 days

146
Q

What are the characteristics of a second degree burn?

A

Destroys part of the epidermis and possibly the dermis
Redness, pain, blistering
Some skin function is lost
if no infection, healing occurs in 3-4 weeks
Scarring may occur

147
Q

What are the characteristics of a third degree burn?

A

Destroys the epidermis and the underlying dermis
Edema, burnt area can be numb.
Skin graft may be required
Can be fatal due to infection

148
Q

What does SPF stand for?

A

Sun Protection Factor

149
Q

How does sunblock work?

What about sunscreen?

A

Works by reflecting UV rays

Sunscreen absorbs the UV rays and renders them harmless.

150
Q

What is a cancerous neoplasm called?

A

Malignant

151
Q

What is a noncancerous neoplasm called?

A

Benign

152
Q

Malignant tumors which arise from epithelial cells is called what?

A

Carcinomas

153
Q

Cancers that arise from muscle cells and connective tissues are called what?

A

Sarcomas

154
Q

What are the three kinds of skin cancer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Malignant melanoma

155
Q

What can you watch for when you suspect you may have malignant melanoma?

A 
ABCDE 
Asymmetry 
Border Irregularity 
Colour variegation 
Diameter greater than 6mm 
Elevation above surrounding tissue
156
Q

What are the two divisions of the skeletal system?

A

Axial skeleton

Appendicular skeleton

157
Q

What are some functions of bones?

A

Support the body
Protect internal organs
Red blood cell formation
Movement

158
Q

How many bones does the adult skeleton have?

A

206

159
Q

What are the two basic types of bone tissue?

A

Compact bone and spongy bone

160
Q

Describe long bones and give an example

A

Longer than wide
Contain mostly compact bone.
EX. Femur, humerus

161
Q

Describe short bones and give an example

A

Generally cube shaped
Contain mostly spongy bone
EX. Carpals, tarsals

162
Q

Describe flat bones and give an example

A

Thin and flattened
Usually curved
Thin layers of compact bone around a layer of spongy bone
EX. Skull, ribs

163
Q

Describe irregular bones and give an example

A

Irregular shape
Do not fit into other categories
EX Vertebrae and hip

164
Q

What is the diaphysis of the long bone, and what is it composed of?

A

The shaft of the bone

Composed of compact bone

165
Q

What is the epiphysis of the long bone, and what is it composed of?

A

The ends of the bone

Composed mostly of spongy bone

166
Q

What is the periosteum of the long bone?

A

The outside covering of the diaphysis, a fibrous connective tissue membrane

167
Q

What are the Sharpey’s fibers of the long bone?

A

They secure the periosteum to the underlying bone

168
Q

What is articular cartilage of the long bone?

A

Covers the external surface and decreases friction at joint surfaces - made of hyaline cartilage

169
Q

What is the medullary cavity in long bones contain in adults? In infants?

A 
Adults = yellow marrow (fat) 
Infants = red marrow ( blood cell formation)
170
Q

What is an osteon (Haversian System)?

A

A unit of bone

171
Q

What are lacunae’s of the bone?

A

Cavities containing bone cells arranged in concentric rings

172
Q

What are lamellae’s of the bone?

A

Rings around the central canal

173
Q

What are the canaliculi’s of the bone?

A

Tiny canals that radiate from the central canal to the lacunae, a form of transport system

174
Q

What are epiphyseal plates?

A

Allow for growth of long bone during childhood

175
Q

What are ostercytes?

A

Mature bone cells

176
Q

What are osterblasts?

A

Bone-forming cells

177
Q

What are osterclasts?

A

Bone-destroying ells

178
Q

What is another name for a joint?

A

Articulation

179
Q

What are the three groups of joints?

A

Synarthrosis
Amphiarthrosis
Diarthrosis

180
Q

What are synthrosis joints, and what is an example?

A

Joints that do not permit movement

Skull bones

181
Q

What are amphiarthrosis joints? What is an example?

A

Joints that permit slight movement

Ribs

182
Q

What is another name for diathrosis?

A

Synovial joints

183
Q

What are diathrosis joints?

A

Freely movable joints

Knee, elbow

184
Q

What kind of joints are most abundant in the body?

A

Diathrosis

185
Q

What are the three basic muscle types?

A

Skeletal muscle

Cardiac

186
Q

What are responsible for the contraction of muscles?

A

microfilaments

187
Q

What is the endomysium?

A

The connective tissue wrapping round a single muscle fiber

188
Q

What is a fascicle?

A

A bundle of muscle fibers

189
Q

What is the perimysium?

A

The connective tissue wrappings around the bundle of fibres

190
Q

What is the epimysium?

A

The connective tissue wrappings that cover the entire skeletal muscle

191
Q

What is the fascia?

A

The outside of the epimysium, which is the skeletal muscle connective tissue wrapping.

192
Q

What are some smooth muscle characteristics?

A

No striations
Single nucleus
Spindle shaped
Involuntary

193
Q

What are some cardiac muscle characteristics?

A

Striations
Single nucleus
Involuntary
Only in the heart

194
Q

What are the four main functions of muscles?

A

Produce movement
Maintain posture
Stabilize joints
Generate heat

195
Q

What is the sarcolemma?

A

The specialized plasma membrane of skeletal muscle

196
Q

What are myofibril?

A

Bundles of microfliaments

197
Q

What is the sacromere?

A

Contractile unit of muscle fiber

198
Q

What are the thick filaments of the skeletal muscle called?

A

Myosin filaments

199
Q

What are the thin filaments of the skeletal muscle called?

A

Actin filaments

200
Q

What is the nervous system?

A

A complex network of billions of neurons

201
Q

What is an axon?

A

A long extension of a nerve cell, takes information away from the body

202
Q

What are the dendrites?

A

Bring information to the cell body

203
Q

What is myelin? What is it made of?

A

Coats and insulates the axon. Made of Schwann’s cells

204
Q

What are the three main states of neurons?

A

Polarized
Depolarized
Repolarized

205
Q

What happens during the polarization of a cell?

A

Resting state with a negative charge inside the cell and positive outside the cell.

206
Q

What happens during depolarization of the cell?

A

Becomes more positive, pushes Na+ ions rush into the cell, making the inside of the neuron more positive

207
Q

What happens during repolarization of the cell?

A

Positive charges escape, NA+ is transported out of the cell, K+ in the cell, and the cell is in a resting state

208
Q

What are the two divisions of the nervous system?

A

CNS and PNS

209
Q

What are the two divisions of the PNS?

A

Somatic and autonomic systems

210
Q

What is the somatic division of the nervous system?

A

VOLUNTARY

Sending and relaying signals which we can control to achieve an effect

211
Q

What is the autonomic division of the nervous system?

A

INVOLUNTARY

Deals with changes in the internal environment

212
Q

What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic system

213
Q

What are the two parts of the CNS?

A

Brain

Spinal Cord

214
Q

What is the cerebral cortex responsible for?

A

Thought, voluntary movement, reasoning, and perception

215
Q

What is the cerebellum responsible for?

A

Movement, balance, posture

216
Q

What is the hypothalamus responsible for?

A

Body temp, emotions, hunger, thirst circadian rhythms

217
Q

What is the thalamus responsible for?

A

Sensory processing and movement

218
Q

What is the limbic system responsible for?

A

Emotions

219
Q

What is the hippocampus responsible for?

A

Memory and learning

220
Q

What is the basal ganglia responsible for?

A

Coordinating movement

221
Q

What are the parts of the brainstem?

A

Midbrain
Pons
Medulla Oblongata

222
Q

What is the brainstem responsible for?

A

functions necessary for survival

223
Q

What is the medulla oblongata responsible for?

A

Relay station between the spinal cord and the brain.

224
Q

What is the midbrain responsible for?

A

Vision, audition, eye movement, body movement

225
Q

What is the pons responsible for?

A

Links different parts of the brain - a relay station between the medulla and the structures of the brain.

226
Q

What is the minimum length requirement for chronic pain?

A

Three months

227
Q

What nerves detect and portray pain?

A

Nocireceptors

228
Q

What is MS?

A

Inflammation of nervous tissue, loss of myelin.

229
Q

What is the anterior chamber of the eye?

A

Area in front of the cornea and in back by the lens - filled with aqueous

230
Q

What is the Canal of Schlemm of the eye?

A

The passageway for the aqueous fluid to leave the eye

231
Q

What is the choroid of the eye?

A

The inner coat between the sclera and the retina - carried blood vessels

232
Q

What is the conjunctiva of the eye?

A

A clear membrane covering the white of the eye

233
Q

What is the iris?

A

The coloured portion of the eye - gets bigger to let more light in, or smaller to restrict light

234
Q

What is the macula of the eye?

A

Small area in the retina that provides the most central acute vision

235
Q

What is myopia?

A

Nearsightedness (cant see far)

236
Q

What is hyperopia?

A

Farsightedness

237
Q

What is the most common refractive error?

A

Astigmatism

238
Q

Describe glaucoma

A

Disease of the optic nerve - can result in blindness. Risk factor is IOP

239
Q

What are cataracts?

A

A clouding of the lens of the eye

240
Q

What is conjunctivitis?

A

Pink eye - infection and inflammation of the conjunctiva

241
Q

What seperates the ear canal from the middle ear?

A

The eardrum

242
Q

What are the ossicles?

A

The three tiniest bones in the body that amplify sound through vibration

243
Q

What two organs make up the inner ear?

A

The semicircular canals and the cochlea

244
Q

What is the purpose of the semicircular canals?

A

Balance

245
Q

What is the purpose of the cochlea?

A

Convery pressure to electrical impulses to the auditory nerve

246
Q

What is otitis Media?

A

eustacian tube dysfunction -

247
Q

The highest incidence of otitis media happens in what age group?

A

Preschool children and graduallt decreases after age 6

248
Q

What is Meniere’s Disease?

A

An imbalance of fluid in the sacs on the inner ears

249
Q

What is Otitis Externa / Swimmers ear?

A

Infection of the outer ear

250
Q

What are the organs of the endocrine system?

A 
Pineal Gland, 
Pituitary Gland,
 Thyroid Gland, 
Thymus, 
Adrenal Gland, 
Pancreas, 
Ovary, 
Testis
251
Q

What does the pineal gland regulate?

A

Sleep patterns

252
Q

What does the thyroid gland regulate?

A

Metabolsim

253
Q

What does the parathyroid gland regulate?

A

Calcium levels

254
Q

Wat does the thymus regulate?

A

Immunity

255
Q

Wat does the adrenal gland regulate?

A

Stress levels

256
Q

What is the largest gland?

A

Pancreas

257
Q

What two types of hormones are within the endocrine system?

A

One composed of protein

One composed of steroid

258
Q

What hormones does the hypothalamus produce?

A 
TRH 
GnRH
GHRH
CRH
somatostatin 
dopamine
259
Q

What is known as the master gland of the body?

A

The pituitary gland

260
Q

What hormones are produced in the Anterior pituitary lobe?

A 
Groth hormone 
Prolactin 
ACTH 
TSH 
FH 
LH
261
Q

What hormones are produces in the posterior pituitary lobe?

A

Oxytocin and ADH

262
Q

What does the pineal gland produce?

A

Melantonin

263
Q

What are the three fundamental physiological processes that the thyroid gland affects?

A

Cellular differentiation
Growth
Metabolism

264
Q

What hormones are producted by the thyroid gland?

A

T3 (Triiodothyronine)
T4 (Thyroxine)
Calcitonin

265
Q

How many parathyroid glands are there? Where are they?

A

4 - embedded within the thyroid gland

266
Q

What hormone does th thymus produce?

A

Thymosin

267
Q

What hormones does the adrenal cortex produce?

A

Glucocorticoids
Mineralocorticoids
Androgens

268
Q

What hormones are produced in the adrenal medulla?

A

epnephrine and norepinephrine

269
Q

What part of the pancreas produces hormones?

A

The Islets of Langerhans

270
Q

What hormones does the Islets of Langerhans produce?

A

A cells = glucagon
B cells = insulin
D cells = somatostatin

271
Q

What hormone are pregnancy tests trying to detect?

A

HCG

272
Q

The average heart pumps how many liters of blood every minute?

A

5L

273
Q

What are the 5 major functions of the circulatory system

A 
Oxygen and carbon dioxide transport 
Nutrient and waste product transport 
Disease protection and healing 
Hormone delivery 
Body temp regulation
274
Q

What are the four components of blood?

A

Red blood cells
White blood cells
Platelets
Liquid plasma

275
Q

What are erythrocytes?

A

Red blood cells

276
Q

What are leukocytes?

A

White blood cells

277
Q

What are thrombocytes?

A

Platelets

278
Q

What percentage of blood is made up of red blood cells?

A

45%

279
Q

What is the lifespan of red blood cells?

A

120 days

280
Q

What percentage of blood is made up of white blood cells?

A

1%

281
Q

What is the lifespan of white blood cells?

A

1-3 days

282
Q

What are the four blood types, and what are their antigens and antibodies?

A 
A = Angigen A and Antibody B 
B = Antigen B and Antibody A 
AB = Antigen A&B and no Antibodies 
O = No antigens and Antibodies A&B
283
Q

What blood type is considered to be the universal donor?

A

Type O negative

284
Q

What blood type is considered to be the universal reciever?

A

AB positive

285
Q

What is the most common blood type in canada?

A

O positive

286
Q

What is the least common blood type in canada?

A

AB negative

287
Q

What are the three major types of blood vessels?

A

Arteries, veins and capillaries

288
Q

What is the difference between an artery and a vein?

A

Oxygenated blood
Thicker
More elastic
More muscular

289
Q

What is the name of the largest artery, and where is it located?

A

Aorta - connected to the hearts left ventricle

290
Q

What connects arteries to capillaries?

A

Arterioles

291
Q

What is the smallest and thinnest blood vessels? Why are they like this?

A

Capillaries - Are small for the exchange of gas, nutrients, and waste products

292
Q

What are the two largest veins in the body?

A

Superior vena cava and inferior vena cava

293
Q

What is the difference between the superior vena cava and the inferior vena cava?

A

Superior carries blood from the upper half of the body, and Inferior carries blood from the lower half od the body.

294
Q

What connects veins to capillaries?

A

Venules

295
Q

What does the right atrium do?

A

Recieves oxygen poor blood from the body and pumps it into the right ventricle

296
Q

What does the right ventricle do?

A

Pumpes oxygen poor blood to the lungs, where gas exchange occurs

297
Q

What does the left atrium do?

A

Recieves oxygen rich blood from the lungs, pumps into the left ventricle

298
Q

What does the left ventricle do?

A

Pumps oxygen rich blood to the body

299
Q

What are the layers of the heart, from outside to inside?

A

Epicardium, Myocardium, Endocardium

300
Q

What is the Epicardium?

A

The outer protective layer of the heart

FINAL FINAL (10 decks)

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