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PTA > Anatomy and Physiology > Flashcards

Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What muscle is an antagonist to pectoralis major

A

Posterior deltoid

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2
Q

In diarthrotic joints what provide more stability than mobility?

A

Ligament

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3
Q

What nerve innervates serratus anterior?

A

Long thoracic nerve

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4
Q

Proximal row of carpals

A

scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform

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5
Q

distal row of carpals

A

hamate, capitate, trapezoid, trapezium

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6
Q

A bag like structure found around freely moveable joints that helps to reduce friction where large muscles and tendons pass across joint capsule

A

Bursae

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7
Q

Pectoral girdle bones

A

clavicle and scapula only

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8
Q

Anterior forearm is innervate by

A

median nerve

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9
Q

upper extremity attaches axial skeletal at

A

superolateral edge of sternum via the SC joint

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10
Q

thoracodorsal nerve innervates what mm

A

latissimus dorsi

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11
Q

metacarpal and proximal phalanx (II-IV) are what type of joint

A

Condyloid

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12
Q

Posterior Forearm nerve

A

Ulnar

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13
Q

Biaxial joint

A

bone moves in two planes or axes

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14
Q

A synovial joint is most related to what classification of joints?

A

Diarthrodic

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15
Q

The coronoid fossa is on the ___ aspect of the distal end of the ___

A

Anterior, humerus

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16
Q

Scapular Adduction and Downward Rotation is performed by

A

Rhomboids only

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17
Q

musculocutaneous nerve is involved with

A

shoulder and elbow flexion

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18
Q

the proximal end of ulna articulates with

A

humerus

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19
Q

the strongest most efficient elbow flexor is

A

brachialis

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20
Q

levator scapulae on the scapula

A

medial rotation and elevation

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21
Q

posterior upper arm

A

radial nerve

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22
Q

mms that O on the coracoid process

A

coracobrachialis and biceps brachii

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23
Q

the head of the radius is proximal or distal?

A

Proximal

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24
Q

The lesser tubercle is on what aspect of the humerus

A

Anterior

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25
Q

What is the anatomical region around the elbow?

A

Cubital

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26
Q

Subscapularis insertion

A

Inferiorly through the ancillary region to the tubercle of the humerus

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27
Q

the cranial sutures are an example of what type of joint?

A

fibrous/synarthrotic

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28
Q

the distal tibia/fibula joint is what type of joint?

A

fibrous/synarthrotic

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29
Q

vertebral bodies are what type of joint and how much movement?

A

cartilaginous/amphiarthrotic, slight movement

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30
Q

vertebral FACETS are what type of joint and how much movement?

A

synovial/diarthrotic, gliding aka planar. 3 degrees freely moveable but not much movement.

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31
Q

The SC joint is what type of joint?

A

Saddle. 2 degrees.

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32
Q

At both proximal and distal ends, the radio-ulnar joint is what type?

A

pivot joint

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33
Q

MCP and MTP joints are what type?

A

Synovial/diarthrotic, condyloid/ellipsoid, 2 degrees of freedom

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34
Q

temporo-mandibular joint

A

condyloid/ellipsoid, 2 degrees of freedom

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35
Q

ankle-talus joint with tibia/fibula is what type of joint?

A

synovial/diarthrotic, hinge

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36
Q

What is necessary to stabilize the joints?

A

ligaments

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37
Q

Anatomical name for shoulder joint

A

glenohumeral joint

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38
Q

important ligaments in the GH joint:

A

glenohumeral, transverse, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular, coracohumeral ligament, coracoaromial ligament

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39
Q

important elbow ligaments

A

radial and ulnar collateral ligaments, annular ligaments

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40
Q

wrist ligaments

A

radial and ulnar collateral ligaments

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41
Q

important hip ligaments

A

iliofemoral ligament, ischiofemoral ligament, pubofemoral ligament

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42
Q

knee ligaments

A

ACL, PCL, MCL, LCL, patellar ligament, medial and lateral ligaments, popliteal ligament

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43
Q

synovial fluid is critical for three things:

A

lubrication, movement, and nutrient distribution

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44
Q

what muscle elevates and lateral (upward) rotates the scapula?

A

upper trapezius

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45
Q

what muscle adduct the scapula?

A

Middle Trapezius and Rhomboids

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46
Q

What is the only muscle that performs THREE Actions on the scapula?

A

Rhomboids

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47
Q

Three main functions of the Central Nervous System (CNS)

A
  1. monitor systems and internal/external environment
  2. integrate information
  3. coordinate movement and response of systems
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48
Q

The Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) has two sections:

A

Afferent (sensory) and Efferent (motor)

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49
Q

The efferent (motor) division of the PNS subdivides into

A
  1. Somatic
  2. Automatic
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49
Q

Which division of PNS brings information in to the CNS?

A

Afferent division (sensory)

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49
Q

Which PNS division carries commands from the CNS to the glands?

A

Efferent division (motor)

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49
Q

Automatic division of the PNS efferent (motor) division divides into

A
  1. Sympathetic “fight or flight”
  2. Parasympathetic “rest and digest”
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50
Q

What are four parts of a neuron?

A
  1. Dendrite: receives impulses on a neuron
  2. Axon: sends information to receiving neuron
  3. Cell Body (nucleus): contains the nucleus and cytoplasm of a cell
  4. One or more axon terminals: at opposite end of cell body
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51
Q

What is the functions of dendrites?

A

They receive incoming signals

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52
Q

What is the function of an axon terminal?

A

They carry outgoing signals.

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53
Q

A single motor unit:

A

Is composed of a single efferent neuron, its various terminal branches, and the neurotransmitter (NT) it releases, the synaptic cleft and the end plates

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54
Q

Motor neurons (efferent)

A

Neurons that carry outgoing information from the brain and spinal cord to the muscles and glands. They carry to targets called effectors.

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55
Q

Muscle Tone

A

When a motor unit is always active within a particular muscle even when the entire muscle is not contracting

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56
Q

Depolarization

A

As a number of positively (+) charged ions on the inner surface of the plasma membrane increase, the membrane potential shifts towards depolarization.

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57
Q

All living, unstimulated cells have a ____ plasma membrane.

A

polarized

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58
Q

Action potential

A

Is an electrical signal that affects the surface of the entire membrane in excitable cells.

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59
Q

Dura mater

A

tough, fibrous OUTermost covering of the CNS. Fused to periosteum of the skull. Holds the brain in position.

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60
Q

Arachnoid mater

A

Narrow subdural space that separates the inner surface of the dura matter from arachnoid.

61
Q

Pia mater

A

innermost meningeal layer which is bound firmly to underlying neural tissue. Blood of the brain and SC run along this layer.

62
Q

What are the three meninges?

A

Dura Mater
Arachnoid Mater
Pia Mater

63
Q

The spinal cord (SC) contains a ____ canal which is a narrow internal passageway filled with ____ (CSF).

A

Central, Cerebrospinal fluid

64
Q

The spinal cord consists of __ segments

A

31

65
Q

Every spinal segment is associated with a ___ of dorsal root ____ which contain the cell ____ of ____ neurons

A

pair, ganglia, bodies, sensory neurons (afferent)

66
Q

The cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in the:

A

Dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord

67
Q

Diancephalon

A

Thalamus, hypothalmaus, epithalamus

68
Q

Thalamus

A

contains relay and processing center for sensory information

69
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Connects to pituitary and hypothalamus centers - emotions, autonomic functions, hormone production

70
Q

Epithalamus

A

Contains another endocrine structure: the pineal gland

71
Q

Brain Stem

A

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata - three major regions of the brain and important processing centers for info head of the cerebrum or cerebellum

72
Q

Cerebellum

A

Adjust voluntary and involuntary motor activities based on sensory information

73
Q

The Four chambers of the brain are called

A

ventricles

74
Q

CSF (cerebrospinal fluid)

A

Surrounds and bathes the exposed surfaces of the CNS. Brain floats in this - provides cushioning

75
Q

Reflex

A

rapid, autonomic response to a specific stimulus

76
Q

Reflex arx is

A

single reflex wiring:
1. stimulus
2. receptor activation
3. sensory neuron transmits
4. information processed
5. motor neuron is activated
6. response by peripheral effector

77
Q

Blood functions

A
  1. transport
  2. regulate
  3. restrict fluid loss
  4. defense
  5. stabilize body temp
78
Q

The liver synthesizes more than __% of the plasma proteins

A

90%

79
Q

Hematocrit

A

Percentage of whole blood volume occupied by formed elements.
Adult males: 46%
Adult females: 42%
This closely approximates the volumes of RBCs.

80
Q

Hemoglobin

A

Binds and transports oxygen and C02. Accounts for 95% of and RBCs intercellular proteins.

81
Q

Type O blood:

A

Neither A or B antigens

82
Q

Antigens

A

A substance that can trigger a protective defense process called an immune response

83
Q

White blood cells are larger in size and do not have

A

hemoglobin

84
Q

WBCs that do phagocytosis:

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes

85
Q

Rarest WBC

A

basophils

86
Q

Neutrophils

A

A type of WBC that engulfs invading microbes and contributes to the nonspecific defenses of the body against disease.

87
Q

Hemostatis

A

The stopping of bleeding. Halts loss of blood through walls of damaged vessels.

88
Q

Three phases of hemostasis:

A
  1. Vascular
  2. Platelet
  3. Coagulation
89
Q

Greatest amt of pressure in heart is generated in the ___ _____.

A

left ventricle

90
Q

Flow of blood through the heart

A

right atria -> right ventricle -> lungs -> left atria -> left ventricle -> body

91
Q

Atrioventricular valves

A

prevent backflow of blood from ventricles to atria

92
Q

LAB RAT

A

Left Atrium: Bicuspid
Right Atrium: Tricuspid

93
Q

Semilunar valves

A

prevent backflow of blood from pulmonary trunk and ascending aorta to the R and L ventricles

94
Q

Great and middle cardiac veins

A

carry blood away from the coronary capillaries. They drain to the coronary sinus which opens the R atrium.

95
Q

An ECG (or EKG) measures

A

performance of specific nodal, conducting, and contractile components of the heart

96
Q

P wave:

A

depolarization of the atria

97
Q

QRS complex:

A

depolarization of ventricles

98
Q

T wave:

A

ventricular repolarization

99
Q

P-R interval:

A

Start of atrial depolarization

100
Q

Q-T interval:

A

time required for the ventricles to undergo a single cycle of depolarization and repolarization

101
Q

Stroke volume (SV)

A

amt of blood ejected by a ventricle during a single beat

102
Q

Cardiac Output (CO)

A

amt of blood pumped by ventricle in 1 minute

103
Q

Two types of immunity of the lymphatic system

A

innate (nonspecific) and adaptive (specific)

104
Q

What are the smallest lymphathic vessels

A

lymphatic capillaries

105
Q

Homeostasis is preserved through

A

intercellular communication via chemical messengers

106
Q

Hormones relay ____ and ____ between cells

A

information and instructions

107
Q

Long term communication is provided by the _____ system using chemical messengers called _____.

A

endocrine, hormones

108
Q

Each hormone has

A

target cells that bind and read the message when it arrives

109
Q

Anterior Pituitary Gland (APG)

A

secretes 7 hormones

110
Q

Posterior Pituitary Gland

A

secretes ADH and oxytocin (2 hormones)

111
Q

What gland synthesizes hormones that affect metabolism?

A

Thyroid gland

112
Q

Adrenal glands produce

A

corticosteroids

113
Q

Pineal Gland synthesizes

A

melatonin

114
Q

Pancreas contains both ____ and ____ cells.

A

endocrine and exocrine

115
Q

Alpha cells of pancreas

A

secrete glucagon, which RAISES blood sugar

116
Q

Beta cells of pancreas

A

secrete insulin which LOWERS blood sugar

117
Q

Conducting portion functional division

A

upper division of resp. system. where air moves through.

118
Q

Respiratory porition:

A

Lower division of resp. system. GAS EXCHANGE. Smallest bronchioles and alveoli.

119
Q

Anatomic upper respiratory

A

Nose to pharynx

120
Q

Anatomic lower respiratory

A

Larynx to alveoli

121
Q

Three parts of pharynx

A

nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

122
Q

Oropharynx

A

between soft palate and base of the tongue

123
Q

laryngopharynx

A

level of hyoid bone and entrance to esophagus

124
Q

Surfactant

A

secretion produced by certain cells of the alveoli that reduces the surface tension of water molecules, thus preventing the collapse of the alveoli after each expiration

125
Q

The right lung has how many lobes?

A

three lobes

126
Q

Left lung has how man lobes?

A

two lobes

127
Q

Order of inspiration

A
  1. Diaphragm contracts and flattens
  2. Ribs move up and out, external intercostal muscles contract, internal relax
  3. Volume in thorax increases
  4. Pressure in thorax decreases
  5. Air moves in along gradient
128
Q

Tidal Volume (TV)

A

The volume of air breathed in and out without conscious effort (about 500 mL)

129
Q

Vital Capacity (VC)

A

TV + IRV + ERV. The full amt of air you can breathe in and out of a single respiratory cycle.

130
Q

ERV

A

Expiratory reserve volume

131
Q

TLC (total lung capacity)

A

Maximum volume of air that lungs can contain (6.0 L)

132
Q

RV (residual volume)

A

Amt of air remaining in the lungs after a forced expiration

133
Q

Respiratory centers of the brain

A

medulla oblongata (ventral respiratory group (VRG) and dorsal respiratory group (DRG))
VRG is involved in forced breathing too

and pons

134
Q

Respiratory rhythmicity center

A

controls the rate and rhythm of breathing

135
Q

Inflation and deflation reflex

A

Neither are involved during normal quiet breathing

136
Q

smallest lymphatic vessels

A

lymphatic capillaries

137
Q

pressures in lymphatic system are extremely low, so ___ are essential

A

valves

138
Q

What is the smallest unite of a muscle?

A

myofibrils

139
Q

What is the smallest contractile unite of muscles?

A

Sacromere

140
Q

Troponin binds to what in a sacromere?

A

Calcium

141
Q

Many myofibrils together make up?

A

Muscle fiber aka muscle cell

142
Q

A muscle cell (aka muscle fiber) contains

A

sarcolemma, mitochondria, nuclei

143
Q

Many muscle fibers together make a

A

fasicle

144
Q

A muscle fiber is surrounded by

A

endomysium

145
Q

A fascicle is surrounded by

A

perimysium

146
Q

Each muscle is technically an organ. What is it covered with?

A

EPImysium

147
Q

What two substances cause the binding and unbinding that takes place in muscles?

A

Calcium and ATP

148
Q

Myofibrils are made up of sections called

A

Sacromeres

149
Q

Sacromeres are composed of

A

Actin and myosin (myofilaments)

150
Q

Which myofilament is thin?

A

Actin

151
Q

Which myofilament is thick?

A

Myosin

152
Q

The z line is at each end of a

A

sarcomere

PTA (21 decks)

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