Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

PTA > Anatomy and Physiology > Flashcards

Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What muscle is an antagonist to pectoralis major

A

Posterior deltoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In diarthrotic joints what provide more stability than mobility?

A

Ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What nerve innervates serratus anterior?

A

Long thoracic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Proximal row of carpals

A

scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

distal row of carpals

A

hamate, capitate, trapezoid, trapezium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A bag like structure found around freely moveable joints that helps to reduce friction where large muscles and tendons pass across joint capsule

A

Bursae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pectoral girdle bones

A

clavicle and scapula only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Anterior forearm is innervate by

A

median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

upper extremity attaches axial skeletal at

A

superolateral edge of sternum via the SC joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

thoracodorsal nerve innervates what mm

A

latissimus dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

metacarpal and proximal phalanx (II-IV) are what type of joint

A

Condyloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Posterior Forearm nerve

A

Ulnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Biaxial joint

A

bone moves in two planes or axes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A synovial joint is most related to what classification of joints?

A

Diarthrodic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The coronoid fossa is on the ___ aspect of the distal end of the ___

A

Anterior, humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Scapular Adduction and Downward Rotation is performed by

A

Rhomboids only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

musculocutaneous nerve is involved with

A

shoulder and elbow flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the proximal end of ulna articulates with

A

humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

the strongest most efficient elbow flexor is

A

brachialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

levator scapulae on the scapula

A

medial rotation and elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

posterior upper arm

A

radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

mms that O on the coracoid process

A

coracobrachialis and biceps brachii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the head of the radius is proximal or distal?

A

Proximal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The lesser tubercle is on what aspect of the humerus

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the anatomical region around the elbow?

A

Cubital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Subscapularis insertion

A

Inferiorly through the ancillary region to the tubercle of the humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the cranial sutures are an example of what type of joint?

A

fibrous/synarthrotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

the distal tibia/fibula joint is what type of joint?

A

fibrous/synarthrotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

vertebral bodies are what type of joint and how much movement?

A

cartilaginous/amphiarthrotic, slight movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

vertebral FACETS are what type of joint and how much movement?

A

synovial/diarthrotic, gliding aka planar. 3 degrees freely moveable but not much movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The SC joint is what type of joint?

A

Saddle. 2 degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

At both proximal and distal ends, the radio-ulnar joint is what type?

A

pivot joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

MCP and MTP joints are what type?

A

Synovial/diarthrotic, condyloid/ellipsoid, 2 degrees of freedom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

temporo-mandibular joint

A

condyloid/ellipsoid, 2 degrees of freedom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ankle-talus joint with tibia/fibula is what type of joint?

A

synovial/diarthrotic, hinge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is necessary to stabilize the joints?

A

ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Anatomical name for shoulder joint

A

glenohumeral joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

important ligaments in the GH joint:

A

glenohumeral, transverse, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular, coracohumeral ligament, coracoaromial ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

important elbow ligaments

A

radial and ulnar collateral ligaments, annular ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

wrist ligaments

A

radial and ulnar collateral ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

important hip ligaments

A

iliofemoral ligament, ischiofemoral ligament, pubofemoral ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

knee ligaments

A

ACL, PCL, MCL, LCL, patellar ligament, medial and lateral ligaments, popliteal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

synovial fluid is critical for three things:

A

lubrication, movement, and nutrient distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what muscle elevates and lateral (upward) rotates the scapula?

A

upper trapezius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what muscle adduct the scapula?

A

Middle Trapezius and Rhomboids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the only muscle that performs THREE Actions on the scapula?

A

Rhomboids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Three main functions of the Central Nervous System (CNS)

A
  1. monitor systems and internal/external environment
  2. integrate information
  3. coordinate movement and response of systems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) has two sections:

A

Afferent (sensory) and Efferent (motor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The efferent (motor) division of the PNS subdivides into

A
  1. Somatic
  2. Automatic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which division of PNS brings information in to the CNS?

A

Afferent division (sensory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which PNS division carries commands from the CNS to the glands?

A

Efferent division (motor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Automatic division of the PNS efferent (motor) division divides into

A
  1. Sympathetic “fight or flight”
  2. Parasympathetic “rest and digest”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are four parts of a neuron?

A
  1. Dendrite: receives impulses on a neuron
  2. Axon: sends information to receiving neuron
  3. Cell Body (nucleus): contains the nucleus and cytoplasm of a cell
  4. One or more axon terminals: at opposite end of cell body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the functions of dendrites?

A

They receive incoming signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the function of an axon terminal?

A

They carry outgoing signals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A single motor unit:

A

Is composed of a single efferent neuron, its various terminal branches, and the neurotransmitter (NT) it releases, the synaptic cleft and the end plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Motor neurons (efferent)

A

Neurons that carry outgoing information from the brain and spinal cord to the muscles and glands. They carry to targets called effectors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Muscle Tone

A

When a motor unit is always active within a particular muscle even when the entire muscle is not contracting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Depolarization

A

As a number of positively (+) charged ions on the inner surface of the plasma membrane increase, the membrane potential shifts towards depolarization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

All living, unstimulated cells have a ____ plasma membrane.

A

polarized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Action potential

A

Is an electrical signal that affects the surface of the entire membrane in excitable cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Dura mater

A

tough, fibrous OUTermost covering of the CNS. Fused to periosteum of the skull. Holds the brain in position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Arachnoid mater

A

Narrow subdural space that separates the inner surface of the dura matter from arachnoid.

61
Q

Pia mater

A

innermost meningeal layer which is bound firmly to underlying neural tissue. Blood of the brain and SC run along this layer.

62
Q

What are the three meninges?

A

Dura Mater
Arachnoid Mater
Pia Mater

63
Q

The spinal cord (SC) contains a ____ canal which is a narrow internal passageway filled with ____ (CSF).

A

Central, Cerebrospinal fluid

64
Q

The spinal cord consists of __ segments

65
Q

Every spinal segment is associated with a ___ of dorsal root ____ which contain the cell ____ of ____ neurons

A

pair, ganglia, bodies, sensory neurons (afferent)

66
Q

The cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in the:

A

Dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord

67
Q

Diancephalon

A

Thalamus, hypothalmaus, epithalamus

68
Q

Thalamus

A

contains relay and processing center for sensory information

69
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Connects to pituitary and hypothalamus centers - emotions, autonomic functions, hormone production

70
Q

Epithalamus

A

Contains another endocrine structure: the pineal gland

71
Q

Brain Stem

A

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata - three major regions of the brain and important processing centers for info head of the cerebrum or cerebellum

72
Q

Cerebellum

A

Adjust voluntary and involuntary motor activities based on sensory information

73
Q

The Four chambers of the brain are called

A

ventricles

74
Q

CSF (cerebrospinal fluid)

A

Surrounds and bathes the exposed surfaces of the CNS. Brain floats in this - provides cushioning

75
Q

Reflex

A

rapid, autonomic response to a specific stimulus

76
Q

Reflex arx is

A

single reflex wiring:
1. stimulus
2. receptor activation
3. sensory neuron transmits
4. information processed
5. motor neuron is activated
6. response by peripheral effector

77
Q

Blood functions

A
  1. transport
  2. regulate
  3. restrict fluid loss
  4. defense
  5. stabilize body temp
78
Q

The liver synthesizes more than __% of the plasma proteins

79
Q

Hematocrit

A

Percentage of whole blood volume occupied by formed elements.
Adult males: 46%
Adult females: 42%
This closely approximates the volumes of RBCs.

80
Q

Hemoglobin

A

Binds and transports oxygen and C02. Accounts for 95% of and RBCs intercellular proteins.

81
Q

Type O blood:

A

Neither A or B antigens

82
Q

Antigens

A

A substance that can trigger a protective defense process called an immune response

83
Q

White blood cells are larger in size and do not have

A

hemoglobin

84
Q

WBCs that do phagocytosis:

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes

85
Q

Rarest WBC

86
Q

Neutrophils

A

A type of WBC that engulfs invading microbes and contributes to the nonspecific defenses of the body against disease.

87
Q

Hemostatis

A

The stopping of bleeding. Halts loss of blood through walls of damaged vessels.

88
Q

Three phases of hemostasis:

A
  1. Vascular
  2. Platelet
  3. Coagulation
89
Q

Greatest amt of pressure in heart is generated in the ___ _____.

A

left ventricle

90
Q

Flow of blood through the heart

A

right atria -> right ventricle -> lungs -> left atria -> left ventricle -> body

91
Q

Atrioventricular valves

A

prevent backflow of blood from ventricles to atria

92
Q

LAB RAT

A

Left Atrium: Bicuspid
Right Atrium: Tricuspid

93
Q

Semilunar valves

A

prevent backflow of blood from pulmonary trunk and ascending aorta to the R and L ventricles

94
Q

Great and middle cardiac veins

A

carry blood away from the coronary capillaries. They drain to the coronary sinus which opens the R atrium.

95
Q

An ECG (or EKG) measures

A

performance of specific nodal, conducting, and contractile components of the heart

96
Q

P wave:

A

depolarization of the atria

97
Q

QRS complex:

A

depolarization of ventricles

98
Q

T wave:

A

ventricular repolarization

99
Q

P-R interval:

A

Start of atrial depolarization

100
Q

Q-T interval:

A

time required for the ventricles to undergo a single cycle of depolarization and repolarization

101
Q

Stroke volume (SV)

A

amt of blood ejected by a ventricle during a single beat

102
Q

Cardiac Output (CO)

A

amt of blood pumped by ventricle in 1 minute

103
Q

Two types of immunity of the lymphatic system

A

innate (nonspecific) and adaptive (specific)

104
Q

What are the smallest lymphathic vessels

A

lymphatic capillaries

105
Q

Homeostasis is preserved through

A

intercellular communication via chemical messengers

106
Q

Hormones relay ____ and ____ between cells

A

information and instructions

107
Q

Long term communication is provided by the _____ system using chemical messengers called _____.

A

endocrine, hormones

108
Q

Each hormone has

A

target cells that bind and read the message when it arrives

109
Q

Anterior Pituitary Gland (APG)

A

secretes 7 hormones

110
Q

Posterior Pituitary Gland

A

secretes ADH and oxytocin (2 hormones)

111
Q

What gland synthesizes hormones that affect metabolism?

A

Thyroid gland

112
Q

Adrenal glands produce

A

corticosteroids

113
Q

Pineal Gland synthesizes

114
Q

Pancreas contains both ____ and ____ cells.

A

endocrine and exocrine

115
Q

Alpha cells of pancreas

A

secrete glucagon, which RAISES blood sugar

116
Q

Beta cells of pancreas

A

secrete insulin which LOWERS blood sugar

117
Q

Conducting portion functional division

A

upper division of resp. system. where air moves through.

118
Q

Respiratory porition:

A

Lower division of resp. system. GAS EXCHANGE. Smallest bronchioles and alveoli.

119
Q

Anatomic upper respiratory

A

Nose to pharynx

120
Q

Anatomic lower respiratory

A

Larynx to alveoli

121
Q

Three parts of pharynx

A

nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

122
Q

Oropharynx

A

between soft palate and base of the tongue

123
Q

laryngopharynx

A

level of hyoid bone and entrance to esophagus

124
Q

Surfactant

A

secretion produced by certain cells of the alveoli that reduces the surface tension of water molecules, thus preventing the collapse of the alveoli after each expiration

125
Q

The right lung has how many lobes?

A

three lobes

126
Q

Left lung has how man lobes?

127
Q

Order of inspiration

A
  1. Diaphragm contracts and flattens
  2. Ribs move up and out, external intercostal muscles contract, internal relax
  3. Volume in thorax increases
  4. Pressure in thorax decreases
  5. Air moves in along gradient
128
Q

Tidal Volume (TV)

A

The volume of air breathed in and out without conscious effort (about 500 mL)

129
Q

Vital Capacity (VC)

A

TV + IRV + ERV. The full amt of air you can breathe in and out of a single respiratory cycle.

130
Q

ERV

A

Expiratory reserve volume

131
Q

TLC (total lung capacity)

A

Maximum volume of air that lungs can contain (6.0 L)

132
Q

RV (residual volume)

A

Amt of air remaining in the lungs after a forced expiration

133
Q

Respiratory centers of the brain

A

medulla oblongata (ventral respiratory group (VRG) and dorsal respiratory group (DRG))
VRG is involved in forced breathing too

and pons

134
Q

Respiratory rhythmicity center

A

controls the rate and rhythm of breathing

135
Q

Inflation and deflation reflex

A

Neither are involved during normal quiet breathing

136
Q

smallest lymphatic vessels

A

lymphatic capillaries

137
Q

pressures in lymphatic system are extremely low, so ___ are essential

138
Q

What is the smallest unite of a muscle?

A

myofibrils

139
Q

What is the smallest contractile unite of muscles?

140
Q

Troponin binds to what in a sacromere?

141
Q

Many myofibrils together make up?

A

Muscle fiber aka muscle cell

142
Q

A muscle cell (aka muscle fiber) contains

A

sarcolemma, mitochondria, nuclei

143
Q

Many muscle fibers together make a

144
Q

A muscle fiber is surrounded by

A

endomysium

145
Q

A fascicle is surrounded by

A

perimysium

146
Q

Each muscle is technically an organ. What is it covered with?

147
Q

What two substances cause the binding and unbinding that takes place in muscles?

A

Calcium and ATP

148
Q

Myofibrils are made up of sections called

A

Sacromeres

149
Q

Sacromeres are composed of

A

Actin and myosin (myofilaments)

150
Q

Which myofilament is thin?

151
Q

Which myofilament is thick?

152
Q

The z line is at each end of a

PTA (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions