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BOARD REVIEW > ANATOMY and HISTOLOGY > Flashcards

ANATOMY and HISTOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Macrophage in brain

A

Microglia/ glial cells

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2
Q

Macrophage in liver

A

Von kupffer cell

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3
Q

Macrophage in placenta

A

Hofbauer

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4
Q

Macrophage in lungs

A

Alveolar macrophage

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5
Q

The bulbus cordis becomes what structure in the adult heart?

A

Right ventricle

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6
Q

Plane of the abdomen is described as being halfway between suprasternal notch and pubic symphysis (L1 vertebra level in erect position)

A

Transpyloric

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7
Q

Muscular aponeuroses form the conjoint tendon

A

External oblique and internal oblique

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8
Q

In which abdominal layer is the opening of the deep inguinal ring is located

A

Transversalis fascia

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9
Q

Hernias presents as a bulge on the Hesselbach’s triangle

A

Direct hernia

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10
Q

Muscular aponeuroses contribute to the anterior rectus sheath above the arcuate line of Douglas

A

External and internal oblique muscles

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11
Q

Supplies cutaneous innervation to the umbilicus

A

T10

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12
Q

LINES will be directly traversed by an incision passing between 2 rectus abdominis muscles

A

Linea alba

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13
Q

Type of hernia arises when the bowel and peritoneal sac protrudes through the deep inguinal ring and enter the inguinal canal

A

Indirect

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14
Q

Spinal nerves will NOT enter the rectus sheath

A

L1

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15
Q

Muscular valve controls the flow of digestive juice from the pancreatic and common duct to duodenum

A

Sphincter of Oddi

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16
Q

artery of origin of the vasa brevia or short gastric arteries

A

Splenic

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17
Q

vertebral level does the esophagus start

A

C6

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18
Q

direct branch of the celiac trunk

A

Left gastric
Common hepatic
Splenic

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19
Q

Where are the spiral valves of Heister located

A

Cystic duct

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20
Q

Which part of the large intestine is the MOST prone to rupture in cases of complete intestinal obstruction

A

Cecum

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21
Q

artery runs in the superior border of the pancreas

A

Splenic

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22
Q

surfaces of the rectum is devoid of peritoneum

A

Lower third, anterior surface

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23
Q

vertebral level corresponds to the start of the rectum

A

S3

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24
Q

intestinal segments will LEAST likely develop necrosis with superior mesenteric artery thrombosis

A

Rectum

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25
Q

Most common pituitary gland tumor in adults

A

Prolactinoma

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26
Q

Most common pituitary gland tumor in children

A

Craniopharyngioma

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27
Q

Part of the vertebrae that supports majority of the weight

A

Lumbar

Biggest vertebral body

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28
Q

Fused regions of the vertebrae

A

Sacral (5)
Coccygeal (4)

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29
Q

Most distinctive feature of each cervical vertebra

A

Foremen transversarium / transverse foramen

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30
Q

Normal embryology of the breast

A

Modified apocrine sweat gland

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31
Q

Functional unit of breast

A

Terminal duct lobular unit (TDLU)

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32
Q

2 cell types that will line the ducts and lobules of the breast

A

Myoepithelial cells (contractile)
Luminal epithelial cells

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33
Q

2 types of stroma of the breast

A

Interlobular stroma
Intralobular stroma (hormonally responsive)

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34
Q

Epithelium of nipple and arrows

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

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35
Q

Functions in nipple lubrication, becoming prominent during pregnancy

A

Ariel at glands (of Montgomery)

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36
Q

Area of highest density of breast tissue among males

A

Subareolar area

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37
Q

Area of highest density of breast tissue among females

A

Upper outer quadrant

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38
Q

Cells in seminiferous tubules

A

Germ cells
Sertoli cells

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39
Q

Cells in interstitium of testis

A

Leydig cells

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40
Q

Mature spermatocytes

A

Presence of Acrosomal cap

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41
Q

Most common birth defect of male genitalia

A

Cryptorchidism

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42
Q

Phases of testicular descent

A
  • TRANSABDOMINAL PHASE (Mullerian inhibiting substance by Sertoli cells)
  • INGUINOSCROTAL PHASE (MC arrest descent) androgen and Hcg of calcitonin related peptide from genitofemoral nerve
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43
Q

Weight of prostate gland

A

20 grams

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44
Q

Anatomical zone of prostate cancer

A

Peripheral

Perineural invasion

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45
Q

Anatomical zone of BPH

A

Transitional and the periurethral

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46
Q

Most common form of prostatitis

A

Chronic abacterial prostatitis

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47
Q

BPH involves hyperplasia of what type of cells

A

Stromal and epithelial cells

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48
Q

Main androgen in prostate

A

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

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49
Q

Main arterial vascular supply of spinal cord

A

Anterior Spinal Artery (ASA)
Ant 2/3 of spinal cord
(From Anterior Radiculomedullary artery)

PSA - Post 1/3

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50
Q

Largest radiculo-medullary artery

Between T9-T12

A

Artery of Adamkiewics
(Arteria radicularis magna)

Reinforces the circulation in lower 2/3 of spinal cord

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51
Q

2nd largest artery
Enters central canal at the C5-C6 vertebral level

A

Artery of Cervical Enlargement

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52
Q

Communication of basivertebral veins and the posterior external vertebral venous plexus

A

Batson’s plexus

Responsible for metastasis of:
Breast CA, prostate CA, vertebral column, brain

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53
Q

Right and left vertebral veins will become …..

A

Basilar veins

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54
Q

Space between dura and wall of vertebral canal

A

Epidural space (extradural)

Contains internal vertebral venous plexus
Contains FAT

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55
Q

Between arachnoid and pia mater

Spinal cord ends at L1/L2

Dura ends at S2

A

Subarachnoid space

Contains CSF

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56
Q

Terminal portion of spinal cord

A

Conus medullaris

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57
Q

Blood supply of spinal cord (3A 1V)

A

Anterior spinal arteries (ASA)
Posterior spinal arteries (PSA)
Radicular Arteries (RA)

drain into:
Internal Vertebral Venous Plexus

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58
Q

Fibrous extension of the pia mater; anchors the spinal cord to coccyx

A

Filum terminale

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59
Q

Collection of nerve roots at the inferior end of the vertebral canal

A

Cauda equina

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60
Q

3 veins that contribute to Batson’s Venous Plexus

A

Internal vertebral venous plexus
External vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebtal veins

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61
Q

Hemisection of cord

Ipsilateral loss of touch and vibration
Contralateral loss of pain and temp

A

Brown sequard syndrome

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62
Q

Complete paralysis from the level of trauma
Hyperesthesia at level of the lesion
Loss of pain and temp
Proprioception is preserved

A

Anterior cord syndrome

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63
Q

Produces greater weakness of the arms than the legs
Sensory sparing is present

A

Central cord syndrome

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64
Q

Involvement of proprioception - position and vibratory sensation
Retain pain and temp sensation

A

Posterior cord syndrome

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65
Q

Slow degeneration of the dorsal/ posterior columns of the spinal cord
Loss of vibration and position sense

A

Tabes dorsalis
Tertiary syphilis

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66
Q

Pathognomonic sign of tabes dorsalis

A

Argyll robertson pupil
“It accomodates but does not react”

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67
Q

Most common spinal cord syndrome

Disproportionate UE weakness and less severe LE weakness, sensory and bladder dysfunction

A

Central cord syndrome

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68
Q

Loss of pain and temp in dermatomal distribution

“Suspended sensory level”

A

Girdle syndrome of central cord syndrome

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69
Q

Best prognosis of the spinal cord syndromes

A

Brown sequard syndrome

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70
Q

Worst prognosis of the spinal cord syndromes

A

Anterior corf syndrome

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71
Q

Least common of the spinal cord syndromes

A

Posterior cord syndrome

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72
Q

Injury to the cord at level of L1 to L2

Early sensory deficit (saddle distribution)
Bladder and bowel dysfunction

A

Conus medullaris syndrome

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73
Q

Injury that involves the nerve roots of the cauda equina and spares the spinal cord itself

Disc herniation and burst fractures

Bladder and bowel dysfunction later in the course

A

Cauda equina syndrome

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74
Q

Results from demineralization of bones

Elderly
Postmenopausal

A

Osteoporosis

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75
Q

Most common affected areas of osteoporosis

A

Neck of femur
Bodies of vertebrae
Metacarpals
Radius

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76
Q

Findings in osteoporosis

A

Wedge like lesion
Vertical striations
Collapsed vertebral column

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77
Q

Common in adolescent athletes involved in sports requiring repeated spinal HYPEREXTENSION

L5

Fracture of PARS INTERARTICULARIS

Degenerative/ traumatic defect of POST. NEURAL ARCH

A

Spondylolysis
“Neck of scottie dog”

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78
Q

Bilateral pars interartucularis defect
Forward displacement of vertebral body

L5-S1

“Slippage of vertebra anteriorly”

A

Spondylolisthesis

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79
Q

Fracture or dislocation of C1 (atlas)

Vertical compressive force

A

Jefferson’s fracture

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80
Q

Fractures involving C1, C2 and C3

Quadriplegia
Arrest of respiration

A

High cervical fracture

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81
Q

Fracture or dislocation of C2 (w/ dens of axis)

Traumatic spondylolisthesis

Sudden hyperextension

A

Hangman’s fracture

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82
Q

Hyperextension injury
Rear-end automobile collision
Strain/ torn anterior longitudinal ligament

A

Whiplash injury

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83
Q

Hyperflexion of the neck
Posterior subluxation of vertebral body

A

Teardrop fracture

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84
Q

Fracture of C7 (cervical prominence)

A

Clay shoveller’s fracture

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85
Q

Surgical excision of one or more spinous processes and the adjacent supporting vertebral laminae in a particular region of the vertebral column

A

Laminectomy

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86
Q

Umbilicus

Structures?
Vertebral level?
Dermatomal level?
AOG?

A

Bifurcation of the aorta
Iliac crest
V —- L4
D —- T10

AOG — 20 weeks

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87
Q

Structures at subcoastal plane L3

A

3rd part of duodenum
Origin of IMA

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88
Q

Transpyloric plane L1 structures

A

Pylorus of stomach
Duodenojejunal junction
Neck of pancreas
Hilum of kidneys

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89
Q

Fascial layers

A

Superficial
- campers (fatty)
- scarpa (membranous)
—– dartos (scrotum)
—– colles (perineum)

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90
Q

Extravasated urine it will be found in?

A

Superficial perineal space

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91
Q

Rupture of inferior epigastric vein
MCC is trauma
MC on the right side below umbilicus

A

Rectus sheath hematoma

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92
Q

Palpable abdominal mass that remains unchanged with contraction

A

Fothergill sign

Rectus sheath hematoma

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93
Q

2-3cm above the clavicle anterior to C6 transverse process

Most superficial passage for the brachial plexus

A

Erb’s point

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94
Q

Brachial plexus starts at? Ends?

A

Start - C5
End - T1

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95
Q

Affects C5 and C6
Waiter’s tip

A

Erb’s palsy
Upper brachial plexus

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96
Q

C8 - T1 lower brachial plexus palsy

A

Klumpke’s palsy

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97
Q

Wrist drop
Saturday night palsy

Loss of extensuon of fingers, thumb and wrist
Numbness over 1st dorsal intraosseous muscles

A

Radial nerve

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98
Q

Humeral mid-shaft fracture

A

Radial nerve

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99
Q

Ape hand

Atrophy of thenar eminence

A

Median nerve

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100
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Median nerve

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101
Q

Pope’s blessing

A

Median nerve injury

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102
Q

PE for carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Tinel’s sign
- tap

Phalen’s sign
- “pray”

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103
Q

Nerve supplies the serratus anterior

Winging of scapula

A

Long thoracic nerve

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104
Q

Fracture of the surgucal neck of humerus

A

Axillary nerve injury

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105
Q

Quadrangular space boundaries

A

Sup - subscapularis
Lat - humerus
Inf - teres major
Med- triceps (long head)

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106
Q

Quadrangulat space contents

A

Axillary nerve
Posterior humeral circumflex

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107
Q

Axillary nerve injury

A

Injury to quadrangular space

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108
Q

Ill-fitted crutches

A

Radial nerve injury

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109
Q

Axillary nerve injury will lead to

A

Deltoid atrophy

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110
Q

Ulnar nerve injury

A

Claw hand

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111
Q

Thoracodorsal nerve
Middle subscapular nerve

A

Latissimus dorsi

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112
Q

Muscles of rotator cuff

A

Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Subscapularis
Teres MINOR

SITS

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113
Q

When pinching a piece of paper between thumb and index finger, the thumb IP joint will flex if the ADDUCTOR POLLICIS muscle is weak

A

Froment’s sign

Ulnar nerve injury

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114
Q

Finkelstein sign

A

De quervain’s tenosynovitis

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115
Q

Chest pain referred to medial side of arm and armpits

A

Intercostobrachial nerve T2

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116
Q

Volkmann’s contracture

A

Supracondylar fracture

Permanent flexion contracture of the hand and wrist (claw like deformity )

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117
Q

Thickening of palmar aponeurosis

A

Dupuytren’s contracture

Seen in uremia

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118
Q

Lateral epicondylitis

A

Tennis elbow

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119
Q

Medial epicondylitis

A

Golfer’s elbow

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120
Q

Cubital fossa boundaries

A

Base - line connecting lateral to medial epicondyle
Lat - brachioradialis
Med - pronator teres

Axillary artery –> radial artery (anatomical snufbox) —> ulnar artery

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121
Q

Fascial compartment of thigh : Anterior thigh muscles

A

supplied by FEMORAL N
— flexors of thigh, extensors of knee

Iliopsoas
Tensor fascia lata
Sartorius
Quadriceps femoris

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122
Q

Landmarks of anterior thigh

A

Anterior superior iliac spine
Anterior inferior iliac spine
Ischial tuberosity

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123
Q

Fascial compartment of thigh : medial thigh muscles

A

supplied by OBTURATOR N
— adducts the thigh

Pectinus
Adductor longus
Adductor brevis
Adductor magnus
Gracillis

Adductors LBM + P, G

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124
Q

Fascial compartment of thigh : posterior thigh muscles

A

supplied by SCIATIC NERVE
— Extensors of the thigh, flexor of leg

Hamstring muscles:
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus
Biceps femoris
Adductor magnus

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125
Q

Landmarks of posterior thigh

A

Lesser trochanter
Linea aspera —- adductor magnus

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126
Q

Compartment syndrome

A

MC site - ANTERIOR
Increase production of fluid

Early sign - paresthesia between the 1st and 2nd toes

Treatment:
30-45 mmhg close monitoring
>45 mmhg —- surgery — fascioyomy

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127
Q

Femoral triangle

A

Triangular fascial space in the superoanterior third of the thigh

Sup - Inguinal ligament
Med - Adductor longus
Lat - Sartorius

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128
Q

Contents of femoral triangle

A

Femoral Nerve and its branches
Femoral Sheath and its contents
Femoral Artery and its branches
Femoral Vein and its tributaries

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129
Q

Funnel shaped fascial tube formed by inferior prolongation by inferior prolongation of iliopsoas and transversalis fascia of the abdomen

A

Femoral sheath

Lateral - Femoral A
Intermediate - Femoral V
Medial - Femoral Canal

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130
Q

Appears as a mass, often tender, in femoral triangle

A

Femoral hernia

Femoral ring is a weak area in anterior abdominal wall that normally admits the tip of 5th digit

MC in females

Neck of sac always LATERAL and BELOW the pubic tubercle

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131
Q

Most common type of hernia

A

Indirect hernia

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132
Q

Most common type of hernia in females

A

Indirect hernia

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133
Q

A fascial tunnel in the thigh running from the apex of femoral triangle to the adductor hiatus in the tendon of adductor magnus muscle

A

Adductor canal / subsartorial canal / hunter’s canal

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134
Q

Boundaries and contents of adductor canal

A

Ant - Sartorius
Lat - Vastus medialis
Post & Med - adductor longus / magnus

Contents:
- Femoral A/V
- Saphenous N
- Nerve to Vastus Medialis

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135
Q

Gluteal muscles

A

Gluteus Maximus
Gluteus Medius
Gluteus Minimus

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136
Q

Movement of Gluteus Maximus

Nerve supply?

A

Extension

Inferior gluteal nerve

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137
Q

Movement of Gluteus Medius

A

Abduction

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138
Q

Action of Adductor Magnus

A

Adduction

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139
Q

Action of Gluteus Minimus and Tensor Fascia Lata

Nerve supply of Gluteus Minimus?

A

Medial rotator

Superior Gluteal Nerve

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140
Q

Movement of Obturator Internus

A

Lateral rotator

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141
Q

Movement of Iliopsoas

A

Flexion

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142
Q

Most common cause of sciatic nerve injury

A

Intragluteal Injection

Upper outer quadrant = avoid!!

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143
Q

7 bones of the orbit

A

Frontal
Lacrimal
Ethmoidal
Zygomatic
Maxillary
Sphenoidal
Palatine

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144
Q

Fracture of the walls or floor of the orbit

A

Blow out fracture

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145
Q

Opacification in xray
Periorbital fat and possibly an entrapped extraocular muscle in the maxilary sinus

A

Teardrop sign

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146
Q

Pan-faced deformity in Lefort
Craniofacial dysjunction
High level fractures

A

Lefort III

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147
Q

Transverse maxillary fractures
Low level
Guerin type fracture
Floating fracture

A

Le fort I fracture

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148
Q

Pyramidal fractures
Separates maxilla from the face

A

Le fort II

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149
Q

Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures
Including lateral orbital wall, inferior orbital floor
Zygomatic arche
**widening of zygomatico frontal suture

A

Tripod/ malar fractures

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150
Q

Most common part of the mandible fractures

A

Condylar process

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151
Q

The misalignment of teeth and jaws or more simple a bad bite

A

Malocclision

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152
Q

Layers of the skin

A

Epidermins - thin outer layer
Dermis/ corium - thick underlying layer
Hypodermis - fatty layer

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153
Q

Layers of the Epidermis

A

From basal lamina to free surface:
- S. Germinativum/ basale
- S. Spinosum
- S. Granulosum
- S. Lucidum
- S. Corneum

Carlos Loves Girls in String Bikinis

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154
Q

Most abundant cells in the epidermis

A

Keratinocytes

Contains keratin

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155
Q

Cells located in the basal cell layer

A
  • Melanocytes
  • Merkel cells / merkel ranvier (tactile epithelial cell for light touch)
  • Basal cells
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156
Q

Outermost layer of the epidermis

A

Stratum corneum

W/ mostly DEAD CELLS filled with KERATIN

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157
Q

The “horn layer” of the epithelium
Water resistant
Shed and replaced every 2 weeks

A

Stratum corneum

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158
Q

The formation of layer of dead, protective cells filled with keratin

Occurs in all exposed skin except EYES

A

Keratinization

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159
Q

Translucent skin layer
“Clear layer”
May not exist in thinner skin
Dead layer
Covers s. granulosum

A

Stratum Lucidum

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160
Q

1 or more layers of cells starting to die and become hard. Keratinization…. becoming FIBROUS PROTEIN similar to that in HAIR and NAILS

A

Stratum granulosum

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161
Q

Layer capable of CELL DIVISION
Innermost layer of epidermis
Contains MELANIN

A

Stratum germinativum/ basale

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162
Q

The “Grainy layer”
Stops dividing, starts producing:
- Keratin (tough, fibrous, hair and nails)
- Keratohyalin (dense granules-lipids, crosslinking fibers)

A

Stratum Granulosum

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163
Q

Keratohyaline contains

A

Histidine and cysteine rich proteins with lipids

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164
Q

The “Spiny layer”
8-10 layers of keratinocytes bound by desmosomes
Cells shrink until cytoskeletons stick out (spiny)

A

Startum Spinosum

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165
Q

Prevent epidermal cells from separating

A

Desmosomes or Macula Adherens

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166
Q

Strengten attachment to basal lamina

A

Hemidesmosomes

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167
Q

Blistering skin disease
Autoimmune disease
Targets the DESMOGLEIN of desmosomes

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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168
Q

Where are the LANGERHANS CELLS located

A

Stratum Spinosum

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169
Q

Deepest layer of epidermis
Layer closest to blood supply

A

Stratum Germinativum/ basale

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170
Q

Most common acquired disease of hemidesmosomes
Basal Lamina

A

Bullous pemphigoid

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171
Q

Structures of stratum germinativum

A

Epidermal ridges (fingerprint)
Dermal papillae (tiny mounds)

4-6 months fully developed fingerprints!

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172
Q

Caused by staph aureus
Exfoliatin
Splitting of the skin

A

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)

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173
Q

Honey crusted lesion

A

Impetigo
(Strep pyogenes)

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174
Q

Most severe form of SSSS

A

Ritter’s Disease

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175
Q

Lyell’s disease

A

TEN (Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis)

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176
Q

Gives the skin the orange-yellow pigment
Can be converted to Vit A

A

Carotene

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177
Q

Yellow brown or black pigment
Produced by melanocytes in s germinativum
Stored in MELANOSOMES

A

Melanin

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178
Q

Defective excision repair which leads to production of thymidine dimers

A

Xeroderma Pigmentosum (XP)

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179
Q

Loss of melanocytes (autoimmune, neurohumoral, or self destruction of melanocytes)

A

Vitiligo

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180
Q

Absence of melanin pigment in melanocytes (lack of defect in tyrosinase)

A

Albinism

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181
Q

Macules in lightly pigmented individuals, increased pigment in basal keratinocytes

A

Freckles

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182
Q

Mask-like zone of facial hyperpigmentation due to enhanced pigment transfer to basal keratinocytes or dermal macrophages

A

Melasma

Causes:
OCP
Pregnancy
Thyroid disorder
Endocrine disorder

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183
Q

Localized hyperplasia of melanocytes, often seen in infancy and childhood

A

Lentigo

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184
Q

Bluish tint of skinsevere reduction in blood flow or oxygenation

A

Cyanosis

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185
Q

Icteric sclerae
2-3mg/dl
Yellow color

A

Jaundice

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186
Q

Most active form of vitamin D

A

1,25 dihydroxycholecalceferol

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187
Q

Powerful peptide growth factor used to grow SKIN GRAFTS. Produced by salivary and duodenum

A

Epidermal Growth factor (EGF)

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188
Q

Has 5 layers keratinocytes
Covers palms of hand and soles of feet

A

Thick skin

189
Q

Thickest of the layers
Store water and nutrients. Regulate body temp

A

Dermis

190
Q

Hypermobility of joints
Elastic but fragile skin

A

Elher’s danlos syndrome

191
Q

Rodent ulcer

A

Basal cell CA

192
Q

Dysplastic nevus

A

Melanoma
MC type: superficial spreading
2 classifications for prognosis:
- Clark and Breslow classification

193
Q

Thickened tissue resulting from excessive stretching of skin due to pregnancy and weight gain

A

Stretch mark

194
Q

Lines of cleavage

A

Langer’s lines

195
Q

Components of the Dermis

A

Outer papillary layer
Deep reticular layer

196
Q

Consist of areolar tissue
Has DERMAL PAPILLAE projecting between epidermal ridges
Supplies nutrient filled blood

A

Papillary layer

197
Q

Provides structure and elasticity
Supports component of skin

A

Reticular layer

198
Q

AKA subcutis or subcutaneous layer
Innermost network of fat and collage
Location of hypodermic injections

A

Hypodermis

199
Q

Found in deep dermis and wrapped around a dense connective tissue sheath
Base surrounded by sensory nerves (root hair plexus)0

A

Hair follicle

200
Q

Smooth muscle responsible for raising of hair (goosebumps)

A

Arrector pili muscle

201
Q

Oil gland
Holocrine glands
Secretes SEBUM

A

Sebaceous glands

202
Q

Merocrine gland - exocytosis
Watery secretion

A

Sweat gland

203
Q

Sweat glands in armpits, around nipples and groin

A

Apocrine

204
Q

Widely distributed sweat glands on body surface especially on palms or soles

A

Merocrine/ eccrine glands

Coiled tubular glands

205
Q

Excessive sweating

A

Hyperhidrosis

206
Q

Most common mintracranial tumor in adults

A

Metastatic

207
Q

Most common PRIMARY intracranial tumor in adults

A

Gliomas/ Glioblastoma Multiforme (GBM)

**Astrocytoma is under glioma

208
Q

Most common brain tumor in children

A

Medulloblastoma

209
Q

Most common pituitary gland tumor in adults

A

Prolactinoma

(From Ant. Pit)

210
Q

Most common pituitary gland tumor in children

A

Craniopharyngeoma

211
Q

Amenorrhea
Galactorrhea
Infertility
Hypogonadism

Dx?

A

Prolactinoma

212
Q

Dopamine receptor agonist
DOC in pituitary adenoma

A

Bromocriptine

213
Q

Machine-oil like fluid

A

Craniopharyngeoma

214
Q
  • limited upward gaze
  • accomodative spasm
  • light near dissociation of pupils
A

Parinaud syndrome

215
Q

Papilledema
Optic atrophy
Anosmia

A

Foster kennedy syndrome

216
Q

Most common BENIGN PRIMARY brain tumor

A

Meningioma

“Dural tail of meningioma”
arachnoid layer

217
Q

Anosmia
Hypogonadism

Dx?

A

Kallman syndrome

218
Q

Meningioma
Schwanoma (CN 8)

A

Neurofibromatosis 2

219
Q

Sudden monocular blindness — few minutes thengo back to normal

A

Amaurosis fugax

warning sign of stroke
occlusion of ophthalmic artery

220
Q

Most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Ruptured berry aneurysm

“Thunderclap headache”

221
Q

Most common solid renal tumor

A

Renal cell tumor

222
Q

Most common solid renal tumor of childhood

A

Wilms tumor

223
Q

Triad:
Flank pain
Hematuria
Palpable mass

A

Renal cell carcinoma

224
Q

Most common benign bone tumor in children

A

Osteochondroma

225
Q

Most common primary malignant bone tumor

A

Multiple myeloma

226
Q

C3C4C5 keeps me alive!

A

Phrenic nerve

227
Q

Caval opening is at??

A

T8

228
Q

Esophageal opening is at?

A

T10

229
Q

Aortic hiatus is at??

A

T12

230
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia: location of Bochdaleck hernia

A

“Back to the Left” — posterolateral (left)

231
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia:
Location of Morgagni hernia

A

moRgagni = Right

232
Q

SVC syndrome positive to what test?

A

Pemberton sign

(Raise both hands = facial plethora)

233
Q

Radiating pain on the tip of the left shoulder

A

+ kehr sign

= splenic rupture

234
Q

Distended neck veins
Muffled heart sound
Hypotension

A

Beck’s triad

=»> Pericardiocentesis

235
Q

Surfactant starts at?

A

20-24 weeks (Nelson)

236
Q

Pulmonary embolism:
Hampton hump

A

Wedge shaped density

237
Q

Pulmonary embolism:
Westermark sign

A

Focal oligemia

238
Q

Pulmonary embolism:
Palla sign

A

Enlarged right pulmonary artery

239
Q

Tumor of the apex of the lung

A

Pancoast tumor (superior sulcus tumor)
(+) horner syndrome

240
Q

Volume of pericardial fluid

A

50ml (snell)

241
Q

Functional closure of Ductus arteriosus

A

Immediately —— 100% closure at 96hrs (moore)

242
Q

Anatomic closure of ductus arteriosus

A

1 to 3 months

243
Q

Pharmacologic closure of ductus arteriosus

A

Indomethacin of Ibuprofen

244
Q

Murmur of Patent ductus arteriosus

A

Machinery-like

245
Q

Functional closure of Foramen Ovale

A

Immediately!

246
Q

Anatomic closure of Foramen Ovale

A

1 year

247
Q

Auscultation areas

A

Mitral (bicuspid) valve - L 5th ICS
Tricuspid valve - 4th ICS to L of sternum
Pulmonary valve - 2nd ICS to L of sternum
Aortic valve - 2nd ICS to the R of sternum

248
Q

Continuous machinery like murmur

A

PDA

249
Q

Opening snap

A

MS

250
Q

Midsystolic click

A

MVP

251
Q

Pistol-shot murmur
Austin Flint murmur

A

AR

252
Q

Tachycardia + Hypertension in anterior wall MI

What reflex?

A

James reflex

253
Q

Bradycardia + Hypotension in inferior wall or posterior wall MI

What reflex?

A

Jarisch Bezold Reflex

254
Q

_____ supplies the anterior wall of the heart

A

Left anterior descending (LAD)

255
Q

____ supplies the inferior wall, posterior wall, right ventricle and SA node

A

Right coronary artery

256
Q

Smallest cardiac vein

A

Thebesian vein
—abundant in Right Atrium

257
Q

Pacemaker of the heart

A

SA node

258
Q

Fastest conduction of the heart

A

Purkinje fibers

259
Q

Slowest velocity in heart conduction system

A

AV node

260
Q

AV node is located within what triangle?

A

Triangle of Koch

-septal leaflet of tricuspid valve
-opening of coronary sinus
-tendon of TODARO (in RA)

261
Q

Inguinal canal boundaries
Clue: M-A-L-T

A

Roof- 2M (muscle) - Internal Oblique & Transversus Abdominis

Ant Wall - 2A (aponeurosis) - External and Internal Oblique Aponeurosis

Floor - 2L (ligaments) - Inguinal & Lacunar

Post Wall - 2T - Transversalis fascia & Conjoint Tendon

262
Q

Bag of worms

A

Varicocele
MC on the left side

263
Q

Torsion due to poor gubernacular fixation

A

Bell clapper deformity

264
Q

Processus vaginalis in females

A

Canal of Nuck

265
Q

Boundaries of Hesselbach/Inguinal triangle

A

Inferior Epigastric Vessels
Rectus abdominis muscle
Inguinal ligament

266
Q

MC type of hernia

A

Indirect hernia

267
Q

MC type of hernia in females

A

Indirect hernia

268
Q

Co-existing direct and indirect hernia

A

Pantaloon hernia

269
Q

When the appendix is trapped within an inguinal hernia

A

Amyand hernia

270
Q

The only natural communication between the greater peritoneal cavity and the lesser sac

A

Epiploic foramen of Winslow

271
Q

Compression of the hepatoduodenal ligament

A

Pringle maneuver

272
Q

Most dependent portion of the abdominal cavity in the SUPINE position

A

Morrison pouch aka hepatorenal recess

273
Q

Most dependent area in the UPRIGHT position

A

Cul-de-sac of Douglas aka Rectouterine pouch

274
Q

Most common esophageal diverticulim

A

Zenker diverticulum

275
Q

Normal resting pressure in upper esophageal sphincter (anatomic sphincter)

A

50-70 mmHg

276
Q

Lower esophageal sphincter (functional sphincetr) pressure

A

10-20mmHg

277
Q

Gold standard in diagnosis of GERD

A

24hr pH monitoring

278
Q

Most effective surgical treatment for GERD

A

Nissen Fundoplication

279
Q

Bird’s beak

A

Achalasia

280
Q

Achalasia triad

A

Hypertensive LES
Aperistalsis of Esophageal body
Failure of LES to relax

281
Q

Treatment of achalasia

A

Heller’s myotomy +/- partial fundoplication

282
Q

Cork screw esophagus

A

Diffuse esophageal spasm

283
Q

Most common site of zenker diverticulum

A

Killian’s triangle

284
Q

Most common site of esophageal perforations

A

Killian’s triangle

285
Q

Failure of LES to relax due to abnormality of the auerbach plexus

A

Achalasia

286
Q

Most common benign tumor of the esophagus

A

Leiomyomas

287
Q

Columnar metaplasia of esophageal squamous epithelium

A

Barrett’s esophagus

288
Q

Hallmark of intestinal metaplasia

A

Intestinal goblet cell

289
Q

Linear lacerations of esophagus due to strong retching

A

Mallory weis tear

290
Q

Spontaneous pressure rupture of esophagus in the left pleural cavity or just above the gastoesophageal junction with pain as the most striking and consistent symptom

A

Boerhaave’s syndrome

291
Q

A bulge of posterior pharyngeal wall that meets the soft palate

A

Passavant’s ridge

292
Q

A ring of tissue that forms inside the esophagus, the tube that carries food and liquid to stomachs

A

Schatzki’s ring

293
Q

Squamous cell CA
Esophageal webs
Atrophic glossitis
Iron deficiency anemia

A

Plummer vinson syndrome aka Patterson-Brown-Kelly syndrome

294
Q

Esophageal carcinoma treatment where they avoid thoracotomy and results to less morbidity

A

Orringer’s procedure aka TransHiatal Esophagectomy

The more invasive is Ivor Lewis procedure or transthoracic esophagectomy

295
Q

Projectile, non-billous vomiting
Palpable olive in epigastrium
Dx?

A

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

296
Q

Surgery for pyloric stenosis

A

Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

297
Q

Persistence of the vitelline duct, which is also a true diverticulum

A

Meckel diverticulum

298
Q

Rule of 2s in Meckel diverticulum

A

2% of population
2 year old
2 inches long
2 feet from ileocecal valve
2 types of heterotropic tissue (gastric &/ pancreatic)

299
Q

Most common congenital anomaly of GI tract

A

Meckel diverticulum

300
Q

Hernia containing the meckel’s diverticula

A

Littre hernia

Strangulation and necrosis can occur in the absence of intestinal obstruction

301
Q

Hernia contains antimesenteric border of bowel

A

Richter hernia

302
Q

Hernia contains 2 adjacent loops of small intestine

A

Maydl’s hernia

303
Q

Hernia contains the appendix

A

Amyand’s hernia

304
Q

Superior lumbar triangle hernia

A

Grynfeltt-Lessahft hernia

305
Q

Inferior lumbar triangle hernia

A

Petit hernia

306
Q

Coffee / kidney bean sign

A

Sigmoid volvulus

307
Q

Target / donut sign

A

Intussusception

308
Q

Double bubble sign

A

Duodenal atresia

309
Q

Most common cause of intestinal obstruction during pregnancy

A

Volvulus

310
Q

Currant jelly stool

A

Intussusception

311
Q

Sigmoidoscopy length reaching the rectal ampulla

A

1.5 inches

312
Q

Sigmoidoscopy length reaching the sigmoid colon

A

6.5inches

313
Q

Direct, short connection between IMA and SMA at the base of the mesentery

A

Arc of Riolan aka
Meandering mesenteric artery

314
Q

Connection of the IMA and SMA found along the mesenteric border

A

Marginal artery of Drummond

315
Q

MC site of volvulus

A

Sigmoid colon

316
Q

Most common site of diverticulosis

A

Sigmoid colon

317
Q

Anatomic division of liver

A

Falciform ligament

318
Q

Physiologic division of the liver

Divides the liver using a plane from the gallbladder to the IVC

A

Cantlie line

319
Q

Ventral pancreatic duct abnormally encircles the 2nd part of the duodenum

A

Annular pancreas

2nd MC congenital pancreatic anomaly

320
Q

Most common congenital pancreatic anomaly
Failure of fussion of the ventral and dorsal ducts

A

Pancreas divisum

Associated with pancreatitis

321
Q

Grey turner sign

A

Flank discolration

Severe acute pancreattits

322
Q

Umbilical discoloration

A

Cullen sign

323
Q

Triad:
Gastrin over secretion
Pancreatic or duodenal ulcers
Peptic ulcer

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

324
Q

Gastrinoma (Passaro) triangle boundaries

A

Junction of cystic and CBD
Junction of 2nd and 3rd part duodenum
Junction of neck and body of pancreas

325
Q

Pancreaticoduodenectomy

Procedure to remove the entire tumor in the head or neck of the pancreas

A

Whipple procedure

326
Q

Anastomoses in whipple procedure

A

PancreaticoJejunostomy
HepaticoJejunostomy
GastroJejunostomy

327
Q

Weight loss
Hyperpigmentation
Infection with Tropheryma whippeli
Positive PAS granules in macrophage
Poly arthritis
Lymphadenopathy
Steatorrhea

A

Whipple disease

328
Q

Whipple triad

A

Low blood glucose
Symptoms of hypoglycemia
Relief of symptoms after glucose intake

329
Q

Most common cause of endogenous hyperinsulinemia

A

Insulinoma
—hyper production of insulin

330
Q

Spleen sizesssss

A

Size - 1 x 3 x 5”
7 oz
Between ribs 9 and 11

“Spleen is a very ODD organ”

331
Q

Most common inherited hemolytic anemia

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

332
Q

Mutation in spectrin
Diagnosis by Osmotic Fragility Test
Treatment is Splenectomy

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

333
Q

Organisms responsible for Overwhelming Post-Splenectomy Infection (OPSI)

A

S. Pneumonia (80%)
Meningococcus
H. Influenza type B (HiB)

334
Q

Encapsules adrenal gland and kidney

A

Gerota’s fascia

335
Q

A rare vein compression disorder where the abdomina aorta and SMA compresses the Left Renal vein

A

Nutcracker syndrome

336
Q

Most common fusion anomaly of the kidney

A

Horseshoe kidney

Becomes entrapped behind the IMA

337
Q

Dilatation of the pampiniform plexus of the spermatic cord results to….

A

Varicocele

338
Q

Palpitation
Headache
Excessive sweating

A

Pheochromocytoma

339
Q

Pheochromocytoma rule of 10

A

10% extra- adrenal
10% malignant
10% bilateral
10% in children
10% familial
10% recurr
10% discovered incidentally

340
Q

How to diagnose pheochromocytoma?
Tx?

A

Diagnosis: Vanillymandelic Acid (VMA)
Tx: PHEnoxybenzamine pre-op

341
Q

Most common extra adrenal site of pheochromocytoma

A

Organ of Zuckerkandl
— derived from neural crest cells

342
Q

Blood supply of ureters

A

Upper - Renal A.
Middle - Gonadal A.
Lower - Superior Vesical A.

343
Q

Constrictions of ureter

A

Ureteropelvic junction
External iliac A. &/ pelvic brim
Bladder wall

344
Q

Compression of the 3rd part of duodenum by the Superior Mesenteric Artery

A

Superior Mesenteric Artery Syndrome

345
Q

Most common site of aneurysm

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)

346
Q

Most important risk factor of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

A

Atherosclerosis

347
Q

Hepatic portal system

A

Portal vein = SMV + Splenic vein
—— behind the neck of the pancreas

—- drain the lower 1/3 of esophagus to upper 1/2 of anal canal

348
Q

Tributaries of Splenic Vein (“SLIP”)

A

Short gastric V.
Left gastroepiploic V.
IMV
Pancreatic V.

349
Q

What are the primary (fetal) curvatures of the vertebral column?

A

Thoracic
Sacral

350
Q

What are the secondary curvatures of vertebral column?

A

Cervical (from head lifting)
Lumbar (from acts like walking)

351
Q

Parts of vertebral column

A

Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
Coccyx

352
Q

Exagerated POSTERIOR curvature
Affects THORACIC vertebrae

A

Kyphosis

353
Q

Exagerated ANTERIOR curvature
Affects LUMBAR vertebrae

A

Lordosis

354
Q

Lateral deviation of the spine

A

Scoliosis

Dextroscoliosis – Right
Levoscoliosis – Left

355
Q

Vertebral canal contents

A

Spinal cord
Dorsal and ventral nerve roots
Meninges
Spinal nerve (located OUTside the vertebral canal and exit thru intervertebral foramen)

356
Q

Joint found between C1 and occipital condyles

“YES Joint”

A

Atlanto Occipital

(Oo joint)

357
Q

Joint found between C1 and C2

“No Joint”

A

Atlanto Axial joint

358
Q

Ligaments of vertebral column that contributed to its stability

A

Anterior and posterior longitudinal lig.
Ligamentum flavum
Interspinous lig.

359
Q

Congenital defect of the spine in which part of the spinal cord and its meninges are exposed through a gap in the backbone

Absent vertebral arch, covered by skin & tuft of hair

A

Spina bifida occulta

360
Q

Most common spondyloarthropathy

Inflammatory osteoarthritis

“BAMBOO SPINE” - ossification of annulus fibrosus leading to severe spine immobility

(+) HLA-B27
(+) sacroilitis

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

361
Q

Fish mouth vertebrae

A

Sickle cell anemia

Central depressions of vertebral body

362
Q

Bacterial infection within vertebral bodies

A

Osteomyelitis

363
Q

Most common cause of osteomyelitis in immunosuppressed and IV drug users

A

S. Aureus & P. Aeruginosa

364
Q

Most common cause of osteomyelitin in patients with sickle cell anemia

A

Salmonella typhi

365
Q

Intervertebral disk consists of:

A

Annulus fibrosus —- fibrocartilage
Nucleus pulposus —- remnant of notochord

366
Q

Spinal cord ends in what level in adults?

A

L1*** - L2

367
Q

Spinal cord ends in what level in newborn?

A

L3

368
Q

Largest radicular artery
Sensitive to injury, very close to aorta

A

Artery of Adamkiewics (Great Anterior Segmental Medullary)

369
Q

Fracture due to hyperflexion of the thoracic or lumbar region

Seat belt injury (lap seatbelt)

A

Chance fracture

370
Q

Damage or ligation of the great radicular artery of Adamkiewicz will result to?

A

Anterior Spinal Artery Syndrome
(Paraplegia, impotence, incontinence, loss of pain and temperature, with intact vibration and proprioception)

371
Q

How many spinal NERVES are present?

A

31 pairs

8 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
1 coccygeal

372
Q

Largest knee bursa
Always communicate with the knee joint

A

SupraPatellar Bursa

373
Q

Housemaid’s / Prostitute’s knee

A

PrePatellar Bursa

374
Q

Clergyman’s / Vicar’s knee

A

InfraPatellar Bursa

375
Q

The Lateral Collateral Ligament of the knee is separated from the lateral meniscus by the ??

A

Popliteus muscle

376
Q

Most common hemarthrosis

A

Rupture of ACL

377
Q

Unhappy triad of O’ Donoghue

A

MCL
ACL
Medial meniscus tear

378
Q

Maneuver for ACL tear

A

Lachman sign (Noulis test)
- stabilizing the femur while the tibia is pulled forward

379
Q

This may be a continuation of (Medial head) gastrocnemius or SEMIMEMBRANOSUS bursa, communicating with the synovial cavity of the knee joint

Aka Popliteal cyst

A

Baker’s cyst

380
Q

Lack of development of acetabulum and femur

A

Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
aka Congenital Dislocation of the hip

381
Q

Maneuver for developmental dysplasia of the hip where the examiner ADDUCTS the hip while applying a POSTERIOR force on the knee to promote DISLOCATION

A

Barlow maneuver

382
Q

Maneuver for developmental dysplasia of the hip where the examiner ABDUCTS the hip while applying ANTERIOR force on the femur to REDUCE the joint

A

Ortolani maneuver

383
Q

Avascular necrosis of a child’s femoral head due to disruption of blood supply (medial circumfle and obturator artery) to the head of femur

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

384
Q

Structures preventing patellar dislocation

A

Lower horizontal fibers of vastus medialis
Larger size of lateral femoral condyle

385
Q

Calcaneal bone fracture

A

Lover’s fracture / Don Juan fracture / Casanova fracture

386
Q

Most common fractured tarsal bone

A

Calcaneal fracture

387
Q

Most common site of tibial fracture

A

Between middle and inferior thirds

388
Q

A condition that causes pain and swelling. Below the knee joint, where the patellar tendon attaches to the top of shinbone (tibia) / tibial tuberosity

“Knobby knees”

disease affects the bottom (the distal end) of the tendon

A

Osgood Schlatter disease

389
Q

An injury to the top of the tendon (the proximal end).

Fragmentation of the inferior patellar pole

A

Sinding-Larsen-Johansson Syndrome

390
Q

Fracture of the distal third of one of the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th metatarsals occurring because of recurrent stress

Metatarsal fracture

A

March fracture

391
Q

Fracture of the proximal 5th metatarsal bone

A

Jones fracture/ Dancer’s fracture

392
Q

Most common site of compartment syndrome of the leg

A

Anterior compartment

393
Q

Early sign of compartment syndrome of the leg

A

Paresthesia between the 1st and 2nd toes

394
Q

“Freshman’s muscle”
Often missing

A

Plantaris muscle

395
Q

Muscle that unlocks the knee joint

A

Popliteus muscle

396
Q

What are the 3 Lateral Collateral Ligament of the ankle

A

Anterior Talofibular lig.
CalcaneoFibular lig.
Posterior Talofibular lig.

397
Q

Most common Lateral Collateral Ligament involved in ankle sprain

A

Anterior Talofibular lig.

398
Q

Midway between ASIS and pubic symphysis
What artery can you palpate?

A

Femoral artery

399
Q

Continuation of Femoral artery and will eventually divide into anterior and posterior Tibial artery

Goes out of the opening of adductor magnus then to the lower border of popliteus muscle

A

Popliteal artery

400
Q

Dorsal pedal pulse found between extensor hallucis longus & extensor digitorum tendons

A

Dorsalis Pedis Artery

401
Q

Deep tendon reflexes: S1-S2

A

Achilles tendon reflex

402
Q

Deep tendon reflexes: L3-L4

A

Patellar Tendon reflex

403
Q

Knee jerk reflex could be blocked by?

A

Femoral nerve damage
Segment L2, L3 to L4 spinal cord damage
Extension of the lower leg

404
Q

(+) Trendelenburg sign

A

Superior gluteal nerve injury

405
Q

disorder characterized by tingling, numbness, and burning pain in the outer side of the thigh

The disorder occurs when the LATERAL FEMORAL CUTANEOUS NERVE is compressed or squeezed by inguinal ligament as it exits the pelvis

A

Meralgia paresthetica

406
Q

most often occurs when a herniated disk or an overgrowth of bone puts pressure on part of the nerve

Affects S1, S2, S3, L4 and L5
(-) sensort below the knee EXCEPT the area supplied by SAPHENOUS nerve

A

Sciatic nerve injury

407
Q

Most common mononeuropathy of the LE

A

Common peroneal (fibular) nerve injury

408
Q

front of the foot might drag on the ground when walking

Steppage gait

foot to slap down onto the floor with each step. In some cases, the skin on the top of the foot and toes feels numb.

A

Foot drop
Common peroneal (fibular) nerve injury L5

409
Q

Ski boot syndrome

A

DEEP Peroneal (fibular) nerve injury

410
Q

Superficial peroneal (fibular) nerve injury

A

Rare
(-) motor lateral compartment

411
Q

All the muscles in the posterior leg and the sole of the foot are paralyzed.

A

Tibial nerve injury

412
Q

pain, burning or tingling in the bottom of your feet and toes

A

Tarsal tunnel syndrome

413
Q

Abnormal abduction ofhipduring ambulation resulting in a circumduction, wide-basedgait

Wasting of medial thigh

A

Obturator nerve injury

Hx of
Anterior dislocation of hip
Obturator hernia
Parturition

414
Q

Most common cause of sciatic nerve injury (snell)

A

Intragluteal injection
–UPPER OUTER quadrant of buttocks injection site of choice

415
Q

(+) Babinski sign indicates

A

Upper motor neuron lesion
Present until a child is 4y.o.

416
Q

Transmit weight of the body from vertebral column to pelvis

A

Sacroiliac joint

417
Q

Strongest sacroiliac joint

A

Interosseous

418
Q

What is the STRONGEST ligament in the body

A

IlioFemoral Ligament or Ligament of Bigelow

It limits the extension of hip joint

419
Q

Shape and insertion of Ileofemoral ligament of bigelow

A

Inverted Y or V

Base: Anteroinferior Iliac spine
Limbs: Upper and Lower part of Intertrochanteric line of femur

420
Q

Ligaments relaxed during pregnancy

A

Sacrococcygeal joint

421
Q

Maintains anorectal flexure - “sling”

A

Puborectalis muscle

422
Q

Smallest diameter of pelvic outlet

A

Intertuberous diameter

423
Q

Landmark for introducing catheter into ureter

A

Interureteric fold

424
Q

Most common type of bladder cancer

A

Transitional Cell CA

425
Q

Painless hematuria
Smoker
Aniline dyes

A

Transitional Cell Carcinoma

426
Q

What passes through the Greater Sciatic Foramen?

A

Piriformis muscle

427
Q

What passes through the Lesser Sciatic Foramen?

A

Pudendal nerve
Internal Pudendal vein

428
Q

In piriformis syndrome, what nerves are affected causing buttocks pain after bicycling or rowing?

A

Sciatic nerve and pudendal nerve

429
Q

How to diagnose piriformis syndrome?

A

FAIR test (Flexion - Adduction - Internal Rotation) produces pain

430
Q

Gluteal muscles

“Gods Greatest Gift To People iS Outstanding IQ”

A

Gluteus maximus
Gluteus medius
Gluteus minimus
Tensor fascia latae
Piriformis
Superior gemellus
Obturator internus
Inferior gamellus
Quadratus femoris

431
Q

Gluteal muscle EXTENSOR and Lateral Rotator

A

Gluteus MAXimus

432
Q

Gluteal muscles ABDUCTORS and MEDIAL rotators

A

Gluteus MEDIUS
Gluteus MINIMUS
Tensor Fascia LATA

All other are lateral rotators

433
Q

Gluteal muscles innervated by SUPERIOR GLUTEAL nerve

A

Gluteus medius
Gluteus minimus
Tensor fascia lata

434
Q

Gluteal muscle innervated by INFERIOR GLUTEAL nerve

A

Gluteus MAXIMUS

435
Q

Only gluteal muscle innervated by OBTURATOR Nerve

A

OBTURATOR EXTERNUS

436
Q

The femur is pushed out of the socket in a backward direction. This leaves the lower leg in a fixed position, with the knee and foot rotated in toward the middle of the body

A

Posterior hip dislocation

437
Q

After a motor vehicular accident, a patient was found lying on the ground with the hip minimally flexed, leg externally rotated and markedly abducted

A

Anterior hip dislocation

438
Q

Hamstring muscles

A

SemiTendinosus
SemiMembranosus
Biceps Femoris

439
Q

Joins the ductus deferens to form the ejaculatory duct

Produces seminal fluid (prostaglandin, ascorbic acid, fructose and amino acids)

A

Seminal vesicle

440
Q

Sperm duct - 18 inches long

A

Vas deferens / ductus deferens

441
Q

Vas deferens + seminal vesicle

A

Ejaculatory duct

442
Q

Blood supply of prostate gland

A

INFerior VEsical artery
Middle REctal artery

443
Q

Homologue of uterus and proximal vagina

A

Prostatic utricle

444
Q

Semen contained in…?

A

Seminal vesicle - 60%
Prostate gland - 30%
Vas deferens - 10%
Small amount from bulbourethral gland

445
Q

Semen pH and lifespan and temp and volume?

A

pH 7.5
Lifespan 1 to 2 days
2 C° below internal temp
3.5mL (120mil sperm/mL) — normal fertility = >20 mil sperm/mL

446
Q

Median lobe of the prostate gland enlarges, resulting in obstruction of the internal urethral orifice

A

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

447
Q

Most common site of prostate cancer

A

Peripheral or posterior zone

448
Q

Corresponds to the prostate in males

Paraurethral glands

A

Skene gland / Lesser vestibular gland

449
Q

Longest segment of fallopian tube

A

Ampulla

450
Q

Most common site of fertilization

A

Ampulla of fallopian tube

451
Q

Narrowest part of the fallopian tube

A

Isthmus

452
Q

Most important ligament supporting uterus and vagina

A

Cardinal ligament of Mackenrodt / Transverse Cervical Ligament

453
Q

Dark bluish or purplish-red vagina and cervix
Increased vascularity
8weeks

A

Chadwick/ jacquimier sign

454
Q

Softening of the isthmus
6 to 8 weeks

A

Hagar sign

455
Q

Softening of cervix
6 weeks

A

Goodell sign

456
Q

Branches of Posterior division of Internal ILiac artery

“SILL”

A

Superior Gluteal a
ILiolumbar a
Lateral Sacral a

457
Q

What are the contents of Pudendal (Alcock) canal?

A

Pudendal nerve
Internal Pudendal Vessels

458
Q

Partial failure of fusion of mullerian ducts

2 uterine horns (1 uterus)
1 or 2 cervix

A

Bicornuate uterus

459
Q

Complete failure of fusion of mullerian ducts
2 uterus
2 cervices

A

Uterine didephysis

460
Q

Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome
(-) uterus
(-) cervix

A

Mullerian duct agenesis

461
Q

MC cause is Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
46XX
Musculinization of female genitalia

A

Female pseudohermaphroditism

462
Q

46XY
Stunted develpoment of male exteranal genetalia
MC cause is 5-a reductase deficiency which lowers DHT

A

Male pseudohermaphrodism

463
Q

MC cause is mutation in the androgen receptor (male pseudohermaphrodism)
46XY
Normal appearing females
Testis may be in labia major

A

Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

464
Q

Disruption of auriculotemporal nerve during parotid surgery and subsequent cross-reinnervation with branches of sympathetic supply to the skin results in

A

Frey’s syndrome (post-op gustatory sweating)

465
Q

Hx shoveling snow
Acute onset of severe low back pain
Bilateral weakness of feet on dorsiflexion
Loss of sensation on inner thigh and perineal region
Distended bladder
Dx?

A

Cauda equina syndrome

466
Q

Infant
Subdural hematoma
Retinal hemorrhages

A

Shaken baby syndrome

467
Q

Reflex affected by L5-S1 herniated disc

A

The ankle jerk

468
Q

Level can a patient with normal reflexes, diminish grip strength, and numbness over the 4th and 5th digits be expected to have a herniated disc

A

C7 - T1

469
Q

MC cause of chance fracture

A

High lap belt worn during MVA

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