Anatomy Flashcards
What do superficial and deep mean?
Closer or further from the body surface.
What do external and internal mean?
Closer or further from the bodies/organs centre.
What is the underside of the tongue called?
The ventral surface.
What is the anterior surface of the wrist called?
Volar surface.
What is the name for 3d circular movement at a joint?
Circumduction.
What is a useful rule to remember about flexion and extension movements?
All anterior movements superior to the knee joint are flexions. All anterior movements below the knee are extensions.
What do flexion and extension mean?
Flexion is decreasing the angle between the bones at a joint and extension is the opposite.
What are the terms for rotating the sole of the foot towards and away from the midline of the body?
Towards the midline = inversion.
Away from the midline = eversion.
What is it called when we bring the thumb and pinky together across the palm?
Opposition of the digits. Putting them back to normal is reposition.
What is abduction of the digits?
Spreading the fingers. Adduction is bringing them back together.
What way does the thumb move when it is abducted?
Anterior my from the anatomical position. Adduction is putting it back to normal.
What are the terms for moving the shoulders up and down?
Elevation and depression, can also be used for the tongue etc.
What are the terms for the forward and backwards movements of the jaw or shoulders?
Protraction (anterior).
Retraction (posterior).
How often do skin cells shed?
Every three months.
How long do red blood cells survive?
120 days.
What is the integumentary system?
The skin and mucosa.
Where are some discrete areas of lymphatic tissue in the body?
Tonsils, spleen and the GI tract.
What different joint types are there?
Fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial.
What subtypes of fibrous joint do we have, with examples?
Sutures e.g. Fontanelles.
Syndesmoses (fibrous sheets) e.g. Interosseus membrane between the radius and ulnar.
What are the subtypes of cartilaginous joints, with examples?
Primary- Epiphyseal growth plate (hyaline cartilage) and secondary - symphyses e.g. Intervertebral discs.
What is extension of the thumb?
Extending it out in the coronal plane. Flexion is putting it across the palm.
What is the structure of an intervertebral disc?
Outer anulus fibrosis (fibrocartilage) and inner soft nucleus pulposus (like the pulp inside teeth - up to 90% water in young people).
What are the 8 typical features of a synovial joint?
- Two or more bones articulating.
- Hyaline cartilage at articulations surfaces.
- A capsule.
- A joint cavity.
- Supported by ligaments.
- Associated with skeletal muscle and tendons.
- Associated with bursa.
- Often have special features.
What constitutes the synovial joint capsule?
A superficial strong fibrous layer and a deeper synovial membrane layer that secretes synovial fluid.
What does a ligament do?
Connects bone to bone.
What are tendons and what do they do?
Fibrous bands that connect skeletal muscle to bone. They insert into the bone lying either side of a joint.
What are the two types of bursa in a synovial joint? And what do they do?
Synovial fluid filled extensions of the capsule that are continuous with it.
Closed sacs, near but deprecate from the joint cavity.
They prevent friction around the joint during movement.
Where does the joint capsule attach?
To the edges of the bone articulatory surfaces.
What is contained inside a joint cavity and why?
Synovial fluid. It lubricates, acts as a shock absorber and has nutrients for hyaline cartilage.
What are the 5 subtypes of synovial joint and their movements? Give an example of each.
Pivot joints - superior part of the neck. 45deg movement.
Ball and socket - hip - good multi axial movement.
Plane joints - acromioclavicular - minimal movement in one plane.
Hinge joints - elbow - reasonable range of movement in one plane.
Biaxial - hands - reasonable range in one, less in another.
What is subluxation?
Reduced area of contact between articulations.
What is dislocation?
Complete loss of contact between articular surfaces.
What is relaxin and what does it do?
A placental hormone that relaxes the pubic symphysis during pregnancy.
What is the TMJ?
The synovial articulation between the mandibular fossa and articular tubercle of the temporal bone superiorly and the head of the condylar process inferiority.
What are the special features of the TMJ?
The superior articular cavity, the inferior articular cavity and the articulating disc.
What happens when the TMJ dislocates?
The head of the condylar process of the mandible becomes stuck anterior to the articular tubercle of the temporal bone. The patient cannot close their mouth.
What kind of nerves supply joints?
Sensory nerves that can feel: pain, touch, temperature, proprioception (joint position sense).
How many bones are their in the adult?
206.
What are the sections of a bone starting from the top and working down?
Epiphysis, Epiphyseal growth plates, metaphysis, diaphysis then m, egp and e again.
What are the layers of bone?
Outer cortex made of heavy dense compact (cortical) bone.
Inner medulla made of spongy, porous weak spongy (trabecular/cancellous) bone.
Medulla may contain bone marrow.
What vessels does the periosteum house?
Periosteal arteries, sensory nerves, a nutrient vein and a nutrient artery cross the membrane to feed the medulla. Also has lymphatic vessels.
What part of the skull is superior to the skull base?
Bones of the cranial vault, the neurocranium.
What part of the skull is below the base of skull line?
The viscerocranium or facial bones.
What are the nose bones called?
The nasal bones.
What are the cheekbones called?
The zygomatic bones.
What are the top and bottom jaw bones called?
The maxilla and mandible.
Name the vertebrae sections and the numbers of each?
7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 4 coccygeal. 33 in total.
What happens to the relative size of the vertebra in the spine?
Becomes larger from head to sacrum as weight bearing is increased. Then reduces in size after weight is transferred to the hip bones at the sacrum.
Where are the intervertebral foramen? And what is their purpose?
Between the facet joints and the vertebral body and discs. The protect spinal nerves joining with the spine.
What are C1 and C2 called? And what is special about them?
C1 = atlas. Has no body or spinous process instead it has anterior and posterior arches. C2 = axis. Has stolen C1's body for an Odontoid process (peg).
What special features do the cervical vertebrae have?
All have a foramina in their transverse process.
What is the first readily palpable vertebrae in the neck?
C7 spinous process, called the vertebra prominens.
What rib is least likely to fracture and why?
The first rib, as it is protected by the clavicle.
How many pairs of ribs do we have and what are the different sections called?
12 pairs.
True ribs- 1 to 6. Attach via costal cartilages to the sternum.
False ribs 7-10. Attach via costal cartilage above to the sternum.
Floating ribs 11 and 12. No attachment.
What are the categories of bones in the hand,
Carpals - wrist bones.
Metacarpals - Palm.
Phalanges -fingers.
What blood vessel structures are commonly found around joints?
Peri articular arterial anastomoses.
Where is the superior mediastinum?
From the angle of the sternum and above.
Where is the anterior mediastinum?
Below the angle of the sternum, above the diaphragm in front of the heart.
Where is the posterior mediastinum?
From the bottom of t4 downwards, behind the heart and above the diaphragm.
Describe the pericardium.
3 layers. Outer fibrous pericardium. Inner serous pericardium in two layers. The visceral and the parietal.
What are the first branches of the aorta?
The coronary arteries.
What is another name for the apex of the heart?
The chin.
What forms the anterior surface of the heart?
Mainly the right ventricle.
What forms the base of the heart?
Opposite from the apex. Is the posterior surface and is formed from both atria.
What are the three layers of the heart muscle?
Epicardium (visceral pericardium), myocardium and endocardium.
What forms the inferior surface of the heart?
It is formed from both ventricles and sits on top of the diaphragm.
What are the heart edges called and what structures form them?
Left lateral border (left ventricle), the right border (right atrium) and the inferior surface.
Where is the AV node situated?
In the interatrial septum.
How does the cardiac impulse move from atria to ventricles?
via the atrioventricular bundle in the crux of the heart. The down the left and right bundle branches in the interventricular septum and around the purkinje/conducting fibres.
What is the crux of the heart?
The junction of all four chambers inside the heart.
What restricts the spread of cardiac impulse between the atria and ventricles and what does it consist of?
The fibrous part of the septum.
The fibrous rings of the cardiac valves.
The crux of the heart.
What is the cardiac plexus?
A mixture of nerves that supplies the heart. Sensory and motor nerves.
Describe 7 different types of skeletal muscle.
Flat muscle with aponeurosis (abdominal), fusiform (bicep), pennate (feathered muscles), quadrate and circular or sphincteral muscle.
What are aponeurosis?
flattened tendon, most commonly associated with flat muscles. They attach from muscle to short tissue.
How do muscles attach to bones?
The origin - on one side of a joint. The insertion on the other side of a joint. Contraction brings them closer together.
Describe the origins and insertions of the biceps brachii.
2 origins, both on the scapula. one insertion on the radius.
Describe the origins and insertions of the deltoid muscle.
Three origins - one on the spine of the scapula, one on the acromiun process of the scapula and one on the lateral third of the clavicle. It has its insertion on the the deltiod tuberosity of the humerus.
Describe the fibres of the deltiod muscle.
Posterior firbes cause extension of the shoulder. Middle fibres cause abduction of the shoulder and anterior fibres cause flexion of the shoulder.
What are the two main skeletal muscle reflexes?
The stretch reflex and the flexion withdrawal reflex.
What is the flexion withdrawal reflex?
occurs when we touch something damaging e.g. hot. Makes a sudden flexion movement to withdrawal from the danger. Doesnt involve the brain, just the reflex arc.
What are the different deep tendon reflexes?
biceps jerk, triceps jerk, knee jerk and ankle jerk.
What kind of reflex is a deep tendon reflex?
a stretch reflex.
What happens to the muscle during the deep tendon reflex test?
the muscle belly should twitch causing contraction and a movement in the normal direction
Describe the stretch reflex arc?
Sensory muscle detects the stretch, and send a signal to the spinal cord, descending controls damp down overly brisk reflexes. The signal is transferred via a synapse to a motor nerve which causes the twitch.
What does a normal stretch reflex tell us?
That a list of things are working normally: the muscle the sensory and motor nerves, the spinal cord connections between the two, the NMJ and the descending controls.
Where does skeletal muscle turn to smooth muscle and back again in the alimentary canal?
The trachea and the middle third of the oesophagus. At the bottom its the lower part of the urinary tract and the lower part of the anal canal and anus.
What is the pelvic floor?
The internal wall of skeletal muscle that separates the pelvic cavity above from the perineum below. Otherwise called the pelvic diaphragm. Sits right below the bladder.
Where is the perineum?
The area inferior to the pelvic floor that lies between the proximal parts of the lower limbs.
What is the function of the pelvic floor?
allows the distal ends of the alimentary, renal and reproductive tracts to pass from the pelvic cavity to the perineum.
What is the pouch of Douglas?
The rectouterine pouch. It is the most inferior part of the peritoneal cavity and is a pouch of peritoneum. Any abnormal fluid in the peritoneum will gather here when in the upright position.
What is the vesico-uterine pouch?
it is between the bladder and the uterus. Formed from the pelvic roof/peritoneal cavity.
What is the anatomical position of the penis?
erect. so the underside is the anterior side.
What happens to the testis during embryological development?
They descend from their original position on the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity to the scrotum. The vas deferens follows them down. Via the inguinal canal.
What is the function of the dartos muscle?
It is a smooth muscle in the superficial fascia of the scrotum that contracts to wrinkle and thicken the scrotum, to decrease surface area and loss of heat, when temps drop.
Describe the journey sperm take to leave the body?
Made in the seminiferous tubules, pass into the rete testes, then into the head of the epididymis, which then turns into the vas deferens and then into the urethra (prostatic and spongy).
What does the spermatic cord contain?
The vas deferens, testicular artery and the pampiniform venous plexus. ( artery and veins deliver and take blood from the testis)
What is the inguinal canal?
A passageway through the abdominal wall for the vas deferens.
What comprises the upper respiratory tract?
nasal cavities, oral cavity, pharynx and the larynx.
What comprises the lower respiratory tract?
The respiratory tree. trachea, main bronchi, lobar bronchi, segmental bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli.
What happens at the level of the C6 vertebrae?
The larynx becomes the trachea and the pharynx becomes the oesophagus.
How many bronchopulmonary segments does each lung have?
10, each supplied by a segmental bronchi.
What are pulmonary fissures?
The deep crevices that separate the lobes from each other.
What vessels go to each bronchopulmonary lobe?
segmental bronchi, blood supply, lymphatic drainage and nerves.
How thick are bronchioles?
less than 1mm in diameter.
What parts of the respiratory tree do and do not contain cartilage?
The trachea down to some bronchioles. The most distal bronchioles and alveoli dont.
What happens to smooth muscle in the different parts of the respiratory tree?
Becomes progressively more prominent as you go more distal. It is the most prominent feature of the distal bronchioles allowing them to constrict and dilate. Alveoli have no cartilage or smooth muscle as this would impact diffusion.
What separates the two nasal cavities and what are the parts of it?
the nasal septum. made up of a bony part at the posterior. This consists of the ethmoid bone superiorly and the vomer inferiorly. Also a cartilaginous part at the anterior called the septal cartilage (made of hyaline).
What is the rima glottidis?
The narrowest part of the larynx.
What is phonation?
producing sound. Air is expired across the vocal cords making them vibrate.
What are the three layers of skeletal muscle between the ribs?
external, internal and innermost intercostal muscles.
What is the parietal pleura adherent to?
The chest wall and the structures of the mediastinum.
What is another name for the hilum?
The lung root.
What is the head of the rib?
the part that articulates with the vertebra of the same number and the body of the vertebra superiorly.
What do rib tubercles articulate with?
Articulates with the transverse process of the the vertebra of the same number.
What does the azygous vein do and where does it lie?
to the right of the aorta. Drains the posterior parts of the intercostal spaces.
What supplies the posterior parts of the intercostal spaces with blood?
the thoracic aorta, through intercostal arteries (lateral surface of the aorta.
What do the internal thoracic artery and vein do? Where do they lie?
supply the anterior parts of the intercostal spaces. lie vertically either side of the deep surface of the sternum.
What supplies the lung tissues with blood?
the bronchial arteries which are branches from the anterior surface of the aorta.
What is the innervation of the intercostal muscles?
The anterior ramus of the same numbered vertebrae. There are lateral and anterior branches that take sensory supply to the skin.
Where does the muscular part of the diaphragm attach?
The sternum, the lower 6 ribs and costal cartilages and the L1- L3 vertebral bodies.
What innervation does the muscular part of the diaphragm have?
The phrenic nerve, C3, 4, and 5 anterior rami.
What are the phrenic nerves? What do they supply?
the combined anterior rami of the cervical spinal nerves 3, 4 and 5. They supply somatic sensory and sympathetic axons to the diaphragm and the fibrous pericardium. It also supplies somatic motor axons to the diaphragm.
Where are the phrenic nerves located?
Found in the neck on the anterior surface of the scalenus anterior and found in the chest descending over the lateral aspect of the fibrous pericardium.
Where do the lateral quadrants of the breast lymph nodes drain?
Unilaterally into the axillary nodes.
Where do the medial quadrants of the breast lymph nodes drain?
Bilaterally into the parasternal nodes. the chains run deep to the sternal edges.
What is the pectoral fascia made of?
fibrous material.
Where does the cephalic vein lie?
the delto-pectoral groove (basically down the front of the armpit).
What are the two heads of the pectoralis major?
The clavicular and the sternocostal.
Where do the heads of the pectoralis major muscle attach.
laterally to the lateral side of the intertubercular groove of the humerus.
What does the long thoracic nerve innervate and where does it originate?
The serratus anterior via its anterior surface. It comes from the brachial plexus.
What do patients display when they get paralysis of the serratus anterior?
A winged scapula.
What does the serratus anterior do?
Anchors the medial border of the scapula to ribs 1-8.
What does the pectoralis minor do?
Attaches the coracoid process of the scapula to ribs 3-5.
What happens to the subclavian vessels as they progress laterally?
After the lateral border of the first rib the vessels names change to axillary artery and vein.
What does the scalanus anterior do?
Attaches the cervical vertebrae to the first rib.
What do the anterior intercostal arteries and vein drain into?
Internal thoracic vein and artery.
What is another name for the costodiaphragmatic recess and where is it?
The costophrenic recess. It sits between the very bottom points of the lungs and the edges of the diaphragm in the chest cavity. the angle it has is the costophrenic angle, abnormal fluid can drain into this causing blunting of the angle on xray.
What structures lie in the root of the lungs?
1 main bronchus. 1 pulmonary artery, 2 pulmonary veins, lymphatics, visceral afferents, sympathetic nerves, parasympathetic nerves.
What is the lingula in the left lung?
The tongue of the superior lobe. E.g. It’s most inferior point.
What is the surface anatomy of the lung fissures?
The horizontal - follows the right rib 4.
Both obliques - at the level of rib 6 in the front, round to T3 e.g. Diagonally half way through the scapula.
What parts of the alimentary canal are in the pelvis?
The rectum and anal canal.
When does the upper GI tract turn into the lower?
After the small intestine.
How does the GI tract protect against poison?
Taste buds (sensory receptors) getting you to spit it out.
What is mastication?
Chewing.
What are the muscles of mastication?
Masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid.
What do the muscles of facial expression do?
Attach between the bones of the face and the superficial fascia just deep to the skin of the face. They pull the face into expressions and prevent drooling.
Where is the orbicularis oris and what does it do?
Circular muscle around the lips, pulling the lips together stopping drooling during chewing.
What lines the oral cavity?
Stratified squamous epithelium. And keratin in the gingivae and hard palate.
Describe the sensitivity of the oral cavity.
Most sensitive area in the body. Can feel pain, temperature, touch, and proprioception. Also has the special sensation of taste.
What are papilla?
Finger like structures on the tongue. Some give the tongue texture, others manipulate food and others are for taste.
Where does the tongue lie?
The posterior third lies vertically in the oropharynx, the anterior two thirds are horizontal in the oral cavity.
Name the four types of papillae and what they do?
Foliate, vallate, fungiform - taste buds.
Filiform - touch and temperature etc.
They are listed in order above going from the back of the tongue to the front.
What suspends the tongue in the oral cavity?
The 4 pairs of skeletal extrinsic muscles. They originate external to the tongue and insert into it.
What is the function of the oral extrinsic muscles?
Move the tongue around during mastication, swallowing and speech.
Where are the intrinsic muscles of the tongue located and what do they do?
Mainly dorsally posteriorly and they modify the shape of the tongue during function.
What two muscles close the jaw?
The temporalis and the masseter.
What does the buccinator muscle do and where is it?
It’s in the cheek and together with the tongue it moves a food bolus between the biting surfaces of the teeth.
What does the serratus anterior do?
Anchors the medial border of the scapula to ribs 1-8.
What does the pectoralis minor do?
Attaches the coracoid process of the scapula to ribs 3-5.
What happens to the subclavian vessels as they progress laterally?
After the lateral border of the first rib the vessels names change to axillary artery and vein.
What is the surface anatomy of the lung fissures?
The horizontal - follows the right rib 4.
Both obliques - at the level of rib 6 in the front, round to T3 e.g. Diagonally half way through the scapula.
What parts of the alimentary canal are in the pelvis?
The rectum and anal canal.
When does the upper GI tract turn into the lower?
After the small intestine.
How does the GI tract protect against poison?
Taste buds (sensory receptors) getting you to spit it out.
What is mastication?
Chewing.
What are the muscles of mastication?
Masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid.
What do the muscles of facial expression do?
Attach between the bones of the face and the superficial fascia just deep to the skin of the face. They pull the face into expressions and prevent drooling.
Where is the orbicularis oris and what does it do?
Circular muscle around the lips, pulling the lips together stopping drooling during chewing.
What lines the oral cavity?
Stratified squamous epithelium. And keratin in the gingivae and hard palate.
Describe the sensitivity of the oral cavity.
Most sensitive area in the body. Can feel pain, temperature, touch, and proprioception. Also has the special sensation of taste.
What are papilla?
Finger like structures on the tongue. Some give the tongue texture, others manipulate food and others are for taste.
Where does the tongue lie?
The posterior third lies vertically in the oropharynx, the anterior two thirds are horizontal in the oral cavity.
Name the four types of papillae and what they do?
Foliate, vallate, fungiform - taste buds.
Filiform - touch and temperature etc.
They are listed in order above going from the back of the tongue to the front.
What suspends the tongue in the oral cavity?
The 4 pairs of skeletal extrinsic muscles. They originate external to the tongue and insert into it.
What is the function of the oral extrinsic muscles?
Move the tongue around during mastication, swallowing and speech.
Where are the intrinsic muscles of the tongue located and what do they do?
Mainly dorsally posteriorly and they modify the shape of the tongue during function.
What two muscles close the jaw?
The temporalis and the masseter.
What does the buccinator muscle do and where is it?
It’s in the cheek and together with the tongue it moves a food bolus between the biting surfaces of the teeth.
What does the long thoracic nerve innervate and where does it originate?
The serratus anterior via its anterior surface. It comes from the brachial plexus.
What does the pectoralis minor do?
Attaches the coracoid process of the scapula to ribs 3-5.
What happens to the subclavian vessels as they progress laterally?
After the lateral border of the first rib the vessels names change to axillary artery and vein.
How many teeth does an adult have?
32.
How are the teeth divided?
Into 4 quadrants each containing 2 incisors, 1 canine, 2 premolars and 3 molars.
How are teeth numbered?
From the middle counting out e.g. The front tooth is number 1 and the wisdom tooth number 8.
How do we wrote down what tooth we are talking about in a patients notes?
A horizontal line either above or below the number and a vertical line on one side with the number written inside. E.g 6 in the upper right quadrant would have a line below it and a line up to the left of it.
What is occlusion in relation to teeth and what should we ask a patient with a fracture?
How the occlusive surfaces of the teeth close together. We should ask a patient how their bite feels.
What are the 3 major pairs of glands in the mouth?
Parotid glands (near the ears), submandibular glands (under the mandible) and sublingual glands (under the tongue). They produce 90% of our 500ml to 750 ml per day.
What stimulates salivation?
The thought, sight or smell of food, or its presence in the mouth. Or painful oral conditions e.g. A fracture.
Where do the parotid ducts and submandibular glands go?
The parotid crosses the cheek and the submandibular goes to the floor of the mouth (several ducts).
What are the functions of the pharynx?
Important in swallowing, breathing and defence against infection (tonsils), conduit for food and gasses. Important in protective reflexes.
What tissues do the pharynx consist of?
Muscular tube lines with non-keratinised stratified squamous mucosa, containing MALT. It is an incomplete tube made of skeletal muscle and is continuous with the oesophagus.
What is Waldeyers ring?
A “ring” of tonsils in the naso and oropharynx that produce white blood cells and protect against infection.
What is the laryngeal inlet?
The part of the pharynx that opens into the larynx, covered by the epiglottis at times.
What does the uvula and epiglottis (partly) do?
Guide boluses away from the midline e.g. Laryngeal inlet.
What is the arrangement of the inner layer of pharynx muscles, where do they attach and what do they do?
Longitudinal. Attach inferiorly to the larynx. Contract to shorten the larynx to reduce bolus transit time and raises the larynx towards the epiglottis closing it over the laryngeal inlet.
What is the arrangement of the outer layer of laryngeal muscle and what does it do?
Circular muscle. Arranged in superior, middle and inferior constrictors of the pharynx. Contract in sequence to move the food bolus to the oesophagus.
Describe the oesophagus.
The inferior continuation of the laryngopharynx. Starts of as skeletal muscle but changes to smooth. Lined with non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium.
How long is the small intestine?
7m
What does the outer longitudinal layer of muscle do in the GI tract?
Shortens the tube.
What does the inner circular layer of muscle do in the GI tract?
Constricts the diameter.
What is the body soma?
The body wall e,g. The abdominal or cheat walls and the upper and lower limbs.
What is the abdominopelvic cavity?
The abdominal and pelvic cavities considered together excluding the peritoneum separating them.
What are the three embryologically named parts of the gut?
The foregut, the midgut and the hindgut.
What are the organs of the foregut?
Oesophagus to mid duodenum. Including the liver, gallbladder, spleen and half of the pancreas.
What are the organs of the midgut?
Mid-duodenum to proximal 2/3rds of the transverse colon and half of the pancreas.
What are the organs of the hindgut?
Distal 1/3rd of the transverse colin to the proximal half of the anal canal.
In what part of the abdomen do the svc and aorta lie?
The retroperitoneum.
What is the arterial supply for the three embryo logical areas of the gut?
3 midline branches of the abdominal aorta.
Foregut = coeliac trunk.
Midgut = superior mesenteric artery.
Hindgut= inferior mesenteric artery.
What does the hepatic portal vein do?
Drains blood from all gut areas to the liver for first pass metabolism.
What does the IVC do in the retroperitoneum?
Drains blood from the hepatic veins into the right atrium.
What vein drains the foregut and to where?
The splenic vein to the HPV.
What vein drains the blood from the hindgut and to where?
The inferior mesenteric vein into the splenic vein.
What vein drains the blood from the midgut and to where?
The superior mesenteric vein, into the HPV.
What are the two venous systems in the abdomen?
The portal venous system and the systemic venous system.
What does the portal venous system do?
Drains blood from the absorptive part of the GI tract and associated organs to the liver via the HPV. Deoxygenated but venous rich blood.
What are the two veins going in and out of the liver?
Hepatic portal vein in and the IVC out.
What pattern does the lymphatic drainage of the gut follow?
Tend to follow the arteries.
What is the lymphatic drainage of the foregut?
Via lymph nodes along the splenic artery to the coeliac nodes located around the coeliac trunk.
What is the lymphatic drainage of the midgut?
Via nodes along the superior mesenteric artery towards the superior mesenteric nodes around the origin of the artery.
What is the lymphatic drainage of the hindgut?
Drain via nodes along the inferior mesenteric artery. Towards the inferior mesenteric nodes at the origin of the artery.
What is guarding and when can it occur?
The abdominal muscles contracting to guard the cavity when injury threatens. Can happen in peritonitis.
What sphincters control flow of contents through the GI tract and where are they?
Cricopharyngeal at the junction between the laryngopharynx and the oesophagus.
Pyloric- at the junction of the stomach and duodenum.
The external anal sphincter.
What is an anatomical sphincter?
An area where smooth muscle completely encircles the lumen of the tract. Can be smooth or skeletal muscle.
What kind of pain might a patient with a GI obstruction have?
A colicky pain, that comes and goes due to the wave of peristalsis at the blockage.
What is the body’s response to a GI obstruction both internal or external?
Increased peristalsis proximal to the obstruction site, to try and clear it.
What is the combined name for the hypothalamus and the pituitary glands?
The hypophysis.
What is another name for the adrenal glands?
Suprarenal.
Where are the ovaries?
In the broad ligaments.
What is the name for the hypothalamus and the thalamus?
The diencephalon.
What are the three parts of the brainstem?
Midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata.
Where is the diencephalon?
Forms the centre core of the cerebrum. Has connections to the right and left hemispheres and the midbrain.
Where does the pituitary gland sit?
The pituitary fossa of the sphenoid bone, which is on the midline.
What does the cribiform plate do?
Transmits olfactory nerves.
What lies superior to the temporal bones?
The organs of hearing and balance.
Describe the structure and relationship of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands.
Hypothalamus superiorly. Linked to the pituitary by the infundibulum (pituitary stalk). Pituitary gland is separated into the anterior and posterior lobes. The hypothalamic neuronal bodies travel down the infundibulum into the posterior pituitary.
What is the physiological relationship between the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary?
The hypothalamic neurones manufacture oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH). These are transported to the posterior pituitary in the axoplasm (axon cytoplasm) by axoplasmic transport.
What so the physiological relationship between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary?
Hypothalamic neurones either secrete releasing hormones or inhibitory hormones which stimulate or stop the pituitary releasing hormones.
What hormones does the anterior pituitary release?
Growth hormones, prolactin (milk production), thyroid stimulating hormone, ACTH (adrenocorticotrophic hormone), LH and FSH.
What is the hypophyseal portal system?
A portal system of veins, that drains blood from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary capillary beds (contains releasing or inhibitory hormones). After this a second set of veins draws the venous blood to the hypophyseal veins and then eventually to the SVC (blood has AP hormones in it).
What is a portal system?
When a capillary bed lies between two sets of veins.
List the veins involved in the hepatic portal system.
Splenic to superior mesenteric vein to inferior mesenteric (blood from GI tract). Hepatic portal vein. Into hepatic capillary bed then hepatic veins and then the IVC.
What is the hypophysis?
The hypothalamus and the pituitary gland.
What is the master gland and why?
The pituitary gland, as hormones released from the anterior lobe controls the output of many other endocrine glands.
What is a goitre?
An enlarged gland.
Where is the thyroid gland attached and what clinical importance does this have?
Attached the larynx. So a goitre here will move up and down during swallowing.
What is the middle part of the thyroid gland called?
Isthmus.
What hormones does the thyroid gland produce and what substance does it require to do this?
Triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4). It needs iodine for this. Lack of T3 is lethal.
What do thyroid hormones do?
regulate metabolism and growth.
What is one cause of a goitre?
Dieatary lack of iodine can cause an enlarged gland.
Where are the parathyroid glands located?
the posterior surfaces of the thyroid glands lobes.
What do the parathyroid glands do?
manufacture and secrete parathyroid hormone. It is not under pituitary control. The glands monitor and control it directly.
What does parathyroid hormone do?
Controls the amount of calcium in blood and bone. We cant live without PTH. Normal muscle and nerve unction depend on Ca levels being in the normal range.
What vessels are associated with the parathyroid and thyroid glands?
The superior and inferior thyroid arteries and the superior, middle and inferior thyroid arteries.
Is the spleen retro on intraperitoneal?
intraperitoneal.
Where does the pancreas lie?
transversely across the retroperitoneum, between the duodenum and the spleen. The stomach in front and the aorta and IVC behind. It is in the foregut and the midgut.
What are the vessels associated with the pancreas?
Arterial blood from the coeliac trunk and the superior mesenteric artery. The venous blood drains into both the splenic vein and the superior mesenteric vein into the hepatic portal vein.
describe the parts and functions of the pancreas.
Not under pituitary control. Endocrine pancreas (islets of langerhans) manufacture 6 hormones including insulin which is secreted into veins when the islets sense increased blood glucose. The exocrine pancreas manufactures digestive enzymes and electrolyes that pass via a duct system into the duodenum.
Describe the adrenal glands?
2 functionally and anatomically separate parts. The adrenal cortex (edges) and the adrenal medulla (middle).
What does the adrenal cortex do?
Manufactures glucocorticoids (metabolism), mineralcorticoids (BP control) and androgens. The release of glucocorticoids is under pituitary ATCH control.
What does the adrenal medulla?
releases adrenaline and noradrenaline (secreted from fight or flight response).
Describe the vessels associated with the adrenal glands.
The superior, middle and inferior suprarenal arteries.
What are the three unpaired (midline) branches of the abdominal aorta?
coeliac trunk, superior ad inferior mesenteric arteries. The suprarenal veins drain into the IVC.
What are the three (bilateral) branches of the abdominal aorta?
Adrenal, renal and gonadal arteries.
What hormones do the testes secrete?
testosterone in response to LH from the anterior pituitary.
What hormones do the ovaries secrete?
Oestrogen and progesterone in response to FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary.
What is the gonadal venous drainage?
The right gonad into the IVC, the left gonad into the left renal vein.
What do testosterone and oestrogen do?
control the development of secondary characteristics. Promote the closure of epiphyseal growth plates and stimulate sperm and ovum production.
What does progesterone do?
Prepares the uterus for pregnancy.
What is the PNS?
cranial nerves, spinal nerves and autonomic nerves (sympathetic and parasympathetic).
What is a group of nerve cell bodies in the CNS?
A nucleus.
What is a group of nerve cell bodies in the PNS?
a ganglion.
What is a bundle of axons travelling together called in the CNS?
a tract.
What is a bundle of axons travelling together called in the PNS?
a peripheral nerve.
What is a peripheral nerve?
bundle of axons, wrapped in connective tissue travelling together. Bundles can leave the nerve as named branches. They can contain thousands of axons.
What is a synapse?
One neurone communicating with another in a ganglion or nucleus. The action potential is electrical and then chemical and then electrical again.
What are the folds of the cerebral neocortex called?
gyri and sulci.
What separates the 2 cerebral hemispheres?
longitudinal fissure.
Name the cranial nerves.
CNI - olfactory nerve. CNII - optic nerve. CNIII - oculomotor nerve. CNIV trochlear nerve. CNV - trigeminal nerve. CNVI - abducent nerve. CNVII - a facial nerve. CNVIII - vestibulocochlear nerve. CNIX - glossopharyngeal nerve. CNX - the vagus nerve. CNXI - the spinal accessory nerve. CNXII - hypoglossal nerve.
What are the three fossa of the cranial cavity?
anterior, middle and posterior cranial fossa.
Where does CN1 exit the skull?
The cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone.
Where do cranial nerves II, III, IV, V(1) and VI exit the skull?
optic canal.
Where do the cranial nerves CV 2 and 3 exit the skull?
2 is the formane rotundum and 3 is the foramen ovale.
Where do CNVII and VIIIexit the skull?
Internal acoustic meatus.
Where do CN IX, X and XI exit the skull?
jugular foramen.
Where do CNXII exit the skull?
Hypoglossal canal.
