ANAT101B FINALS Flashcards

1
Q

Responsible for the intake and digestion of food and water, the absorption of nutrients, and the elimination of solid waste products.

A

Digestive System

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2
Q

4 LAYERS OF GASTROINTESTINAL TRACT

A

Mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis
Adventitia/Serosa

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3
Q

3 sub-layers of Tunica Mucosa

A

Epithelium
Lamina Propria
Muscularis mucosae

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4
Q

This is the plexus that controls intestinal secretions, local absorption and contraction.

A

Submucosal plexus

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5
Q

Other term for submucosal plexus

A

Meissener’s Plexus

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6
Q

What is the space external to the teeth and gums and internal to the lips and cheeks?

A

Vestibule

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6
Q

This is the plexus that regulates gut movement and peristalsis.

A

Myenteric Plexus

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7
Q

Other term for myenteric plexus

A

Auerbach’s Plexus

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8
Q

Hairless part surrounding the part of the nose.

A

Rhinarium

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8
Q

These are the hairs located on the superior lip and adjacent dorsal part of the muzzle.

A

Tactile hairs

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8
Q

Mechanical and Chemical digestion begins in the ___.

A

Mouth

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9
Q

Deep straight narrow cleft which marks the union of 2 halves of superior lip rostrally.

A

Philtrum

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10
Q

Forms the caudal portion of lateral walls of vestibular cavity.

A

Buccae/cheeks

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11
Q

Opening that drains the sublingual and mandibular ducts located rostroventral to the tongue.

A

Sublingual caruncle

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12
Q

Highly specialized structures that serves for procuring, cutting, and crushing of food, as well as social interaction.

A

Teeth

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13
Q

These are the incisive ducts on both sides of the mouth (?)

A

Incisive Papilla

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14
Q

Permanent stage of incisors
Answer in months.

A

3-5 months

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14
Q

First set of teeth that develops in mammals.

A

Deciduous teeth

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14
Q

Two sets of teeth develop sequentially.

A

Diphyodont

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14
Q

Also called cheek tooth between molars and canine.

A

Premolar

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15
Q

Deciduous stage of canines.
Answer in weeks.

A

3 weeks

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15
Q

Deciduous stage of incisors
Answer in weeks.

A

3-4 weeks

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16
Q

Deciduous stage of premolars.
Answer in weeks.

A

2-12 weeks

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17
Q

Permanent stage of premolars
Answer in months.

A

4-6 months

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17
Q

Deciduous stage of molars.
Answer in weeks.

A

None

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18
Q

Permanent stage of canines
Answer in months

A

4-6 months

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18
Q

Formula of teeth

A

2 (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 2/3)

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19
Q

Permanent stage of molars
Answer in months.

A

5-7 months

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20
Q

___ extends from the isthmus of the fauces to the base of the epiglottis.

A

Oropharynx

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20
Q

Front teeth used for cutting

A

Incisors

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21
Q

Type of hypsodont in which apices of tooth remain open for a significant part of the patient’s life leading to continuous growth.

A

Radicular hypsodont

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22
Q

Also called Fang and Cuspid

A

Canine

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23
Q

Classification of teeth that grows continuously.

A

Hypsodont

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23
Q

Most caudal tooth; Permanent tooth for grinding food

A

Molar

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23
Q

Classification of teeth relatively smaller crowns and well developed roots.

A

Brachydont

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24
Q

Small bumps on the incisors

A

Mamelons

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24
Q

Portion of the pharynx that lies dorsal to the larynx

A

Laryngopharynx

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25
Q

Type of hypsodont in which it lacks a true root and grows continuously throughout the animal’s life.

A

Aradicular Hypsodont

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26
Q

Convex protuberance at cervical third of anatomical crown

A

Cingulum

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26
Q

Point where multiple roots branch off from the trunk.

A

Furcation

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26
Q

Last upper premolar and first lower molar

A

Carnassial Sectorial Teeth

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27
Q

Three types of saliva secretion

A

Serous (watery)
Mucus (viscous)
Mixed

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27
Q

Layer of esophagus that blends with the deep cervical fascia dorsally

A

Fibrous (Adventitia)

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28
Q

What are the minor salivary glands?

A

Labial Gland
Buccal Gland
Molar Gland
Palatine Gland
Lingual Gland

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28
Q

What are the major salivary glands?

A

Parotid Gland
Mandibular Gland
Monostomatic & Polystomatic Sublingual Gland
Zygomatic Gland

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29
Q

Formerly called Pharyngeal isthmus or Pharyngeal chiasma. Opening of the nasal pharynx into the laryngopharynx

A

Intrapharyngeal opening

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29
Q

Passageway for both digestive and respiratory system

A

Pharynx

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29
Q

Orifice between the oral cavity and the oral part of the pharynx

A

Isthmus of the fauces

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30
Q

Pharynx respiratory portion dorsal to the soft palate and extends from the choanae of the nasal cavity

A

Nasal Pharynx

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31
Q

First part of the alimentary canal. Connecting tube between the pharynx and stomach.

A

Esophagus

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32
Q

Prevents backflow of highly acidic compounds of stomach into the esophagus

A

Cardiac Sphincter

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33
Q

Largest cavity in the body

A

Abdominal cavity

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34
Q

Part of the trunk that extends from the diaphragm to the pelvis.

A

Abdomen

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35
Q

Double-layered connecting peritoneum that links the stomach to the abdominal wall or other organs.

A

Omentum

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36
Q

Forms the lining wall of the peritoneal cavity.

A

Peritoneum

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37
Q

Suspends the intestines from the abdominal wall.

A

Mesentery

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38
Q

Dorsal mesogastrium that has been elongated into a large fold between the stomach. (Epiploon).

A

Greater Omentum

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39
Q

Greater portion of the lesser omentum that passes from the liver to the stomach.

A

Hepatogastric ligament

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39
Q

The right border of the lesser omentum that goes to the duodenum from the liver.

A

Hepatoduodenal Ligament

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40
Q

Largest derivative of the mesogastrium but is not nearly as voluminous or as complex as is the greater omentum.

A

Lesser omentum

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41
Q

Transient folds of gastric mucosa, which allows the stomach to expand when it is filled with food and increase the surface area for absorption.

A

Rugae

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41
Q

Largest dilatation of the alimentary canal

A

Stomach

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42
Q

Principal site for digestion and absorption

A

Small intestine

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42
Q

Extends from the pyloric sphincter of the stomach to the beginning of the large intestine

A

Small intestine

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42
Q

Largest section of the stomach

A

Body

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42
Q

Tissue that produces a protective layer of mucus.

A

Simple columnar epithelium

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43
Q

Section of stomach that has mucous glands that secrete a thick layer of alkaline mucous.

A

Cardia

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43
Q

Pylorus has ___ sphincter.

A

Pyloric

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43
Q

Section of stomach where the rugae is prominent

A

Fundus

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43
Q

___ is stored in ___ before being poured into the descending portion of the duodenum.

A

Bile, gallbladder

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43
Q

Short and unspecialized. Most important function is the dehydration of its fecal content

A

Large intestine

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44
Q

Largest gland in the body. Has both exocrine and endocrine function.

A

Liver

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45
Q

The caudate lobe of the liver has ___ and ___ processes.

A

Papillary and caudate processes

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46
Q

Part of the face rostral to the frontal region and dorsal to the infraorbital, buccal, and oral regions.

A

Nose

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47
Q

The ___ system uses the nose, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and smaller passageways to bring air to the alveoli or sites of gaseous exchange within the lungs.

A

Respiratory

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47
Q

Vomeronasal organ. Located on the rostral base of the nasal septum. Plays a role on the olfactory and sexual behavior of the patient. Identification and recognition of Pheromones (Flehmen response).

A

Jacobson’s Organ

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48
Q

Known as the voice box. Serves as passageway for air, vocalization, and prevents inspiration of foreign material.

A

Larynx

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48
Q

External openings of the respiratory tube, and they lead into the nasal passages.

A

Nostrils (Nares)

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48
Q

Bifurcation of trachea

A

Tracheal Carina

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49
Q

Parts of the kidneys

A

Renal Hilus
Renal Cortex
Renal Medulla
Renal Pelvis

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49
Q

Extends between the cavity of the middle ear and the cavity of the nasopharynx.

A

Auditory Tube/ Eustachian Tube

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49
Q

The ___ system’s chief function is to regulate the volume and composition of body fluids and excrete unwanted material.

A

Urinary

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49
Q

Known as “Windpipe”. Short wind tube that extends from the larynx down through the neck region into the thorax, where it divides into the two main bronchi that enter the lungs.

A

Trachea

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50
Q

Renal corpuscle is consists of?

A

Bowman’s capsule

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50
Q

Except for the ___ main bronchi, all the structures of the lower portion of the respiratory tract are located within the lungs.
(Answer in numbers)

A

2

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50
Q

Left lung has __ lobes, while right lung has __ lobes. (Answer in numbers)

A

2, 4

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51
Q

Basic functional structure of kidney. Smallest part of the kidney that can carry out its basic function.

A

Nephrons

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51
Q

This organ facilitates the production of urine to facilitate the elimination of metabolic waste materials.

A

Kidneys

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52
Q

Collects filtrate from glomerulus

A

Bowman’s capsule

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53
Q

Filters blood from afferent arteriole.

A

Glomerulus

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54
Q

What are the renal tubules?

A

Proximal convoluted and straight tubules, loop of henle, Distal convoluted and straight tubules.

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54
Q

Renal tubules that reabsorbs glucose and amino acids.

A

Proximal Tubules

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55
Q

Renal tubule that reabsorbs water

A

Loop of Henle

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55
Q

Tube that exits the kidney at the hilus and connects to the urinary bladder near the neck of the bladder at its caudal end.

A

Ureters

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56
Q

Renal tubules – target sight for diuretic agents and antidiuretic hormones including vasopressin and aldosterone.

A

Distal Tubules

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57
Q

Layers of ureters

A

Fibrous layer: Outer layer
Muscular layer: Middle layer
Epithelial layer: Inner layer

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57
Q

Collects and stores urine

A

Urinary bladder

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58
Q

Components of male genital system

A

Scrotum
Testes
Epididymis
Ductus deferens
Spermatic cords
Prostate glands
Penis
Urethra

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59
Q

Other terms for urination

A

Micturition, Uresis

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59
Q

___ is located at the neck of the bladder which is lined with stretch receptor muscles.

A

Trigone

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60
Q

A network of veins within the spermatic cords that drain the testes.

A

Pampiniform plexus

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60
Q

Reproductive and urinary systems have different embryological origin. True or False?

A

False, different embryological orgin

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61
Q

The root of the penis is made up of ___.

A

Crura

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61
Q

External pouch that encloses and supports the testes. Helps regulate the temperature of the testes. The testes have to be kept slightly cooler than the body temperature to produce spermatozoa.

A

Scrotum

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62
Q

A soft gelatinous tissue that helps pull the testes through the abdomen, through the inguinal canal in the groin, and down into the scrotum. The pulling action occurs as it is stimulated first to grow and then to shrink.

A

Gubernaculum

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62
Q

Site of male gametogenesis called spermatogenesis and hormone production; seminiferous tubules; connective tissues are septa and mediastinum.

A

Testes

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62
Q

What are the muscles that helps ascend and descend testicles?

A

Cremaster muscle and Tunica dartos

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63
Q

This is the continuation of the epididymis. It begins at the tail of the epididymis, passes cranially along the dorsomedial border of testis, dorsally to the spermatic cord, then enters the abdominal cavity.

A

Ductus deferens

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64
Q

Links the testes with the rest of the body. Contains blood vessels, nerves, lymphatic vessels, and the vas deferens.

A

Spermatic cord

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65
Q

Single structure that more or less completely surrounds the urethra. The only accessory sex gland present in the male dog.

A

Prostate gland

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66
Q

Bands of connective tissue covered by the ischiocavernosus muscle

A

Crura

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67
Q

Penis is made up of muscle, ___ tissue, and ___ tissue.

A

Erectile, connective

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68
Q

The body of penis is made up of what tissue?

A

Connective

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69
Q

Type of cells in the nervous system that regulate the rate of axonal conduction of impulses, hold the neurons in place, and prevent the neuronal impulses from spreading between neurons that are not linked by synapses.

A

Supporting cells

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69
Q

Basic functional units of the nervous system. Collection of neuronal processes, axons, located in the PNS external to the CNS.

A

Neurons

69
Q

The ___ system informs an animal about its environment, both internal and external, and initiates responses to that environment.

A

Nervous

69
Q

Components of the nervous system that extend away from the central axis outward, toward the periphery of the body

A

PNS

69
Q

One of two columns of spongy tissue that runs through the shaft (body) of the penis.

A

Corpus cavernosum/Corpus spongiosum

69
Q

Specialized glial cells in the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord.

A

Schwann cells

69
Q

Type of cells in the nervous system that receive and transmit impulses

A

Neurons

69
Q

Receive stimuli, or impulses, from other neurons and conduct this stimulation to the cell body. Afferent processes.

A

Dendrites

70
Q

Two types of cells of the nervous system

A

Neurons and supporting cells

70
Q

Sheath of fatty substance surrounding the axons.

A

Myelin sheath

70
Q

Group of nervous system that is composed of the brain and spinal cord.

A

CNS

71
Q

Structurally and functionally support and protect the neurons.

A

Neuroglia or Glial cells

71
Q

A network of anastomosing or interlacing blood vessels or nerves

A

Plexus

71
Q

Central cell body of neuron

A

Soma

72
Q

It is a receptor that responds to rapid vibration.

A

Pacinian corpuscles

72
Q

Acts as a relay station for regulation sensory inputs to the cerebrum

A

Thalamus

72
Q

Specialized glial cells in the brain and spinal cord.

A

Oligodendrocytes

72
Q

It is a receptor that is continuous to sustain perpendicular pressure.

A

Merkel discs and tactile corpuscles

72
Q

Conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body toward another neuron

A

Axon

72
Q

It is a receptor that detects muscle length and velocity of muscle stretch

A

Muscle spindles

73
Q

Muscle spindles and cutaneous afferents are what type of neuron?

A

Pseudounipolar cells

73
Q

It is a receptor that is responsible for tangential stretching.

A

Ruffini corpuscles

73
Q

Small gaps in the myelin sheath.

A

Nodes of Ranvier

73
Q

Collection of neuronal cell bodies in the PNS and their surrounding supporting cells and connective tissue.

A

Ganglion

73
Q

Connection between the rest of the brain and spinal cord.

A

Brainstem

73
Q

These are division of the hemispheres of the brain

A

Lobes

73
Q

Olfactory nerve is what type of neuron?

A

Unipolar

74
Q

Collection of neuronal cell bodies in CNS

A

Nucleus

74
Q

Specialized to generate neuronal impulses in their axons when specific stimulus or sensory modality is applied

A

Receptors

74
Q

Lower motor neurons and interneurons are what type of neuron?

A

Multipolar

74
Q

It is a receptor that responds to warm or cold temperature, noxious stimuli, pain, and crude mechanical stimulation.

A

Free nerve endings

75
Q

Auditory nerve is what type of neuron?

A

Bipolar

75
Q

Type of functional nerve that conduct nerve impulses towards the CNS

A

Afferent nerve

75
Q

It is the lower motor neuron

A

Final Efferent Neuron

75
Q

Type of functional nerve that conduct nerve impulses away from the CNS.

A

Efferent nerve

75
Q

An endocrine “master gland” that regulates production and release of hormones throughout the body.

A

Pituitary gland

75
Q

It is a receptor that can detect movement but not continual pressure.

A

Hair follicle receptors

75
Q

Most prominent groove in the brain

A

Longitudinal fissure

76
Q

SENSORY:AFFERENT::EFFERENT:MOTOR

Correct or wrong?

A

Correct

76
Q

Serves as a nervous system passageway between the primitive brainstem and the cerebrum.

A

Diencephalon

76
Q

Largest part of the brain; constitutes the area of the brain responsible for those function most commonly related with higher-order behaviors

A

Cerebrum

76
Q

Set of fibers that connects the two halves of the cerebral cortex

A

Corpus callosum

76
Q

They separate gyrus

A

Fissures and Sulci (Sulcus)

76
Q

Interface between the nervous system and the endocrine system; Also plays a role in temperature regulation, hunger, thrist, and components of rage and anger responses

A

Hypothalamus

76
Q

___ interneurons, if they release inhibitory neurotransmitters at their synaptic end bulbs.

A

Inhibitory

76
Q

Group of neuron that conduct nerve impulses from the periphery into the CNS

A

Primary afferent neuron

76
Q

Second largest component of the brain. Allows the body to have coordinated movement, balance, posture, and complex reflexes

A

Cerebellum

76
Q

Makes up the wrinkled appearance of the brain

A

Gyri/Gyrus

76
Q

Short neurons that have their cell bodies and all their processes located entirely within a CNS

A

Interneuron

76
Q

4 categories of Final efferent neuron

A

Alpha LMN
Beta LMN
Gamma LMN
Autonomic nervous system LMN

76
Q

Concentrations of myelinated axons form white matter, which generally can be subdivided into ___ or ___ or ___.

A

tracts or fasciculi or striae

76
Q

___ interneurons, if they release excitatory neurotransmitters at their synaptic end bulbs, or

A

Excitatory

76
Q

Group of neurons that send their axons long distances before terminating

A

Projection Neuron

76
Q

Brainstem is composed of ?

A

Medulla oblongata
Pons
Midbrain

76
Q

CNS matter division that consists primarily of cell bodies of neuronal cells, neuroglia, and intertwined dendrites and both myelinated and unmyelinated axons.

A

Gray Matter

77
Q

The gray matter covering the surface of the cerebrum or cerebellum

A

Cortex

77
Q

Regions where white and gray matter mix together.

A

Reticular Formation

77
Q

CNS matter division that consists of myelinated axons and neuroglia.

A

White Matter

77
Q

All of the cranial nerves arise from the brainstem, except for the ___ nerves (including those of the vomeronasal organ)

A

Olfactory

78
Q

The most caudal region of the brainstem. It is distinguished by bilateral longitudinal bands of white matter, the pyramids, that parallel the ventral midline.

A

Medulla oblongata

79
Q

___ cranial nerves arise from the medulla oblongata. Answer in numbers.

A

7

79
Q

What are the 7 cranial nerves arise from the medulla oblongata?

A

CN VI – XII

79
Q

Rostral to medulla oblongata, is distinguished by transverse fibers along its ventral surface.

A

Pons

80
Q

Rostral to the pons, the ventral surface of the midbrain features a ___ ___ fossa between bilateral cerebral peduncles.

A

Median interpeducular fossa

80
Q

The ___ nerve connects to the pons

A

CN V/Trigeminal

80
Q

The ___ nerve and the ___ nerve arise from the midbrain, the latter exist from the dorsal surface.

A

Oculomotor nerve (CN III) and the trochlear (CN IV)

80
Q

Rostral extent of the brainstem.

A

Pons

80
Q

What fissure separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum?

A

Cerebral transverse fissure

80
Q

Layer of meninges that is from outside to the innermost layer; tough

A

Fibrous dura

80
Q

Layer of meninges that is very thin and lies directly on the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

A

Pia mater

80
Q

The serous pericardium consists of two membranes. The ___ layer of the serous pericardium lies directly on the surface of the heart

A

Visceral

81
Q

Set of connective tissue layers that surround the brain and spinal cord.

A

Meninges

81
Q

What fissure separates the right and left hemispheres?

A

Cerebral Longitudinal Fissure

81
Q

Located in the middle of the thoracic cavity in the mediastinum, the space between the two lungs.

A

Heart

81
Q

Layer of meninges that is delicate spider web-like

A

Arachnoid

81
Q

The serous pericardium consists of two membranes. A smooth, moist serous membrane called the ___ layer of the serous pericardium lines the pericardial sac

A

Parietal

81
Q

The brain and spinal cord are bathed and protected from the hard inner surface of the skull and spinal column by a fluid called the ___.

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

81
Q

The continuation of Interatrial septum. Separates the left and right Ventricles.

A

Interventricular septum

81
Q

Bounded by the thoracic inlet cranially, the diaphragm caudally, the sternum ventrally, and the spinal column dorsally.

A

Mediastinum

82
Q

Outermost layer of the heart wall

A

Epicardium

82
Q

Middle and thickest layer of heart

A

Myocardium

82
Q

Interventricular groove contains ___ blood vessels and is frequently filled with ___.

A

Coronary, fat

82
Q

Two types of artery

A

Elastic and muscular arteries

82
Q

Venules have thin enough walls that some fluid exchange between ___ fluid and ___ can take place.

A

Interstitial, plasma

82
Q

A continuation of myocardium. This separates the left and right Atrium.

A

Interatrial septum

82
Q

The membrane that lies in the internal surface of the myocardium; forms the lining of the heart chambers

A

Endocardium

82
Q

Three layers of arteries and veins

A

Inner layer – Endothelium
Middle layer – Smooth muscles, elastic fibers, or both
Outer layer – Fibrous connective tissue and collagen fibers

82
Q

Heart has __ chambers and __ atria and __ ventricle.

A

4, 2, 2

82
Q

The area of the interventricular septum that is visible on the outside of the heart.

A

Interventricular Groove

82
Q

The atria are identified on the outside of the heart by their ___.

A

Auricles

82
Q

Right ventricle is thinner than left ventricle. True or False?

A

True

82
Q

Superficial layers of skin, consisting of continually renewed stratified squamous epithelium

A

Epidermis

82
Q

The walls of veins are consist of ?

A

Endothelium
A thin muscle layer
A few fibrous connective tissue cells

82
Q

Combination of interatrial septum and interventricular septum.

A

Atrioventricular Septum

82
Q

The two valves that control blood flow out of the ventricles and into arteries are the semilunar valves, so named because they have three cusps, each of which resembles a crescent moon.

A

Pulmonary valve (Right Semilunar valve)
Aortic valve (Left Semilunar valve)

82
Q

Component of lymphatic system consisting lymphatic tissue found on all organs and lymph nodes.

A

Cellular component

82
Q

Collagen fiber cords that prevent the valve from opening backwards.

A

Chordae tendineae

82
Q

Capillary has middle and outer layer. True or False?

A

False

82
Q

The ___ is the largest elastic artery in the body.

A

Aorta

82
Q

Inadequate lymph drainage causes ?

A

Edema

82
Q

Their Mmain Function is to trap and process antigens and mature lymphocytes that mediate immune responses.

A

Secondary lymphoid organs

82
Q

Component of lymphatic system consisting lymph vessels and lymph duct system.

A

Vascular component

82
Q

Changes in plasma lipid concentrations and composition occurring after a meal.

A

Postprandial Lipemia

82
Q

A lymphatic structure found at the caudal end of the thoracic duct that receives lymph draining from the abdominal and pelvic viscera and lower limbs.

A

Cisterna Chylii

82
Q

Lymph from the digestive system is called ?
It is usually color white or pale yellow and cloudy.

A

Chyle

82
Q

Largest when an animal is young, but shrinks and is replaced by fat as the animal matures.
Production of Mature T cells from pre-cursors sent from the Bone marrow.
Stimulates a cell-mediated immune response.

A

Thymus

82
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells gives rise to two main type of cells which are?

A

Myeloid lineage and Lymphoid lineage

82
Q

Consists of the skin, hair, skin glands, claws, hooves, and horn

A

Common Integument

82
Q

What is the angle of injection when it is subcutaneous?

A

45

82
Q

Contains blood vessels, tissue macrophages, and blood cell storage spaces called sinuses

A

Red pulp

82
Q

Formed of localized areas of lymphoid tissue

A

White pulp

82
Q

Small, kidney bean-shaped filters located at various points along lymphatic vessels. Has a cortex and medulla which has lymphatic sinuses running through it.

A

Lymph Nodes

82
Q

What is the angle of injection when it is intramuscular?

A

90

82
Q

Supplies body tissues with oxygen, nutrients, and various chemicals.

A

Blood

82
Q

Tongue-shaped organ located on the left side of the abdomen. Filters blood and lymph.

A

Spleen

82
Q

Also called the hypodermis or subcutis; the layer of areolar connective tissue and interspersed fat connecting the skin to underlying structure. It can also be called the superficial fascia

A

Subcutaneous Layer

82
Q

What is the angle of injection when it is intradermal?

A

10 - 15

82
Q

Nodules of lymphoid tissues that are not covered with a capsule. Found in epithelial surfaces all over the body. Prevent the spread of infection into the respiratory and digestive system.

A

Tonsils

82
Q

What is the angle of injection when it is intravenous?

A

25

82
Q

Known as Oil Glands; Simple alveolar holocrine glands usually connected to hair follicles.

A

Sebaceous glands

82
Q

An inconsistently present fourth layer, is made of flat, dead squamous cells containing translucent droplets of Eleidin.

A

Stratum lucidum

82
Q

What vitamin does skin synthesizes?

A

Vitamin D3

82
Q

Type of lymphocyte that is produced by the bone marrow and matures in the Thymus. Coordinate immune defenses and kill organisms on contact.

A

T-lymphocytes

82
Q

Type of WBC that is involved in the immune response and works against specific antigens. Formed in the bone marrow and matures in lymphatic tissues throughout the body.

A

Lymphocyte

82
Q

Type of lymphocyte that is produced and mature in the bone marrow differentiate into plasma cells and memory cells.

A

B-lymphocytes

82
Q

The cells lining the sebaceous glands disintegrate to form the secretion ___.

A

Sebum

83
Q

The thin organ covering the body, protecting underlying tissues from injury, drying, and bacterial invasion.

A

Skin or cutis

83
Q

Vitamin D3 is also known as?

A

Cholecalciferol

83
Q

The long, slender, filamentous appendage of the skin composed of keratinized epithelial cells

A

Hair

83
Q

Layer above the stratum basale composed of polyhedral cells.

A

Stratum spinosum

83
Q

Layer of epidermis that is deepest layer and consists of a single sheet of cuboidal to columnar cells capable of cell division.

A

Stratum basale

83
Q

Consists of flat, dead, cornified cells completely filled with keratin, a waterproofing protein

A

Stratum corneum

83
Q

Composed of squamous cells in different stages of degeneration, and contain keratohyalin granules involved in forming keratin.

A

Stratum granulosum

83
Q

Collective term for S. basale and S. spinosum

A

Stratum Germinativum

83
Q

Also called corium; the layer of skin directly below and separated from the epidermis by a basement membrane. It consists of collagenous and elastic connective tissue containing blood vessels, nerve fibers, glands, and hair follicles.

A

Dermis

83
Q

Also known as Sudoriferous gland. Simple, coiled, tubular glands of the skin that open independently of hair follicles.

A

Sweat glands

83
Q

Sebum of the fleece of sheep

A

Lanolin

83
Q

A tiny muscle connected to each hair follicle and the skin. When it contracts it causes the hair to stand erect, and a “goosebump” forms on the skin

A

Arrector Pili Muscle

83
Q

A modification of the epidermis in the carnivores, conforming to and enclosing the ungual process of the distal phalanx.

A

Claw

83
Q

The hairless, cushion-like pads on the palmar/plantar side of the limbs. The toughest skin on the dog, the epidermis is thick and highly keratinized with a rough surface due to many papillae.

A

Pads

84
Q

Also called Auricles; External visible part of the ear

A

Pinna

85
Q

External auditory canal / meatus is composed of?

A

Horizontal Ear Canal
Vertical Ear Canal

86
Q

Middle Ear is consists of the ?

A

Tympanic Cavity
Auditory Tube / Eustachian Tube
Tensor Tympani
Tympanic Membrane
Auditory ossicles

87
Q

Tympanic membrane is also called as the ?

A

Eardrum

87
Q

Organ of vision; most of its components exist to help form an accurate visual image, not to detect one.

A

Eyes

88
Q

What are the three auditory ossicles?

A

Malleus
Incus
Stapes

89
Q

Its main role is to help focus a clear image on the retina regardless of whether the object being viewed is close up or far away.

A

Lens

90
Q

3 chambers of eyes are ?

A

Anterior Eye Chamber, Posterior Eye Chamber, and Vitreous Chamber

91
Q

Outer fibrous tunic is composed of ?

A

Cornea, Sclera and Limbus

92
Q

Inner nervous tunic is composed of ?

A

Retina

92
Q

Middle Vascular Tunic is composed of ?

A

Choroid, Ciliary body, and Iris

93
Q

Retina is mainly for ___ formation.

A

Image

94
Q

Photoreceptors are composed of ?

A

Rods and cones

95
Q

Rods is for detecting ?

A

Lightness and darkness

96
Q

Cones is for detecting ?`

A

Colors

96
Q

Third eyelid is also called as ?

A

Nictitating membrane

96
Q

Give one gland of eyelids.

A

Tarsal glands/Meibomian glands

97
Q

Refers to the corner of the eye where the upper and lower eyelids meet.

A

Canthus

97
Q

Pinna is composed of ?

A

Scapha
Helix
Anthelix
Cutaneous marginal pouch
Tragus
Antitragus
Intertragic incisure

98
Q

Contains the hearing portion / receptors of the ears

A

Cochlea

98
Q

Contains the receptors for balance

A

Semicircular canals

98
Q

Inner Ear structures are ?

A

Cochlea
Vestibule
Semicircular canals

99
Q

Sac-like spaces of vestibule

A

Saccule and Utricle

100
Q

Sensory epithelium of vestibule

A

Macula

101
Q

Muscular organ filling the oral cavity

A

Tongue

102
Q

What are the types of papillae found in the tongue?

A

Filiform papillae
Conical papillae
Lenticular papillae
Fungiform papillae
Foliate papillae
Vallate papillae

103
Q

Thorn-shaped structures serving the mechanical function of directing food caudally. Located at the dorsum and rarely do they extend caudal to the level of the vallate papillae.

A

Filiform papillae

103
Q

Cone-shaped papillae located on the caudal third of the tongue’s dorsum. Also has a mechanical function.

A

Conical papillae

104
Q

Convex lens in shape found in the middle part of torus linguae, and were covered by a keratin layer.

A

Lenticular papillae

105
Q

Mushroom-shaped papillae. Have taste-buds. Scattered among the more numerous filiform papillae.

A

Fungiform papillae

106
Q

Largest and the least numerous of the papillae.

A

Vallate

107
Q

Tongue papillae that has a series of leaf-shaped ridges separated by furrows on the lateral border of the tongue.

A

Foliate papillae

108
Q

Found along the edges of the rostral half of the newborn puppy’s tongue. Disappears when the diet changes from milk to solids.

A

Marginal papillae