ANAT101B FINALS Flashcards
(286 cards)
1
Q
Responsible for the intake and digestion of food and water, the absorption of nutrients, and the elimination of solid waste products.
A
Digestive System
2
Q
4 LAYERS OF GASTROINTESTINAL TRACT
A
Mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis
Adventitia/Serosa
3
Q
3 sub-layers of Tunica Mucosa
A
Epithelium
Lamina Propria
Muscularis mucosae
4
Q
This is the plexus that controls intestinal secretions, local absorption and contraction.
A
Submucosal plexus
5
Q
Other term for submucosal plexus
A
Meissener’s Plexus
6
Q
What is the space external to the teeth and gums and internal to the lips and cheeks?
A
Vestibule
6
Q
This is the plexus that regulates gut movement and peristalsis.
A
Myenteric Plexus
7
Q
Other term for myenteric plexus
A
Auerbach’s Plexus
8
Q
Hairless part surrounding the part of the nose.
A
Rhinarium
8
Q
These are the hairs located on the superior lip and adjacent dorsal part of the muzzle.
A
Tactile hairs
8
Q
Mechanical and Chemical digestion begins in the ___.
A
Mouth
9
Q
Deep straight narrow cleft which marks the union of 2 halves of superior lip rostrally.
A
Philtrum
10
Q
Forms the caudal portion of lateral walls of vestibular cavity.
A
Buccae/cheeks
11
Q
Opening that drains the sublingual and mandibular ducts located rostroventral to the tongue.
A
Sublingual caruncle
12
Q
Highly specialized structures that serves for procuring, cutting, and crushing of food, as well as social interaction.
A
Teeth
13
Q
These are the incisive ducts on both sides of the mouth (?)
A
Incisive Papilla
14
Q
Permanent stage of incisors
Answer in months.
A
3-5 months
14
Q
First set of teeth that develops in mammals.
A
Deciduous teeth
14
Q
Two sets of teeth develop sequentially.
A
Diphyodont
14
Q
Also called cheek tooth between molars and canine.
A
Premolar
15
Q
Deciduous stage of canines.
Answer in weeks.
A
3 weeks
15
Q
Deciduous stage of incisors
Answer in weeks.
A
3-4 weeks
16
Q
Deciduous stage of premolars.
Answer in weeks.
A
2-12 weeks
17
Q
Permanent stage of premolars
Answer in months.
A
4-6 months
17
Deciduous stage of molars.
Answer in weeks.
None
18
Permanent stage of canines
Answer in months
4-6 months
18
Formula of teeth
2 (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 2/3)
19
Permanent stage of molars
Answer in months.
5-7 months
20
___ extends from the isthmus of the fauces to the base of the epiglottis.
Oropharynx
20
Front teeth used for cutting
Incisors
21
Type of hypsodont in which apices of tooth remain open for a significant part of the patient's life leading to continuous growth.
Radicular hypsodont
22
Also called Fang and Cuspid
Canine
23
Classification of teeth that grows continuously.
Hypsodont
23
Most caudal tooth; Permanent tooth for grinding food
Molar
23
Classification of teeth relatively smaller crowns and well developed roots.
Brachydont
24
Small bumps on the incisors
Mamelons
24
Portion of the pharynx that lies dorsal to the larynx
Laryngopharynx
25
Type of hypsodont in which it lacks a true root and grows continuously throughout the animal’s life.
Aradicular Hypsodont
26
Convex protuberance at cervical third of anatomical crown
Cingulum
26
Point where multiple roots branch off from the trunk.
Furcation
26
Last upper premolar and first lower molar
Carnassial Sectorial Teeth
27
Three types of saliva secretion
Serous (watery)
Mucus (viscous)
Mixed
27
Layer of esophagus that blends with the deep cervical fascia dorsally
Fibrous (Adventitia)
28
What are the minor salivary glands?
Labial Gland
Buccal Gland
Molar Gland
Palatine Gland
Lingual Gland
28
What are the major salivary glands?
Parotid Gland
Mandibular Gland
Monostomatic & Polystomatic Sublingual Gland
Zygomatic Gland
29
Formerly called Pharyngeal isthmus or Pharyngeal chiasma. Opening of the nasal pharynx into the laryngopharynx
Intrapharyngeal opening
29
Passageway for both digestive and respiratory system
Pharynx
29
Orifice between the oral cavity and the oral part of the pharynx
Isthmus of the fauces
30
Pharynx respiratory portion dorsal to the soft palate and extends from the choanae of the nasal cavity
Nasal Pharynx
31
First part of the alimentary canal. Connecting tube between the pharynx and stomach.
Esophagus
32
Prevents backflow of highly acidic compounds of stomach into the esophagus
Cardiac Sphincter
33
Largest cavity in the body
Abdominal cavity
34
Part of the trunk that extends from the diaphragm to the pelvis.
Abdomen
35
Double-layered connecting peritoneum that links the stomach to the abdominal wall or other organs.
Omentum
36
Forms the lining wall of the peritoneal cavity.
Peritoneum
37
Suspends the intestines from the abdominal wall.
Mesentery
38
Dorsal mesogastrium that has been elongated into a large fold between the stomach. (Epiploon).
Greater Omentum
39
Greater portion of the lesser omentum that passes from the liver to the stomach.
Hepatogastric ligament
39
The right border of the lesser omentum that goes to the duodenum from the liver.
Hepatoduodenal Ligament
40
Largest derivative of the mesogastrium but is not nearly as voluminous or as complex as is the greater omentum.
Lesser omentum
41
Transient folds of gastric mucosa, which allows the stomach to expand when it is filled with food and increase the surface area for absorption.
Rugae
41
Largest dilatation of the alimentary canal
Stomach
42
Principal site for digestion and absorption
Small intestine
42
Extends from the pyloric sphincter of the stomach to the beginning of the large intestine
Small intestine
42
Largest section of the stomach
Body
42
Tissue that produces a protective layer of mucus.
Simple columnar epithelium
43
Section of stomach that has mucous glands that secrete a thick layer of alkaline mucous.
Cardia
43
Pylorus has ___ sphincter.
Pyloric
43
Section of stomach where the rugae is prominent
Fundus
43
___ is stored in ___ before being poured into the descending portion of the duodenum.
Bile, gallbladder
43
Short and unspecialized. Most important function is the dehydration of its fecal content
Large intestine
44
Largest gland in the body. Has both exocrine and endocrine function.
Liver
45
The caudate lobe of the liver has ___ and ___ processes.
Papillary and caudate processes
46
Part of the face rostral to the frontal region and dorsal to the infraorbital, buccal, and oral regions.
Nose
47
The ___ system uses the nose, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and smaller passageways to bring air to the alveoli or sites of gaseous exchange within the lungs.
Respiratory
47
Vomeronasal organ. Located on the rostral base of the nasal septum. Plays a role on the olfactory and sexual behavior of the patient. Identification and recognition of Pheromones (Flehmen response).
Jacobson's Organ
48
Known as the voice box. Serves as passageway for air, vocalization, and prevents inspiration of foreign material.
Larynx
48
External openings of the respiratory tube, and they lead into the nasal passages.
Nostrils (Nares)
48
Bifurcation of trachea
Tracheal Carina
49
Parts of the kidneys
Renal Hilus
Renal Cortex
Renal Medulla
Renal Pelvis
49
Extends between the cavity of the middle ear and the cavity of the nasopharynx.
Auditory Tube/ Eustachian Tube
49
The ___ system’s chief function is to regulate the volume and composition of body fluids and excrete unwanted material.
Urinary
49
Known as “Windpipe”. Short wind tube that extends from the larynx down through the neck region into the thorax, where it divides into the two main bronchi that enter the lungs.
Trachea
50
Renal corpuscle is consists of?
Bowman's capsule
50
Except for the ___ main bronchi, all the structures of the lower portion of the respiratory tract are located within the lungs.
(Answer in numbers)
2
50
Left lung has __ lobes, while right lung has __ lobes. (Answer in numbers)
2, 4
51
Basic functional structure of kidney. Smallest part of the kidney that can carry out its basic function.
Nephrons
51
This organ facilitates the production of urine to facilitate the elimination of metabolic waste materials.
Kidneys
52
Collects filtrate from glomerulus
Bowman's capsule
53
Filters blood from afferent arteriole.
Glomerulus
54
What are the renal tubules?
Proximal convoluted and straight tubules, loop of henle, Distal convoluted and straight tubules.
54
Renal tubules that reabsorbs glucose and amino acids.
Proximal Tubules
55
Renal tubule that reabsorbs water
Loop of Henle
55
Tube that exits the kidney at the hilus and connects to the urinary bladder near the neck of the bladder at its caudal end.
Ureters
56
Renal tubules -- target sight for diuretic agents and antidiuretic hormones including vasopressin and aldosterone.
Distal Tubules
57
Layers of ureters
Fibrous layer: Outer layer
Muscular layer: Middle layer
Epithelial layer: Inner layer
57
Collects and stores urine
Urinary bladder
58
Components of male genital system
Scrotum
Testes
Epididymis
Ductus deferens
Spermatic cords
Prostate glands
Penis
Urethra
59
Other terms for urination
Micturition, Uresis
59
___ is located at the neck of the bladder which is lined with stretch receptor muscles.
Trigone
60
A network of veins within the spermatic cords that drain the testes.
Pampiniform plexus
60
Reproductive and urinary systems have different embryological origin. True or False?
False, different embryological orgin
61
The root of the penis is made up of ___.
Crura
61
External pouch that encloses and supports the testes. Helps regulate the temperature of the testes. The testes have to be kept slightly cooler than the body temperature to produce spermatozoa.
Scrotum
62
A soft gelatinous tissue that helps pull the testes through the abdomen, through the inguinal canal in the groin, and down into the scrotum. The pulling action occurs as it is stimulated first to grow and then to shrink.
Gubernaculum
62
Site of male gametogenesis called spermatogenesis and hormone production; seminiferous tubules; connective tissues are septa and mediastinum.
Testes
62
What are the muscles that helps ascend and descend testicles?
Cremaster muscle and Tunica dartos
63
This is the continuation of the epididymis. It begins at the tail of the epididymis, passes cranially along the dorsomedial border of testis, dorsally to the spermatic cord, then enters the abdominal cavity.
Ductus deferens
64
Links the testes with the rest of the body. Contains blood vessels, nerves, lymphatic vessels, and the vas deferens.
Spermatic cord
65
Single structure that more or less completely surrounds the urethra. The only accessory sex gland present in the male dog.
Prostate gland
66
Bands of connective tissue covered by the ischiocavernosus muscle
Crura
67
Penis is made up of muscle, ___ tissue, and ___ tissue.
Erectile, connective
68
The body of penis is made up of what tissue?
Connective
69
Type of cells in the nervous system that regulate the rate of axonal conduction of impulses, hold the neurons in place, and prevent the neuronal impulses from spreading between neurons that are not linked by synapses.
Supporting cells
69
Basic functional units of the nervous system. Collection of neuronal processes, axons, located in the PNS external to the CNS.
Neurons
69
The ___ system informs an animal about its environment, both internal and external, and initiates responses to that environment.
Nervous
69
Components of the nervous system that extend away from the central axis outward, toward the periphery of the body
PNS
69
One of two columns of spongy tissue that runs through the shaft (body) of the penis.
Corpus cavernosum/Corpus spongiosum
69
Specialized glial cells in the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord.
Schwann cells
69
Type of cells in the nervous system that receive and transmit impulses
Neurons
69
Receive stimuli, or impulses, from other neurons and conduct this stimulation to the cell body. Afferent processes.
Dendrites
70
Two types of cells of the nervous system
Neurons and supporting cells
70
Sheath of fatty substance surrounding the axons.
Myelin sheath
70
Group of nervous system that is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
CNS
71
Structurally and functionally support and protect the neurons.
Neuroglia or Glial cells
71
A network of anastomosing or interlacing blood vessels or nerves
Plexus
71
Central cell body of neuron
Soma
72
It is a receptor that responds to rapid vibration.
Pacinian corpuscles
72
Acts as a relay station for regulation sensory inputs to the cerebrum
Thalamus
72
Specialized glial cells in the brain and spinal cord.
Oligodendrocytes
72
It is a receptor that is continuous to sustain perpendicular pressure.
Merkel discs and tactile corpuscles
72
Conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body toward another neuron
Axon
72
It is a receptor that detects muscle length and velocity of muscle stretch
Muscle spindles
73
Muscle spindles and cutaneous afferents are what type of neuron?
Pseudounipolar cells
73
It is a receptor that is responsible for tangential stretching.
Ruffini corpuscles
73
Small gaps in the myelin sheath.
Nodes of Ranvier
73
Collection of neuronal cell bodies in the PNS and their surrounding supporting cells and connective tissue.
Ganglion
73
Connection between the rest of the brain and spinal cord.
Brainstem
73
These are division of the hemispheres of the brain
Lobes
73
Olfactory nerve is what type of neuron?
Unipolar
74
Collection of neuronal cell bodies in CNS
Nucleus
74
Specialized to generate neuronal impulses in their axons when specific stimulus or sensory modality is applied
Receptors
74
Lower motor neurons and interneurons are what type of neuron?
Multipolar
74
It is a receptor that responds to warm or cold temperature, noxious stimuli, pain, and crude mechanical stimulation.
Free nerve endings
75
Auditory nerve is what type of neuron?
Bipolar
75
Type of functional nerve that conduct nerve impulses towards the CNS
Afferent nerve
75
It is the lower motor neuron
Final Efferent Neuron
75
Type of functional nerve that conduct nerve impulses away from the CNS.
Efferent nerve
75
An endocrine “master gland” that regulates production and release of hormones throughout the body.
Pituitary gland
75
It is a receptor that can detect movement but not continual pressure.
Hair follicle receptors
75
Most prominent groove in the brain
Longitudinal fissure
76
SENSORY:AFFERENT::EFFERENT:MOTOR
Correct or wrong?
Correct
76
Serves as a nervous system passageway between the primitive brainstem and the cerebrum.
Diencephalon
76
Largest part of the brain; constitutes the area of the brain responsible for those function most commonly related with higher-order behaviors
Cerebrum
76
Set of fibers that connects the two halves of the cerebral cortex
Corpus callosum
76
They separate gyrus
Fissures and Sulci (Sulcus)
76
Interface between the nervous system and the endocrine system; Also plays a role in temperature regulation, hunger, thrist, and components of rage and anger responses
Hypothalamus
76
___ interneurons, if they release inhibitory neurotransmitters at their synaptic end bulbs.
Inhibitory
76
Group of neuron that conduct nerve impulses from the periphery into the CNS
Primary afferent neuron
76
Second largest component of the brain. Allows the body to have coordinated movement, balance, posture, and complex reflexes
Cerebellum
76
Makes up the wrinkled appearance of the brain
Gyri/Gyrus
76
Short neurons that have their cell bodies and all their processes located entirely within a CNS
Interneuron
76
4 categories of Final efferent neuron
Alpha LMN
Beta LMN
Gamma LMN
Autonomic nervous system LMN
76
Concentrations of myelinated axons form white matter, which generally can be subdivided into ___ or ___ or ___.
tracts or fasciculi or striae
76
___ interneurons, if they release excitatory neurotransmitters at their synaptic end bulbs, or
Excitatory
76
Group of neurons that send their axons long distances before terminating
Projection Neuron
76
Brainstem is composed of ?
Medulla oblongata
Pons
Midbrain
76
CNS matter division that consists primarily of cell bodies of neuronal cells, neuroglia, and intertwined dendrites and both myelinated and unmyelinated axons.
Gray Matter
77
The gray matter covering the surface of the cerebrum or cerebellum
Cortex
77
Regions where white and gray matter mix together.
Reticular Formation
77
CNS matter division that consists of myelinated axons and neuroglia.
White Matter
77
All of the cranial nerves arise from the brainstem, except for the ___ nerves (including those of the vomeronasal organ)
Olfactory
78
The most caudal region of the brainstem. It is distinguished by bilateral longitudinal bands of white matter, the pyramids, that parallel the ventral midline.
Medulla oblongata
79
___ cranial nerves arise from the medulla oblongata. Answer in numbers.
7
79
What are the 7 cranial nerves arise from the medulla oblongata?
CN VI – XII
79
Rostral to medulla oblongata, is distinguished by transverse fibers along its ventral surface.
Pons
80
Rostral to the pons, the ventral surface of the midbrain features a ___ ___ fossa between bilateral cerebral peduncles.
Median interpeducular fossa
80
The ___ nerve connects to the pons
CN V/Trigeminal
80
The ___ nerve and the ___ nerve arise from the midbrain, the latter exist from the dorsal surface.
Oculomotor nerve (CN III) and the trochlear (CN IV)
80
Rostral extent of the brainstem.
Pons
80
What fissure separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum?
Cerebral transverse fissure
80
Layer of meninges that is from outside to the innermost layer; tough
Fibrous dura
80
Layer of meninges that is very thin and lies directly on the surface of the brain and spinal cord.
Pia mater
80
The serous pericardium consists of two membranes. The ___ layer of the serous pericardium lies directly on the surface of the heart
Visceral
81
Set of connective tissue layers that surround the brain and spinal cord.
Meninges
81
What fissure separates the right and left hemispheres?
Cerebral Longitudinal Fissure
81
Located in the middle of the thoracic cavity in the mediastinum, the space between the two lungs.
Heart
81
Layer of meninges that is delicate spider web-like
Arachnoid
81
The serous pericardium consists of two membranes. A smooth, moist serous membrane called the ___ layer of the serous pericardium lines the pericardial sac
Parietal
81
The brain and spinal cord are bathed and protected from the hard inner surface of the skull and spinal column by a fluid called the ___.
Cerebrospinal fluid
81
The continuation of Interatrial septum. Separates the left and right Ventricles.
Interventricular septum
81
Bounded by the thoracic inlet cranially, the diaphragm caudally, the sternum ventrally, and the spinal column dorsally.
Mediastinum
82
Outermost layer of the heart wall
Epicardium
82
Middle and thickest layer of heart
Myocardium
82
Interventricular groove contains ___ blood vessels and is frequently filled with ___.
Coronary, fat
82
Two types of artery
Elastic and muscular arteries
82
Venules have thin enough walls that some fluid exchange between ___ fluid and ___ can take place.
Interstitial, plasma
82
A continuation of myocardium. This separates the left and right Atrium.
Interatrial septum
82
The membrane that lies in the internal surface of the myocardium; forms the lining of the heart chambers
Endocardium
82
Three layers of arteries and veins
Inner layer – Endothelium
Middle layer – Smooth muscles, elastic fibers, or both
Outer layer – Fibrous connective tissue and collagen fibers
82
Heart has __ chambers and __ atria and __ ventricle.
4, 2, 2
82
The area of the interventricular septum that is visible on the outside of the heart.
Interventricular Groove
82
The atria are identified on the outside of the heart by their ___.
Auricles
82
Right ventricle is thinner than left ventricle. True or False?
True
82
Superficial layers of skin, consisting of continually renewed stratified squamous epithelium
Epidermis
82
The walls of veins are consist of ?
Endothelium
A thin muscle layer
A few fibrous connective tissue cells
82
Combination of interatrial septum and interventricular septum.
Atrioventricular Septum
82
The two valves that control blood flow out of the ventricles and into arteries are the semilunar valves, so named because they have three cusps, each of which resembles a crescent moon.
Pulmonary valve (Right Semilunar valve)
Aortic valve (Left Semilunar valve)
82
Component of lymphatic system consisting lymphatic tissue found on all organs and lymph nodes.
Cellular component
82
Collagen fiber cords that prevent the valve from opening backwards.
Chordae tendineae
82
Capillary has middle and outer layer. True or False?
False
82
The ___ is the largest elastic artery in the body.
Aorta
82
Inadequate lymph drainage causes ?
Edema
82
Their Mmain Function is to trap and process antigens and mature lymphocytes that mediate immune responses.
Secondary lymphoid organs
82
Component of lymphatic system consisting lymph vessels and lymph duct system.
Vascular component
82
Changes in plasma lipid concentrations and composition occurring after a meal.
Postprandial Lipemia
82
A lymphatic structure found at the caudal end of the thoracic duct that receives lymph draining from the abdominal and pelvic viscera and lower limbs.
Cisterna Chylii
82
Lymph from the digestive system is called ?
It is usually color white or pale yellow and cloudy.
Chyle
82
Largest when an animal is young, but shrinks and is replaced by fat as the animal matures.
Production of Mature T cells from pre-cursors sent from the Bone marrow.
Stimulates a cell-mediated immune response.
Thymus
82
Hematopoietic stem cells gives rise to two main type of cells which are?
Myeloid lineage and Lymphoid lineage
82
Consists of the skin, hair, skin glands, claws, hooves, and horn
Common Integument
82
What is the angle of injection when it is subcutaneous?
45
82
Contains blood vessels, tissue macrophages, and blood cell storage spaces called sinuses
Red pulp
82
Formed of localized areas of lymphoid tissue
White pulp
82
Small, kidney bean-shaped filters located at various points along lymphatic vessels. Has a cortex and medulla which has lymphatic sinuses running through it.
Lymph Nodes
82
What is the angle of injection when it is intramuscular?
90
82
Supplies body tissues with oxygen, nutrients, and various chemicals.
Blood
82
Tongue-shaped organ located on the left side of the abdomen. Filters blood and lymph.
Spleen
82
Also called the hypodermis or subcutis; the layer of areolar connective tissue and interspersed fat connecting the skin to underlying structure. It can also be called the superficial fascia
Subcutaneous Layer
82
What is the angle of injection when it is intradermal?
10 - 15
82
Nodules of lymphoid tissues that are not covered with a capsule. Found in epithelial surfaces all over the body. Prevent the spread of infection into the respiratory and digestive system.
Tonsils
82
What is the angle of injection when it is intravenous?
25
82
Known as Oil Glands; Simple alveolar holocrine glands usually connected to hair follicles.
Sebaceous glands
82
An inconsistently present fourth layer, is made of flat, dead squamous cells containing translucent droplets of Eleidin.
Stratum lucidum
82
What vitamin does skin synthesizes?
Vitamin D3
82
Type of lymphocyte that is produced by the bone marrow and matures in the Thymus. Coordinate immune defenses and kill organisms on contact.
T-lymphocytes
82
Type of WBC that is involved in the immune response and works against specific antigens. Formed in the bone marrow and matures in lymphatic tissues throughout the body.
Lymphocyte
82
Type of lymphocyte that is produced and mature in the bone marrow differentiate into plasma cells and memory cells.
B-lymphocytes
82
The cells lining the sebaceous glands disintegrate to form the secretion ___.
Sebum
83
The thin organ covering the body, protecting underlying tissues from injury, drying, and bacterial invasion.
Skin or cutis
83
Vitamin D3 is also known as?
Cholecalciferol
83
The long, slender, filamentous appendage of the skin composed of keratinized epithelial cells
Hair
83
Layer above the stratum basale composed of polyhedral cells.
Stratum spinosum
83
Layer of epidermis that is deepest layer and consists of a single sheet of cuboidal to columnar cells capable of cell division.
Stratum basale
83
Consists of flat, dead, cornified cells completely filled with keratin, a waterproofing protein
Stratum corneum
83
Composed of squamous cells in different stages of degeneration, and contain keratohyalin granules involved in forming keratin.
Stratum granulosum
83
Collective term for S. basale and S. spinosum
Stratum Germinativum
83
Also called corium; the layer of skin directly below and separated from the epidermis by a basement membrane. It consists of collagenous and elastic connective tissue containing blood vessels, nerve fibers, glands, and hair follicles.
Dermis
83
Also known as Sudoriferous gland. Simple, coiled, tubular glands of the skin that open independently of hair follicles.
Sweat glands
83
Sebum of the fleece of sheep
Lanolin
83
A tiny muscle connected to each hair follicle and the skin. When it contracts it causes the hair to stand erect, and a "goosebump" forms on the skin
Arrector Pili Muscle
83
A modification of the epidermis in the carnivores, conforming to and enclosing the ungual process of the distal phalanx.
Claw
83
The hairless, cushion-like pads on the palmar/plantar side of the limbs. The toughest skin on the dog, the epidermis is thick and highly keratinized with a rough surface due to many papillae.
Pads
84
Also called Auricles; External visible part of the ear
Pinna
85
External auditory canal / meatus is composed of?
Horizontal Ear Canal
Vertical Ear Canal
86
Middle Ear is consists of the ?
Tympanic Cavity
Auditory Tube / Eustachian Tube
Tensor Tympani
Tympanic Membrane
Auditory ossicles
87
Tympanic membrane is also called as the ?
Eardrum
87
Organ of vision; most of its components exist to help form an accurate visual image, not to detect one.
Eyes
88
What are the three auditory ossicles?
Malleus
Incus
Stapes
89
Its main role is to help focus a clear image on the retina regardless of whether the object being viewed is close up or far away.
Lens
90
3 chambers of eyes are ?
Anterior Eye Chamber, Posterior Eye Chamber, and Vitreous Chamber
91
Outer fibrous tunic is composed of ?
Cornea, Sclera and Limbus
92
Inner nervous tunic is composed of ?
Retina
92
Middle Vascular Tunic is composed of ?
Choroid, Ciliary body, and Iris
93
Retina is mainly for ___ formation.
Image
94
Photoreceptors are composed of ?
Rods and cones
95
Rods is for detecting ?
Lightness and darkness
96
Cones is for detecting ?`
Colors
96
Third eyelid is also called as ?
Nictitating membrane
96
Give one gland of eyelids.
Tarsal glands/Meibomian glands
97
Refers to the corner of the eye where the upper and lower eyelids meet.
Canthus
97
Pinna is composed of ?
Scapha
Helix
Anthelix
Cutaneous marginal pouch
Tragus
Antitragus
Intertragic incisure
98
Contains the hearing portion / receptors of the ears
Cochlea
98
Contains the receptors for balance
Semicircular canals
98
Inner Ear structures are ?
Cochlea
Vestibule
Semicircular canals
99
Sac-like spaces of vestibule
Saccule and Utricle
100
Sensory epithelium of vestibule
Macula
101
Muscular organ filling the oral cavity
Tongue
102
What are the types of papillae found in the tongue?
Filiform papillae
Conical papillae
Lenticular papillae
Fungiform papillae
Foliate papillae
Vallate papillae
103
Thorn-shaped structures serving the mechanical function of directing food caudally. Located at the dorsum and rarely do they extend caudal to the level of the vallate papillae.
Filiform papillae
103
Cone-shaped papillae located on the caudal third of the tongue’s dorsum. Also has a mechanical function.
Conical papillae
104
Convex lens in shape found in the middle part of torus linguae, and were covered by a keratin layer.
Lenticular papillae
105
Mushroom-shaped papillae. Have taste-buds. Scattered among the more numerous filiform papillae.
Fungiform papillae
106
Largest and the least numerous of the papillae.
Vallate
107
Tongue papillae that has a series of leaf-shaped ridges separated by furrows on the lateral border of the tongue.
Foliate papillae
108
Found along the edges of the rostral half of the newborn puppy’s tongue. Disappears when the diet changes from milk to solids.
Marginal papillae
