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REVIEWERS 2ND YEAR/3RD SEM > ANAT101A MIDTERMS > Flashcards

ANAT101A MIDTERMS Flashcards

1
Q

Basic structural and functional unit of life

A

Cell

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2
Q

Sum total of physical and chemical processes

A

Metabolism

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3
Q

Constructive phase of metabolism

A

Anabolism

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4
Q

Destructive phase of metabolism

A

Catabolism

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5
Q

All cells in the body except sperm and egg

A

Somatic cells

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6
Q

Sperm cell and egg cell are ___ cells.

A

Germ cells

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7
Q

Resting phase of cell division

A

Interphase

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8
Q

Part of interphase where the DNA is being synthesized

A

S phase

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9
Q

Part of interphase where the cell is ready to enter cell division

A

G2 phase

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10
Q

Part of interphase where it covers all the events before the actual DNA synthesis

A

G1 phase

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11
Q

What phase is the condensation of nuclear materials?

A

Prophase

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12
Q

Phase where sister chromatid will attach to spindle fibers of opposite poles

A

Anaphase

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13
Q

In prophase, nuclear materials become larger and lighter. True or False?

A

False

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14
Q

Nuclear membrane dissolves in prophase while nucleolus doesn’t. True or False?

A

False

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15
Q

It is a cell part contained within nucleus and contains RNA.

A

Nucleolus

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15
Q

What plane do chromosomes ligned up at metaphase?

A

Equatorial Plane

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16
Q

How many dadughter cells are formed in the whole cell division phase (mitosis)?

A

Two daughter cells

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17
Q

It is the division of nucleus.

A

Karyokinesis

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18
Q

What phase does karyokinesis occur?

A

Anaphase

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19
Q

It is the division of cytoplasm.

A

Cytokinesis

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20
Q

What phase/s does cytokinesis occur?

A

Late prophase to telophase

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20
Q

Nuclear barrier limiting the passage of substances between nucleus and cytoplasm.

A

Nuclear membrane

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21
Q

Type of endoplasmic reticulum that synthesizes lipid, steroid, and carbohydrate.

A

SER

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21
Q

It synthesizes, protein, lipid, steroid and carbohydrates.

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

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22
Q

Principal barrier regulating inflow/outflow of cytoplasmic activities.

A

Cell membrane

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23
Q

Cell wall is more ridgid than cell membrane. True or False?

A

True

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24
Q

Helps in the formation of spindle fibers during cell division.

A

Centriole

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24
Q

It contains DNA

A

Nucleus

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25
Q

Mitochondrion produces ATP through?

A

Krebs Cycle

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26
Q

Packaging center of cell

A

Golgi apparatus

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27
Q

Cell part that synthesizes protein.

A

Ribosomes

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28
Q

It contains DNA

A

Chromosome

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29
Q

These parts synthesize protein except:
1. RER
2. Bounded Ribosomes
3. SER
4. RNA
5. Free Ribosomes

A

SER

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30
Q

Type of ribosome suspended in cytoplasm.

A

Free ribosomes

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31
Q

Type of ribosome attached on the wall of RER.

A

Bounded ribosomes

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32
Q

Vacuole is storage for ___ and ___.

A

Starches and glycogen.

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33
Q

Large central vacuole is usually present in animal cell. True or False?

A

False

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34
Q

When vacuole is present in animal cell, it serves to store what?

A

Minerals, proteins, and pigments

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35
Q

Type of ribosome intended for external use.

A

Bounded ribosomes

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36
Q

Bounded ribosome exits the cell in the form of ___.

A

Protein hormone

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36
Q

It contains the cell organelles.

A

Cytoplasm

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37
Q

It is the study of normal body parts.

A

Anatomy

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38
Q

It is the study of normal body functions.

A

Physiology

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39
Q

Methods and techniques applied in animal production

A

Zootechniques

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39
Q

An aggregate/ group of cells with similar and coordinated functions from body tissues.

A

Tissues

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39
Q

The study of microbes

A

Microbiology

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39
Q

There can be no organism without?

A

Cells

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40
Q

Give the five microbes that have uncertain taxonomic classification.

A

Mycoplasma, ureaplasma, ricketsia, anaplasma, and chlamydia

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40
Q

The study of parasites

A

Parasitology

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41
Q

The five microbes that have uncertain taxonomic classification are usually treated by ___.

A

Tetracycline

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42
Q

The study of reflections of body responses to injuries

A

Pathology

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43
Q

Father of physiology

A

William Harvey

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43
Q

Nature, transmission, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of animal diseases.

A

Medicine and surgery

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43
Q

The study of drugs

A

Pharmacology

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44
Q

Father of veterinary medicine

A

Publius Flavius Vegetius Renatus

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45
Q

Father of taxonomy

A

Carolus Von Linnaeus

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45
Q

Father of modern bacteriology

A

Robert Koch

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46
Q

Grandfather of pharmacology

A

Paracelsus

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47
Q

Discovered the double helical stand of DNA

A

Watson and Crick

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47
Q

Father of comparative anatomy

A

Andreas Vesalius

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48
Q

Father of modern pathology

A

Rudolf Virchow

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49
Q

Discovered cells

A

Robert Hooke

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49
Q

Father of modern microbiology

A

Louis Pasteur

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49
Q

Father of evolution

A

Charles Darwin

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50
Q

Father of modern parasitology

A

Rudolf Leuckart

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50
Q

Father of embryology

A

Karl Earns von Baer

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51
Q

Proponents of cellular theory of life

A

Matthias Schleiden
Theodore Schwann

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52
Q

What is the first antibiotic?

A

Salvarsan/Compound 606

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53
Q

Salvarsan/Compound 606 is used to treat?

A

Syphilis

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54
Q

Father of human anatomy

A

Galen/Galenus Von Perganon

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55
Q

Who made the first antibiotic?

A

Paul Ehrlich

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56
Q

Why is William Harvey the father of physiology?

A

He discovered blood circulation

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57
Q

Date when cells were discovered

A

1665

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58
Q

Penicillin is for what type of bacteria?

A

Gram + bacteria

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59
Q

Date when the double helical strand of DNA was discovered

A

1953

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60
Q

Date when the first antibiotic was discovered

A

1910

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61
Q

Selman Waksman made what medicinal compound?

A

Streptomycin

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62
Q

Streptomycin is for what type of bacteria?

A

Gram - bacteria

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62
Q

Date when blood circulation was discovered

A

1628

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63
Q

Nowadays, ___ is used rather than streptomycin.

A

Gentamycin/Gentamicin

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64
Q

Nowadays, ___ is used rather than penicillin.

A

Vancomycin

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65
Q

Matthias Schleiden is a botanist. True or False?

A

True

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66
Q

Branch of natural science which deals with animal parts.

A

Veterinary Anatomy

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67
Q

Sub-branch of veterinary anatomy which deals with the interrelationships between anatomical forms and body functions.

A

Morphophysiology

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68
Q

Sub-branch of veterinary anatomy which deals with the forms and structures of animals.

A

Morphology

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68
Q

Branch of veterinary anatomy that deals with embryonic and fetal development of organisms.

A

Embryology

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69
Q

Sub-branch of veterinary anatomy which deals with the anatomical forms emphasized in distinguishing characteristics.

A

Morphoanatomy

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70
Q

Study of visceral organs

A

Splanchnology

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70
Q

Branch of veterinary anatomy that deals with animal parts visible to the eye

A

Macroscopic/Gross Anatomy

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71
Q

Study of circulatory system

A

Angiology

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72
Q

Study of bones

A

Osteology

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72
Q

Study of special senses

A

Aethesiology

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73
Q

Study of nervous structures

A

Neurology

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74
Q

Study of joins and articulations

A

Arthrology

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74
Q

Study of muscles

A

Myology

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75
Q

Other term for frontal plane of section

A

Coronal/Dorsal plane

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76
Q

Other term for sagittal plane of section

A

Tangential

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77
Q

Other term for transverse plane of section

A

Horizontal/Cross-sectional

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78
Q

Other term for longitudinal median plane of section

A

Mid-sagittal

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79
Q

Topographical term pertaining to the lower side

A

Ventral

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80
Q

Topographical term pertaining to parts facing the head

A

Anterior/cranial

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81
Q

Topographical term pertaining to cranial end of the head

A

Rostral

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82
Q

Topographical term pertaining to the parts facing the tail

A

Posterior/caudal

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83
Q

Topographical term pertaining to the head

A

Cephalic

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84
Q

Topographical term pertaining to the upper side

A

Dorsal

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85
Q

Topographical term pertaining to the parts facing the tail

A

Posterior/caudal

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86
Q

Topographical term pertaining to limbs/extremities away from the midline

A

Distal

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87
Q

Topographical term pertaining to limbs/extremities’ surface near the midline

A

Medial

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88
Q

Topographical term pertaining to limbs/extremities near the midline

A

Proximal

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89
Q

Topographical term pertaining to limbs/extremities’ surface far from the midline

A

Lateral

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90
Q

Topographical term pertaining to internal organ’s uppermost

A

Superior

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91
Q

Topographical term pertaining to internal organ’s undermost/under parts toward the tail

A

Inferior

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92
Q

Topographical term pertaining to solid organ’s outer/peripheral region

A

Superficial/Optical/Cortex

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93
Q

Topographical term pertaining to solid organ’s inner/central region

A

Medulla/Medullary

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94
Q

Dorsal surface of manus and pes

A

Volar

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95
Q

Ventral surface of manus

A

Palmar

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96
Q

Ventral surface of pes

A

Plantar

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97
Q

Teeth surface facing the tongue/inside

A

Lingual

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98
Q

Teeth surface facing the lips/outside

A

Labial

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99
Q

Top surface of teeth

A

Occlusal

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100
Q

Chromosome number of rat

A

42

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101
Q

Chromosome number of donkey

A

62

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102
Q

Chromosome number of pig

A

38

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103
Q

Chromosome number of rabbit

A

44

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104
Q

Chromosome number of hen

A

77

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105
Q

Chromosome number of rooster

A

78

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106
Q

Chromosome number of sheep

A

54

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107
Q

Chromosome number of horse

A

64

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108
Q

Chromosome number of goldfish

A

94

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109
Q

Chromosome number of hamster

A

44

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110
Q

Chromosome number of mouse

A

40

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111
Q

Chromosome number of cattle

A

60

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112
Q

Chromosome number of goat

A

60

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113
Q

Chromosome number of dog

A

78

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114
Q

Chromosome number of cat

A

38

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115
Q

Chromosome number of elephant

A

56

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116
Q

Chromosome number of dove

A

16

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117
Q

Chromosome number of barbary sheep

A

58

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118
Q

Chromosome number of guinea pig

A

16

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119
Q

Chromosome number of mule

A

63

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120
Q

Chromosome number of hinny

A

63

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121
Q

Any concavities from the surface of the bone

A

Depression

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122
Q

Any holes on the bone

A

Perforation

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123
Q

Any projecting/protruding part from the surface of bone

A

Prominence/Eminence/Projection

123
Q

Give the bones that are classified as non-articular depressions.

A

Fossa, groove, sulcus, impression

124
Q

Give the bones that are classified as articular projections.

A

Head, condyle, facet

125
Q

Give the bones that are classified as non-articular projections.

A

Tuberosity, tubercle, trochanter, spine, line, crest, ridge

126
Q

Applied to articular surfaces of small extent, specially when they are not extremely concave or condensed.

A

Facet

126
Q

Give the bones that are classified as articular depressions.

A

Trochlea, glenoid cavity, cotyloid cavity/acetabulum, fovea

127
Q

Large round non-articular projection that is usually prominent/found in large animal’s humerus.

A

Tuberosity

128
Q

Found at the end of the femur and applied to few non-articular prominence.

A

Trochanter

129
Q

Articular eminence that is somewhat cylindrical.

A

Condyle

130
Q

Small rounded non-articular projection and is usually prominent, found in small animals’ humerus.

A

Tubercle

130
Q

Line and crest are classified as ___.

A

Ridges

130
Q

Rounded articular enlargement at the end of the bone.

A

Head

131
Q

Pointed non-articular projection found at the vertebrae and is most prominent.

A

Spine

132
Q

A classification of ridges that is prominent and sharp.

A

Crest

133
Q

A shallow articular depression in contrast to cotyloid cavity.

A

Glenoid cavity

134
Q

Refers to small or very small ridge found at the medial aspect of the scapula.

A

Line

134
Q

Found at the distal extremity of femur and and is pully-like structure.

A

Trochlea

135
Q

Glenoid cavity articulates with what particular bone?

A

Head of the humerus

136
Q

These are non-articular depressions found usually at a portion of the skull and brain.

A

Sulcus

137
Q

Patella is connected to what bone?

A

Trochlea

137
Q

A deeper articular depression that articulates with the head of the femur.

A

Cotyloid/Acetabulum

138
Q

Small depression on the head of the femur.

A

Fovea

138
Q

A long non-articular depression and present in the proximal to distal extremities of the rib.

A

Groove

139
Q

Ridges/projections in between sulci

A

Gyrus/Gyri

139
Q

A large non-articular depression.

A

Fossa

140
Q

Depression formed by mechanical compression.

A

Impression

140
Q

Sulci can be present without gyuri. True or False?

A

False

141
Q

Shorter, relatively small opening/perforation

A

Foramen

141
Q

A larger opening or perforation

A

Fissure

142
Q

Longer perforation or opening

A

Canal

143
Q

A collecting ridge or projection

A

Jugum/Juga

143
Q

Constricted part which connects the head to the main body/shaft of the bone.

A

Neck

143
Q

A constricted part connecting a process to the body or arch to the body of bones.

A

Notch

144
Q

A hollow boney structure

A

Bulla/Bullae

145
Q

Pertains to the ends/extremities of the bone.

A

Epiphysis

145
Q

Body/shaft of bone

A

Diaphysis

146
Q

Site of growth of the bone

A

Epiphyseal plate

147
Q

Epiphyseal plate is made up of?

A

Hyaline cartilage

147
Q

Junction between diaphysis and epiphysis.

A

Metaphysis

148
Q

What is the growth hormone?

A

Somatotropin

149
Q

It secretes growth hormone.

A

Pars-distalis of adenohypophysis

150
Q

Part of bone that houses the bone marrow

A

Medullary cavity

151
Q

Inner lining of bone

A

Endosteum

152
Q

Outer lining of bone

A

Periosteum

152
Q

Bone marrow is the principal site for ___.

A

Haemopoiesis/blood cell formation

153
Q

This is the stem cell responsible for blood cell formation.

A

Pleuripotential haemapoietic stem cell (PHSC)

154
Q

These are the two stem cells derived from PHSC.

A

Myloid stem cell and lymphoid stem cell.

155
Q

Myloid stem cell is responsible for the production of?

A

RBC, granulocytes, monocytes, and platelets

155
Q

Lymphoid stem cell is responsible for the production of?

A

Lymphocytes

155
Q

Granulocytes are further divided into?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

155
Q

Hard bone tissue

A

Compact bone

155
Q

It lies to the epiphyseal ends.

A

Articular cartilages

155
Q

In young mammals, ___ bones is responsible for RBC formation.

A

Long

155
Q

Perforation or opening that allows nutrients to enter the bone.

A

Nutrient foramen

155
Q

This is the division of skeletal system pertaining to anterior and posterior limbs.

A

Appendicular skeleton

155
Q

Splanchnic skeleton anomaly in female cats.

A

Os clitoridis

155
Q

Axial skeleton is composed of?

A

Skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum

155
Q

Soft-spongy bone tissue

A

Cancellous bone

155
Q

Red bone marrow becomes ___ in adult mammals.

A

Fatty tissues

155
Q

In adult mammals, ___ bones is responsible for RBC formation.

A

Flat

155
Q

Os clitoridis occurs because of ___ in cats.

A

Hormonal imbalance

155
Q

This is the division of skeletal system pertaining to the bones in visceral/internal organs.

A

Splanchnic skeleton

155
Q

This is a classification of bone that diffuses concussions.

A

Short bones

155
Q

This is a classification of bone that acts as levers.

A

Long bones

155
Q

This is the division of skeletal system pertaining to the bones situated along the longitudinal axis of the body.

A

Axial skeleton

155
Q

Patella belongs to what classification of bone?

A

Sesamoid bones

155
Q

Aortic fibrous ring of heart of ox and cattle

A

Os cordis

155
Q

This is a classification of bone that has varied functions.

A

Irregular bones

155
Q

Bone in dog’s penis

A

Os penis/Baculum

156
Q

Splanchnic skeleton in snout of pigs.

A

Os rostri

156
Q

Give an example of irregular bones.

A

Vertebrae and bones of caudal base of skull

156
Q

Generally, long bones have ___ and ___.

A

Epiphysis and diaphysis

156
Q

This is a classification of bone that is hollow connected to the mammals and avian respiratory system.

A

Pneumatic Bone

156
Q

This is a classification of bone that provides large area for muscle attachment.

A

Flat bones

156
Q

This bone is well-developed in animals. (Hint: bone in pectoral girdle)

A

Scapula

156
Q

Proximal carpal is composed of ___, ___, and ___.

A

Radial carpal, ulnar carpal and accessory carpal

156
Q

Collective bone in shoulder

A

Pectoral girdle

156
Q

This bone allows one to grasp

A

Clavicle

156
Q

Manus is composed of ___, ___, and ___.

A

Carpals, metacarpals, phalanges

156
Q

These bones can be found in arm.

A

Humerus

156
Q

Distal carpal is composed of ___, ___, ___, and ___.

A

C1, C2, C3, and C4

156
Q

This bone can be rudimentary or absent in mammals.

A

Coracoid

156
Q

Other term for accessory carpal

A

Pisiforme

156
Q

Other term for radial carpal

A

Scaphoid

156
Q

This bone can be found in arm.

A

Humerus

156
Q

Other term for ulnar carpal

A

Triovetrum

156
Q

Bones in true leg

A

Tibia and fibula

156
Q

Other term for C3

A

Os capitatum

156
Q

Other term for C1

A

Trapezium

156
Q

Os hametum is carpal number?

A

C4

156
Q

Femur is somehow connected to patella. True or False?

A

False, it is directly connected.

156
Q

Other term for pelvic girdle

A

Os coxae

156
Q

Other term of C2

A

Trapezoideum

156
Q

Os cuneiform laterale is for T_?

A

T3

156
Q

Ilium, ischium, and pubis is situated along what region of the body?

A

Pelvic region

157
Q

Proximal tarsal is composed of?

A

Tibial tarsal, fibular tarsal, and central tarsal

157
Q

Bone in thigh

A

Femur

157
Q

Distal tarsal is composed of?

A

T1, T2, T3,T4

157
Q

Os aboideum is for T_?

A

T4

157
Q

Pes is composed of ___, ___, and ___.

A

Tarsal, metatarsals, and phalanges.

157
Q

Os cuneiform mediate is for T_?

A

T1

157
Q

Os cuneiform intermedium is for T_?

A

T2

157
Q

Frontal is unpaired bone in skull. True or False?

A

False

157
Q

Paired bones in facial part are premaxilla, vomer, nasal, maxilla, and dorsal and ventral nasal conchae. True or False?

A

False

157
Q

Give the 5 unpaired bones of the skull.

A

Basioccipital, supraoccipital, ethmoid, interparietal, basisphenoid.

157
Q

Give the 4 paired bones of the skull.

A

Exoccipital, parietal, frontal and temporal.

157
Q

Formula of vertebral column.

A

C7-T13-L7-S3-CD6 to 23

157
Q

Tail vertebrae

A

Caudal vertebrae

157
Q

Neck vertebrae

A

Cervical vertebrae

157
Q

Croup vertebra

A

Sacral vertebrae

157
Q

Other term for conchae

A

Turbinate

157
Q

Other term for scapula

A

Blade bone/scapula bone

157
Q

Back vertebrae

A

Thoracic vertebrae

157
Q

Forms the lateral wall of thorax

A

Ribs

157
Q

Thorax is composed of?

A

Ribs and sternum

157
Q

Forms the ventral wall of thorax

A

Sternum

157
Q

Other term for clavicle

A

Collar bone/Wish bone/Furcula

157
Q

Clavicle is well developed in sea mammals. True or False?

A

False

157
Q

Articulates proximally with glenoid cavity of scapula.

A

Humerus

158
Q

Scapula is flat circular bone at the top of the shoulder. True or False?

A

False, it is flat triangular bone.

158
Q

Other term for humerus

A

Clod bone

158
Q

Radius is longer than ulna. True or False?

A

False

158
Q

Strongest bone for flight

A

Coracoid

158
Q

Coracoid is a stout bone. True or False?

A

True

158
Q

Articulates distally with radius and ulna

A

Humerus

159
Q

There are 3 carpals and 4 distal carpals in dogs. True or False?

A

True

159
Q

This is also called round bone.

A

Femur

160
Q

There are only 4 metacarpals in dogs. True or False?

A

False, 5.

160
Q

Cranio-ventral bone of os coxae

A

Pubis

161
Q

Caudo-dorsal bone of os coxae

A

Ischium

162
Q

There are 4 proximal, 4 middle, and 5 phalanx in phalanges of dogs. True or False?

A

False, 5 proximal.

162
Q

Femur articulates distally with?

A

Patella and tibia

163
Q

Largest and cranial most bone of os coxae

A

Ilium

164
Q

Articulates proximally with os coxae

A

Femur

165
Q

Ilium:Haunch/Hook::Ischium:Pin
—Correct or wrong

A

Correct

166
Q

Larger and medial bone of the leg or crus

A

Tibia

166
Q

Shorter and lateral bone of crus

A

Fibula

167
Q

The 5th metatarsal in dogs is almost rudimentary.

A

False, 1st metatarsal

167
Q

Other term for fibula

A

Brooch bone

168
Q

A cavity in the substance of bone that communicates with the nostril and contain air.

A

Sinus

169
Q

These are slightly movable joints.

A

Amphiarthroses

169
Q

Phalanges is almost same with manus, except for?

A

Phalanx 1

169
Q

A joint between the skulls that is classified as synarthrose.

A

Suture

169
Q

Paranasal sinuses are found in?

A

Maxillary, ethmoidal, frontal, sphenoidal

170
Q

The ventral wall of a cavity

A

Floor

170
Q

The lateral boundaries of a cavity

A

Wall

170
Q

A hollow or potential space within the body, or on of its organs

A

Cavity

170
Q

What are the classification of joints in the body?

A

Synarthroses, diarthroses, and amphiarthroses

170
Q

The dorsal wall of a cavity

A

Roof

170
Q

Fixed or immovable joint

A

Synarthroses

170
Q

Mandibular and pelvic symphysis are classified as what type of joint?

A

Synarthroses

171
Q

Study of joints and articulation

A

Arthrology/Syndesmology

172
Q

Atlanto-axial joint

A

Trochoid/pivot joint

172
Q

What is an example of amphiarthroses?

A

Intercentral vertebral joint

172
Q

Teeth articulation on alveoli of mandible and maxilla that is classified as synarthroses

A

Gomphosis

172
Q

Atlanto-occipital joint

A

Ginglymus/hinge joint

172
Q

Joint in the intercarpals

A

Arthrodia/gliding joint

173
Q

This is the joint located in the scapular articulation on head of humerus and os coxae articulation on head of femur.

A

Enathroses/ball and socket joint

174
Q

Classifications of muscle

A

Skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscles

175
Q

Striated and voluntary muscle

A

Skeletal muscle

175
Q

Striated and involuntary muscle

A

Cardiac muscle

176
Q

Gallbladder falls under what type of muscle?

A

Smooth muscle

177
Q

Non-striated and involuntary

A

Smooth muscle

178
Q

Involuntary muscles are controlled by?

A

Autonomic nervous system

179
Q

The involuntary muscle movement that moves food through your gastrointestinal tract.

A

Peristalsis

179
Q

Voluntary muscles are controlled by?

A

Central nervous system

179
Q

Why is there muscle striations?

A

Presence of light and dark bands in muscle fiber

180
Q

What is the muscle responsible for the erection of skin hairs?

A

Arrector Pili Muscle

181
Q

Bronchi is what type of muscle?

A

Smooth muscle

181
Q

It covers individual muscle fiber/myofibrils.

A

Endomysium

181
Q

Moves body part toward mid-line

A

Adductor

182
Q

It raises a body part.

A

Levator

183
Q

It covers the entire muscle

A

Epimysium

183
Q

It covers the fascicles which are made up of packs of individual muscle fibers.

A

Perimysium

184
Q

Bends limb at its joint

A

Flexor

185
Q

Rotates palmar/plantar aspect downward

A

Pronator

185
Q

Straightens a limb/increase joint angle

A

Extensor

185
Q

Rotates palmar/plantar aspect upward

A

Supinator

186
Q

Moves body part away from the midline

A

Abductor

187
Q

Bends limb at its joint

A

Flexor

187
Q

Lowers body part

A

Depressor

187
Q

Turns a body part on its axis found near the joints

A

Rotator

188
Q

Fixed portion of the muscle

A

Origin

188
Q

Movable portion of the muscle

A

Insertion

189
Q

Muscles opposing prime mover

A

Antagonist

190
Q

Muscles that holds scapula firmly in place

A

Fixator

190
Q

Enumerate fixators

A

Rhomboids and trapezius

190
Q

Muscle directly responsible for desired body movement

A

Prime mover

191
Q

Supports action of prime mover

A

Synergist

192
Q

1 origin and 3 or more insertions

A

Multipennate

193
Q

Have tapering ends forming leaf shape

A

Fusiform

194
Q

Biceps and rectus thoracis are arranged in?

A

Fusiform

194
Q

Has equal dimension with its insertion

A

Parallel

195
Q

Has broad origin and single tendon for insertion

A

Convergent

196
Q

Give the muscles with multipennate arrangement

A

Deltoideus and multifudus muscle

197
Q

1 origin and 2 insertion

A

Bipennate

198
Q

Rectus femoris and caninus are in what arrangement?

A

Bipennate

199
Q

1 origin and 1 insertion

A

Unipennate

200
Q

Give the muscles with parallel arrangement

A

Latissimus dorsi and abdominal muscle

201
Q

Muscle is round shaped and surrounds body opening

A

Circular

202
Q

Digital extensor is arranged in?

A

Unipennate

202
Q

Example of muscle with circular arrangement

A

Orbicularis oculi

203
Q

Example of muscle with convergent arrangement

A

Pectoralis

204
Q

Greek terms are usually used in naming muscles. True or False?

A

False

205
Q

Facial muscles

A

Sphincter colli superficialis
Platysma
Sphincter colli profundus

206
Q

Pars oralis muscles

A

Orbicularis oris
Incisivus superioris et inferioris
Maxillonasolabialis
Caninus
Buccinators: pars bucalis (dorsal part), pars molaris (ventral part)

207
Q

Deep facial muscles

A

Stapedius
Digastricus
Stylohyoideus (absent in Beagles)
Jugulohyoideus

208
Q

Tongue muscles

A

Genioglossus
Hyoglossus
Styloglossus
N. propia linguae

208
Q

Other facial muscles

A

Frontalis
Orbicularis oculi
Tetractor anguli oculi lateralis
Levator anguli oculi medialis
Zygomaticus
Palpebral muscle

209
Q

Masticatory muscles

A

Masseter
Temporalis
Pterygoideus medialis et lateralis

210
Q

Pharyngeal muscles

A

Hyopharyngeus
Thyropharyngeus
Cricopharyngeus
Palatopharyngeus
Pterypharyngeus

211
Q

Eyeball muscles

A

Levator palpebrae superioris (palpebrae/eyelid)
Superior oblique (obliquus dorsalis)
Inferior oblique (obliquus ventralis)
Retractor bulbi
Rectus/straight muscles (rectus dorsalis, ventralis, lateralis, medialis)

211
Q

Muscles of soft palate

A

Tensor veli palatini
Levator veli palatini
Palatinus

212
Q

Laryngeal muscles

A

Cricothyroideus
Thyroarytenoideus
Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis et lateralis
Vocalis
Ventricularis
Arytenoideus transversus
Hyoepiglotticus

213
Q

External ear muscles

A

Scutuloauricularis superficialis, dorsalis, medius, accessorius
Zygomaticoauricularis
Interscutularis
Tragihelicinus
Parotidoauricularis
Cervicoscutularis
Cervicoauricularis superficialis
Cervicoauricularis profundus major et minor
Occipitalis
Interparietoscutularis
Interparietoauricularis
Obliqui and transversi auriculae

214
Q

Hyoid apparatus muscles

A

Sternohyoideus
Thyrohyoideus
Mylohyoideus
Ceratohyoideus
Geniohyoideus

REVIEWERS 2ND YEAR/3RD SEM (7 decks)

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