ANAT101A FINALS Flashcards
(465 cards)
1
Q
Deals with the visceral organs of digestive, respiratory and urogenital systems
A
Splanchnology
2
Q
System responsible for digestion, nutrient absorption and elimination of waste products in the form of stool/feces
A
Digestive system
3
Q
What are the body parts included in the accessory digestive structures?
A
Teeth, tongue, cheeks, lips and palate
4
Q
What are the body parts included in the digestive tract/alimentary canal?
A
Mouth (oral cavity), pharynx, esophagus, glandular stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus
5
Q
What are the glands included in the digestive glands?
A
Salivary, liver, pancreas
6
Q
It connects the mouth to esophagus and serves as a common passageway for food, water, and air.
A
Pharynx
7
Q
What are the three apertures of pharynx?
A
Oropharynx, nasopharynx, and laryngopharynx
8
Q
Bounded dorsally by palate and upper set of teeth, laterally by the cheeks, ventrally by lower set of teeth and tongue, rostrally by upper and lower lips, and caudally by oropharynx.
A
Mouth
9
Q
What is the junction between the three apertures of pharynx?
A
Pharyngeal proper
10
Q
Ingesta inside the stomach with gastric juice.
A
Chyme
11
Q
What are the three segments of esophagus?
A
Cervical, thoracic and abdominal
11
Q
Long muscular tube serves as passageway for bolus.
A
Esophagus
12
Q
The four layers of esophagus are also present in the stomach, small intestine and large intestine. True or False?
A
False, tunica adventitia is for esophagus only.
13
Q
Thoracic segment becomes abdominal segments through what specific muscle?
A
Hiatus esophagi of the diaphragm
14
Q
Bolus is either strongly acidic/basic. True or False?
A
False, slightly acidic or basic.
15
Q
What are the 4 concentric layers of esophagus?
A
Tunica mucosa (inner), Tunica submucosa (2nd), Tunica muscularis (3rd), Tunica adventitia (outer)
16
Q
What are the components of digestive juice?
A
Hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen
17
Q
ESOPHAGUS:ADVENTITIA::STOMACH:?
A
SEROSA
17
Q
It is the stomach’s surface facing the outside of abdomen.
A
Parietal surface
18
Q
Tunica serosa is a connective tissue that is relatively thinner than Tunica adventitia. True or False?
A
True
19
Q
Muscular belt which temporarily stores chime
A
Stomach
20
Q
Among the four parts of stomach, which one is funnel-shaped?
A
Pylorus
20
Q
What are the two sphincters present in the stomach?
A
Cardiac and pyloric
20
Q
What are the four parts of stomach?
A
Cardia, fundus, body, pylorus
21
Among the four parts of stomach, which one is next to esophagus?
Cardia
22
What is the role of a sphincter?
Prevents the backflow of ingesta
23
Its chief cells are responsible for the secretion of pepsinogen.
Gastric glands
24
They are responsible for the secretion of HCI.
Parietal cell
25
It is the curvature present on the visceral surface.
Lesser curvature
25
It is the stomach's surface facing the other internal organs.
Visceral surface
26
It is the curvature present on the visceral surface.
Lesser curvature
27
The right extremity of stomach is on the parietal surface. True or False?
False, visceral surface.
28
Small intestine is relatively shorter than large intestine. True or False?
False, longer.
28
What is entrance part of the stomach?
Cardia
28
What is the most thick segment of small intestine?
Duodenum
29
What is the exit part of stomach?
Pylorus
30
What are the 3 segments of small intestine?
Duodenum, jejunum, ilium
31
These two ducts empty duodenum's contents.
Bile duct and pancreatic duct
31
The longest segment of small intestine
Jejunum
31
The most movable segment of small intestine
Jejunum
32
What is the certain role of ilium?
Defends the intestine against microorganism
33
The most absorptive segment of small intestine
Jejunum
34
Ilium has defense mechanism because of ___.
Peyer's patches (lymphoid nodules)
35
It is a tube that connects stomach with the large intestine.
Small intestine
36
The segment of small intestine starts at?
Pylorus
37
What is/are the mesenteric part of small intestine?
Jejunum and ilium
38
Duodenum is slightly movable. True or False?
False, it is a fixed segment.
39
It extends from the termination of ilium to the anus.
Large intestine
40
It is a segment of large intestine that may serve as site of fermentation in some animals especially post-gastric fermentor animals.
Cecum
41
What is the longest segment of large intestine?
Colon
42
Colon is main site for ___ and ___ reabsorption.
Water and electrolyte
43
Cecum is the counterpart of ___ in humans.
Appendix
44
Terminal segment of alimentary canal
Anus
44
What is the normal time for the transit time?
12 hours
44
Serves as temporary storage site for food or feces prior to defecation
Rectum
44
Among the three types of secretion, which has the water consistency?
Serous
45
Fermentation in rabbit and horses takes place in ___.
Cecum
45
Liver is 7-sided structure. True or False?
False, 6-sided.
46
What is the sphincter muscle present in the anus?
Sphincter ani externi et interni
47
Liver is situated at?
Situated obliquely against the visceral surface of diaphragm
47
What is the function of sphincter ani externi et interni?
Controls/stops the defecation instinct when feces are in the rectum and anus.
47
Mucous type of secretion has thick consistency due to?
Presence of mucin granules
48
What are the salivary glands present in most mammals?
Parotid, submandibular, sublingual
48
What is the fourth salivary gland present in dogs?
Zygomatic gland
49
What are the three types of secretion?
Serous, mucous, and mixed
50
Parotid is serous in most mammals except in dogs where it is mixed. True or False?
True
51
Zygomatic gland is situated in what fossa?
Interior part of the pterygopalatine fossa
51
Parotid, submandibular, sublingual and zygomatic glands secrete mixed type in dogs. True or False?
True
51
Among the four lobes of the liver, which has papillary process?
Caudate lobe
52
The anatomic unit of liver
Hepatic lobule
52
There are 3-4 lobes present in dog’s liver. True or False?
False, 7-8 lobes.
53
What are the main lobes present in the liver?
Left and right hepatic, median/quadrate, caudate lobe
53
Lightest organ of the body
Lungs
53
Largest gland of the body
Liver
53
Liver has no circumference. True or False?
False
54
Two surfaces of liver
Parietal and visceral
54
Pancreas are situated at?
Between the duodenal loops
55
Pancreas has medial and lateral branches. True or False?
False, dorsal and ventral branches.
56
What are the two portions of pancreas?
Exocrine and endocrine portion
57
Exocrine portion is made up of what cells?
Pancreatic acinar cells
58
Which one secretes pancreatic juice? Exocrine or endocrine?
Exocrine
59
Among the components of pancreatic juice, which one is for fats?
Pancreatic lipase
60
Pancreatic juice is made up of?
Pancreatic amylase, pancreatic lipase, trypsinogen, and chymotrypsinogen.
60
When trypsinogen and chymotrypsinogen becomes active, they digest ___.
Protein
61
Group of cells present in endocrine portion of pancreas.
Islet of Langerhans
61
Among the components of pancreatic juice, which one is for carbohydrates?
Pancreatic amylase
62
Endocrine portion of pancreas is responsible for what hormones?
Glucagon and insulin
63
Glucagon decreases blood sugar level. True or False?
False
63
Responsible for chopping, grinding and chewing the food.
Teeth
63
4 types of teeth
Incisors, canines, premolar, and molar
64
Among the four types of teeth, which has the permanent dentition?
Molar
65
Among the four types of teeth, which has the temporary dentition?
Incisor, Premolar, Molar
65
What are the 3 surfaces of teeth?
Labial, lingual, occlusal
65
What are the layers of teeth?
Cementum, enamel, dentine, pulp cavity
66
Cementum is the outer layer of whole teeth. True or False?
False, cementum is outer layer of root only.
66
What are the regions of teeth?
Crown, neck, root
67
What are two carnassial teeth of dogs?
Last upper premolar, first lower molar
67
What is the outer layer of crown?
Enamel
68
What do you call the cutting teeth of dogs?
Carnassial teeth or shearing teeth
69
Tongue is formed by what muscles?
Mylohyoid muscles
70
The mucous membrane of tongue's dorsum is villated. True or False?
False, papillated.
70
What are the 3 parts of tongue?
Root, body, and apex
70
Dorsum of tongue refers to the ___.
Free dorsal surface
71
What papillae types is/are most prominent?
Vallate and foliate
71
What are the 4 main types of papillae?
Filiform (bristle like), fungiform (mushroom shape), foliate (leaf shape), vallate (v-shape)
72
Have base, free border, oral, and aboral surfaces
Soft palate
72
___ pillars run from the free border of the aboral surface to meet over the commencement of the esophagus.
Posterior
73
___ pillars are two short, thick folds which run from the free border of the oral surface to either side of the tongue.
Anterior
74
It is continuous with the soft palate behind
Hard palate
75
Hard palate is bounded in front and on either side by the ___.
Alveolar arches
76
The bony basis of the hard palate is formed by palatine processes of:
Premaxilla, maxilla, and horizonal part of palatine bones
77
Functions of respiratory system
Respiration, phonation, olfaction
78
Formed by the vomer and other tissues and it separates the left and right nasal cavity
Nasal septum
79
Cylindrical passage and close by facial bones
Nasal Cavity
80
Dorsal boundary of the nasal cavity is ___.
Nasal bone
81
Bounded dorsally by the nasal bone, bounded laterally by the pre maxilla and maxilla, the ventral boundary is formed by the palatine bone, the rostral boundary of nasal cavity is the nares or the anterior nares or the nostril, and the caudal boundary of the nasal cavity is the so-called posterior nares (choanae)
Nasal cavity
82
Two parts of nasal cavity
Left and Right nasal cavity
83
Cartilaginous valvular apparatus which connects pharynx and trachea
Larynx
83
The voice box
Larynx
84
Three functions of larynx
Air volume regulation, prevent aspiration of foreign bodies and to act as the organ of voice
85
Total number of cartilages making up the larynx
9
86
Generally speaking, in animals there are ___ pairs and ___ unpaired laryngeal cartilages.
3, 3
87
What are the paired cartilages of larynx?
Arytenoid, curniculates, cuneiforms
88
What are the unpaired cartilages of larynx?
Epiglottis / Epiglottic Cartilage, Cricoid,
Thyroid
89
Serves as a common passageway for digestive and respiratory cracks
Pharynx
90
A cartilaginous and membranous tube which extends from larynx down to bronchi.
Trachea
91
Patency of trachea is due to presence of ___.
Tracheal rings
92
What are the layers of trachea?
Fascia Propria(Adventitia and Serosa), cartilaginous ring, Fibroelastic Layer, Muscular Layer,
Mucus membrane Layer
93
Branching point of bronchi
Carina
94
The point of tracheal bifurcation and then that primary bronchi, that primary left and right bronchi will branch out to form the secondary bronchi, the tertiary bronchi into bronchial into pulmonary alveoli.
Carina
95
The principal organ of respiration
Lungs
96
Surface of parietal pleura facing the thoracic vertebra above
Vertebral Parietal Pleura
96
Four surfaces of lungs
Costal, mediastinal, interlobar, diaphragmatic
97
Mesothelial linings or mesothelial covering of the lungs
Pleura
98
Pleura facing the diaphragm cordially.
Diaphragmatic Parietal Pleura
99
Pleura facing the sternum
Sternal Parietal Pleura
100
Subserous tissue
Endothoracic phasia
101
Counterpart mesothelial lining of pleura in the abdomen.
Peritoneum
102
Space formed at the mid-line by the apposition of right and left pleural membranes and is divided into three parts
Mediastinum
103
Structures passing pre-cardial mediastinum
o Trachea
o Esophagus
o Blood Vessels
o Nerves
o Thymus
104
Structures passing the-cardial mediastinum
o Heart and pericardium
o Esophagus
o Trachea
o Thoracic duct
o Nerves
105
Skeletal muscle that separates the thoracic from abdominal cavity. Is one of the muscle involved in respiration.
Diaphragm
105
Structures passing the post-cardial mediastinum
o Aorta
o Vena azygos
o Thoracic duct
o Esophagus
o Nerves
106
THREE PERFORATIONS IN DIAPHRAGM
Caval Foramen hiatus (Hiatus vena cava) – caudal vena cava
Esophageal hiatus – esophagus, esophageal branch of gastric artery, vagus
Aortic hiatus – aorta, vena azygos, cisterna chyli
107
Parts of diaphragm
Costal, sternal, lumbar part
108
4 functions of urogenital system
Gametogenesis, steroidogenesis, reproduction, excretion
109
Principal male hormone
Testosterone
110
Principal female hormone
Estrogen, progesterone
111
What are the general components of urogenital system?
Kidneys
Ureter
Bladder/ urinary bladder
Urethra
112
What are the general components of female genital system?
Ovary (L & R)
Uterine Tube
Uterus
Vagina
Vulva
113
What are the general components of male genital system?
Testes
Epididymis
Ductus deferens
Prostate
Penis
Prepuce & Scrotum
114
Pear-shaped structure capable of considerable distention, located at the floor of pelvic cavity and temporary storage site for urine
Bladder/Urinary bladder
115
Kidney, in dorsal aspect, is just ventral to the __.
First few lumbar vertebra
116
Paired reddish-brown organs at the site of aorta and vena cava
Kidneys
117
Connects the kidneys to the urinary bladder
Ureter
118
Passage of urine from bladder to exterior
Urethra
119
Two segments of male urethra
Pelvic urethra and penile urethra
120
It also serves as a passageway for seminal fluid during ejaculation
Urethra
121
Terminal segment of urinary system
Urethra
122
Continuous to the ductus deferens
Epididymis
123
It is connected to the epididymis caudally
Testes
124
What is the only accessory sex gland present in dogs?
Prostate gland
125
Penis is surrounded and protected by ?
Prepuce
126
Surrounds and protects the testes
Scrotum/scrotal sac
126
Penis is marked by the presence of ___ that swells during copulation.
Bulbus glandis
127
Site for embryonic and fetal implantation
Uterus
128
Vagina represents the external female genitalia. True or False?
False. Vulva.
129
Ovary produces what?
Oocytes and female hormones
130
Serves as the birth canal
Vagina
131
Union of sperm and egg happens at?
Uterine tube
132
Main-blood filtering organ of the body
Kidneys
132
The structural and functional unit of the kidney and is therefore the main structure for blood filtration to produce urine
Nephron
133
Kidneys are responsible for the elimination of waste products such as ?
Nitrogenous products, salts, microorganisms
134
FIbroconnective tissue covering of the kidney
Renal capsule
134
Represent the superficial/peripheral region of the kidney
Renal cortex
135
What are the structures present at renal cortex?
Glomerulus and bowman's capsule
136
Represents the deeper/central region of the kidney
Renal medulla
137
What are the structures present at the renal medulla?
Rental tubules
138
Glomerulus and bowman's capsule are collectively known as ?
Renal corpuscles
139
Bowman's capsule collects the filtrate from the glomerulus. True or False?
True
140
Filters the blood from afferent arterioles
Glomerulus
140
It transports blood towards the glomerulus
Afferent arterioles
141
Transports blood away from the glomerulus
Efferent arterioles
142
What are structures under renal tubules?
Proximal convoluted and straight tubule
Loop of Henle
Distal convoluted and straight tubule
143
Among the structures under renal tubules, which is responsible for water reabsorption?
Loop of Henle
144
Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) and proximal straight tubule (PST) reabsorbs ___ and ___.
Glucose and amino acids
145
Distal straight tubule (DST); distal convoluted tubule (DCT) are the target sites for ___ and ___.
Diuretic agents and antidiuretic hormones
146
Give examples of antidiuretic hormones
Vasopressin and aldosterone
147
What is the shape of urinary bladder?
Pyriform
148
Connect renal pelvis to the urinary bladder
Ureters
148
What is the meaning of pyriform?
Pyramid-shaped
149
Ureters can transport urine down to the bladder with just the help of gravity. True or False?
False
150
If ureters can't transport urine from the renal pelvis down to the bladder with just gravity, what helps the ureter to transport urine?
Peristaltic waves and the presence of smooth muscles
151
Ureter is valvular. True or False?
True
152
Urinary bladder is a hollow structure. True or False?
True
153
Urinary bladder is located on ___.
Pelvic floor
154
According to urinary bladder's distention, it can extend up to the ___ especially when filled with urine.
Ventral abdominal wall
155
What are the two parts of urinary bladder?
Body and neck
156
Triangular area in the vicinity of the neck with stretch receptors
Trigone
157
Stretching of these receptors in trigon especially when the bladder is filled with urine, signals the brain via ___ nerves to induce ___.
Parasympathetic, micturition/urination
158
Main part of the bladder
Body
159
Constricted portion of urinary bladder connected to the urethra caudally
Neck
160
Serves as a passageway for urine from the bladder to the exterior
Urethra
160
What are the cells in between the seminiferous tubules that is responsible for ___ secretion?
Give the cells and its secretion.
Interstitial cells of Leydig, testosterone
160
Coiled Structures inside the testes which produce sperm cells
Seminiferous tubules
160
___ , the second layer next to T. vaginalis and is continuous to ___.
Tunica albuginea, septa/trabeculae
161
Among the three parts of epididymis, which is the head?
Caput
161
Outer fibrous capsule of the testes
Tunica vaginalis
161
Testosterone is responsible for ?
The development of secondary sexual characteristics
Maintenance of spermatogenesis
162
Parts of epididymis
Caput
Corpus
Cauda
162
Paired ovoid structures surrounded and protected by the scrotal sac (SS)
Testes
163
What are the other structures present in S. tubules? (in order)
Tubuli contorti/ coiled tubules
Tubuli recti/ straight tubules
Rete testis
163
Among the three parts of epididymis, which is the tail?
Cauda
163
SEMINIFEROUS TUBULES:SPERM MATURATION::EPIDIDYMIS:SPERM FORMATION
Correct or wrong?
Wrong, other way around.
163
Located at the middle of the testes; this is continuous to the efferent ducts which are continuous to the epididymis.
Rete testis
164
In superficial aspect, what comes first, Tubuli contorti or Tubuli recti?
Tubuli contorti
164
Convoluted tube for sperm maturation
Epididymis
164
Among the three parts of epididymis, which is the body?
Corpus
164
All the parts of epididymis are principal site for sperm maturation. True or False?
False, only body and tail.
165
Passageway for spermatic cord, blood vessels, and nerves
Inguinal canal
165
Enumerate the accessory sex glands present in most domestic animals.
ampullae/ ampullary gland
vesicular gland/ seminal vesicle
prostate gland/ prostata
bulbourethral/ Cowper’s gland
165
Muscular tube that contracts during ejaculation
Ductus deferens
165
Upon comparing the body and tail of epididymis, which of the two is "more responsible" for sperm maturation?
Tail
165
Serves as passageway for urine from bladder to the exterior and for sperm (penile urethra)
Pelvic and penile urethra
165
Cremaster muscle and tunica dartos have striations. True or False?
False. Cremaster is a skeletal muscle while tunica dartos is a smooth muscle. Striations are present in skeletal and cardiac muscle only.
165
These are responsible for the movement of the testicles closer to or farther from the abdominal wall.
Cremaster muscle, Tunica Dartos
165
Cryptorchidism – could be unilateral (one testes) or bilaterally (both) failure of testes to descend. True or False?
True
165
Ruptured Graafian follicle turns into?
Corpus luteum
165
Cremaster muscle is under what abdominal muscle?
Internal oblique muscle
166
In ovary, corpus luteum produce ?
Progesterone
166
Male organ of copulation
Penis
166
In ovary, estrogen is produced by?
Ovarian follicles
166
An endocrine and cytogenetic organ in females
Ovary
166
Graafian follicle is also called as?
Tertiary follicle
167
Site of fertilization in mammals
Ampullae/Magnum
167
What are the typical parts of ovary?
Tunica albuginea
Ovarian cortex
Ovarian medulla
167
Corpus luteum degenerates in what circumstance?
Unsuccessful fertilization
168
Outer covering of ovary
Tunica albuginea
169
Site of fertilization for avians
Infundibulum
170
Constricted portion of the uterine tube
Isthmus
170
What are the 2 types of uterus?
Bicornuate, bipartite
170
Bipartite has longer horns than its body. True or False?
False
170
It is the ligament that supports ovaries
Mesovarium
170
Bicornuate has longer horns than its body.
True
170
Typical for single-bearing animals because the fetus develop inside the uterine body
Bipartite
171
Type of uterine horn that that is typical for multiple bearing animals because the fetuses are implanted along the uterine walls.
Bicornuate
171
It is a broad ligament supporting uterus
Mesometrium
172
It is the broad ligament that supports uterine tube
Mesosalpins
172
Main functions of cardiovascular system
Blood circulation and nutrient absorption
172
Components of blood
Oxygen, nutrients, waste products
172
Hollow muscular organ that pumps blood through the body
Heart
172
Blood is made up of solid, liquid, and gas (O2 and CO2). True or False?
False. Solid and liquid only.
172
Outermost layer of heart
Epicardium
173
Innermost layer of heart
Endocardium
174
Middle layer of heart
Myocardium
174
Conductive tubes through which the blood flows
Blood vessels
174
Typical mammalian heart has:
_ layers
_ chambers
_ valves
_ major blood vessels
(answers are numbers)
3
4
4
4
174
Thickest layer of the heart
Myocardium
174
What is the valve between left atrium and left ventricle?
Left atrioventricular valve/Bicuspid valve
174
What are the solid components of blood?
RBC, WBC (granulocytes and agranulocytes), Platelets,
175
Inflammation of endocardium from valvular infection
Endocarditis
176
What is the valve between right atrium and right ventricle?
Right atrioventricular valve/Tricuspid valve
177
Smallest cardiac chamber
Right atrium
177
Vena cava is connected to what chamber of the heart?
Right atrium
177
Artery that is connected to right ventricle
Pulmonary artery
177
Largest artery
Aorta
177
Vein that is connected to left atrium
Pulmonary vein
177
Largest vein in the body
Vena cava
178
This valve is present between left ventricle and aorta.
Aortic valve
178
What separates the right and left side of the heart?
Cardiac septum
179
Larger arteries branch out distally to form ___.
Arterioles
179
Pulmonic and aortic valves are collectively known as ?
Semilunar valves
179
At the junction of arterioles and venules are the ___.
Microscopic capillaries
179
Transports mostly deoxygenated blood back to the heart
Vein and venule
179
Veins branch out distally to form ___.
Venules
179
Transports mostly oxygenated blood away from the heart; with some exceptions
Artery and arteriole
180
Situated between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery
Pulmonic valves
181
Vein, venules, artery and arterioles, in their individual structures, are all valvular. True or False?
False. Only vein and venule.
181
There are arteries with deoxygenated blood such as? Hint: 4 arteries
Pulmonary Artery
Umbilical Artery
Omphalomesenteric Artery
Vitelline Artery
181
What type of diffusion do capillaries usually perform?
Simple diffusion
181
What are the fluid components of blood?
Plasma and serum
181
Among the two fluid components of blood, which has clotting factors?
Plasma
181
In total, how many are the clotting factors?
13
181
Clotting factor #1 is also known as?
Fibrinogen
182
Clotting factor #13 is also known as?
FIbrin-stabilizing factor
183
What is the most common form of hemophilia and what clotting factor is responsible for it?
CF#8, Hemophilia A
183
In Hemophilia B, what CF# is responsible?
CF#9
183
In hemophilia, what are the clotting factors affected?
CF#8, CF#9, CF#11
183
CF#_ is responsible for Hemophilia C.
CF#11
183
This type of hemophilia is otherwise known as Christmas hemophilia.
Hemophilia B
183
Technical term for Hemophilia C
Plasmothromboplastin antecedent
183
Technical term for Hemophilia A
Antihemophilic globulin
184
Technical term for Hemophilia B
Plasmathromboplastin component
185
HGB has affinity to ?
Oxygen
185
Biconcave discs with O2 carrying molecule
RBC/Erythrocyte
185
Red blood cell and hemoglobin are the same. True or False?
False. Hemoglobin is the protein present in RBC.
185
___ is essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin.
Iron
185
Soldiers of the body by fighting infections.
White blood cells/Leukocytes
186
Down in iron means the individual is ?
Anemic
186
Leukocytes are classified into?
Granulocyte and agranulocyte
186
All the solid components of blood are classified as cells. True or False?
False, platelets/thrombocytes is not a cell.
187
Three cytoplasmic granules under granulocytes
Neutrophil, eosinophil, and basophil
187
Also known as polymorphonuclears
Neutrophil
187
Increased levels of neutrophil means there is ___ infection.
Bacterial infection
187
These cytoplasmic granules has presence of hypersegmented/ multi-lobed nucleus
Neutrophil
187
Platelets is produced by ___ of bone marrow.
Megakaryocytes
187
Decreased levels of neutrophils means there is ___ infection.
Viral infection
188
These cytoplasmic granules has presence of bilobe.
Eosinophil
189
Basophil is 0 under normal condition so decreased levels is inapplicable. True or False?
True
189
Increased levels of eosinophil means there is ___.
Parasitic infection (either endo or ectoparasites)
189
Agranulocyte that has presence of a large rounded nucleus almost occupying the cytoplasm.
Lymphocyte
189
Increased levels of basophils means there is ___.
Allergic reaction
189
During embryonic development, undifferentiated lymphocytes will be transported into the ___.
Thymus
189
Agranulocyte that is bean-shaped or heart-shaped or nucleus has indented part.
Monocyte
189
These cytoplasmic granules has presence of unilobe to bilobe.
Basophil
190
Two agranulocytes
Lymphocyte and monocytes
191
This component of blood produces immunoglobulins or antibodies.
Plasma
191
What are the classes of antibodies?
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgD
191
In cardiovascular system, it is a big eater cell capable of engulfing/ eating (phagocytosis) of microorganisms.
Macrophage
191
Other undifferentiated lymphocytes will become future ?
B-cells/B-Lymphocytes
191
In avians, some undifferentiated lymphocytes are transported into?
Bursa of Fabricius
191
Situation: Blood cell in circulation during inflammation/ infection.
The ___ goes out into the site of inflammation and is termed the ___.
Hint: Second answer is 2 words.
Monocyte, mobile macrophages
191
B-cell/ B lymphocytes fate will be ___ cells and ___cells.
Memory, plasma
192
Give the 3 vasoactive substances contained in muscle and basophil.
Histamine, serotonin, prostaglandine
193
Upon allergic reaction, the vasoactive substances makes the cell membrane ___ allowing the ___ to exit.
Ruptures, histamine
193
The ___, to which the chordae tendineae are attached, contract during ventricular contraction to tense the chordae tendineae and keep the valves closed.
Hint: One of the supporting structures of the cardiac valves
Papillary muscles
193
These are fibrous cords in the heart that connect the papillary muscles to the atrioventricular (AV) valves, specifically the tricuspid valve in the right side of the heart and the mitral valve in the left side.
Hint: One of the supporting structures of the cardiac valves
Chordae tendinae
193
What are the major blood vessels attached to the heart?
Vena cava
Pulmonary artery
Pulmonary vein
Aorta
193
After histamine exits from the plasma membrane of muscle in the body, what happens to the nearest blood vessel?
Dilates and leaks plasma
193
What are the types of Blood vessels?
Arteries and arterioles
Veins and venules
Capillaries
193
What are common drug that neutralizes the effect of histamine?
Antihistamines
194
Portion of kidney that is continuous to the major calyx into the minor calyx/ calyces
Renal pelvis
194
The system responsible for regulation and coordination of body functions.
Nervous system
194
Structural and functional unit with the property of irritability
Neuron
194
Property of a tissue/ organism to respond to any form of stimuli
Property of irritability
194
What are the neuronal processes?
Axon and dendrites
194
Part of neuron that transmits impulses towards the cell body for interpretation
Dendrites
194
Part of neuron that transmits impulses away from the cell body.
Axon
195
Part of neuron that interprets neuronal impulses coming from dendrites.
Cell body/soma
195
What are the divisions of nervous system?
Central Nervous System
Peripheral Nervous System
195
What are the nerves under peripheral nervous system?
Cranial and spinal nerves
Sympathetic nerves
Parasympathetic nerves
195
Sympathetic nerves is otherwise known as ?
Thoracolumbar nerves
196
Parasympathetic nerves is otherwise known as ?
Craniosacral nerves
196
Peripheral nerves may be voluntary or involuntary. True or False?
True
196
What is the outer protective covering of the brain?
Hint: Bone
Skull
196
Enumerate all the parts of the brain.
Cerebrum
Cerebellum
Brainstem
Hypothalamus
Pituitary gland
Pineal body & Hippocampus
196
Brainstem is composed of ?
Pons and Medulla Oblongata
197
Pons and medulla are the site for digestive center. True or False?
False. Respiratory center.
197
What are the 2 respiratory centers present in the pons and medulla oblongata (which combined is the site of respiratory center)?
Pneumotaxic center
Apneustic center
197
It connects the forebrain and spinal cord.
Brainstem
198
Spinal cord is otherwise known as?
Medulla spinalis
198
The forebrain is composed of ?
Hint: 2 answers
Cerebrum and cerebellum
198
It is the rostral and largest brain compartment.
Cerebrum
198
Part of the brain that is the seat of all conscious activities; memory and intelligence.
Cerebrum
198
The caudal part of the brain that is regarded as the tree of life or "arbor vitae".
Cerebellum
198
Why is cerebellum regarded as the "arbor vitae"?
Due to presence of arborization – branching structures
198
What is the function of cerebellum?
Involuntary function and balance
199
Give the functions of hypothalamus.
Hint: 7 answers
Thirst and hunger center
Thermoregulatory center
Controls sexual behavior
Photoperiodicity
Osmolarity of the blood
Controls circadian rhythm
Controls biological clocks
199
Otherwise known as hypophysis
Pituitary gland
200
Pituitary gland secretes ___ and ___.
Stimulating hormones (SH) and prolactin
200
Pituitary gland is just ventral to the ___.
Hypothalamus
200
Pineal body is otherwise known as the ___.
Epiphysis cerebri
200
Pineal body secretes what hormone?
Melatonin
200
In dogs, ___ is the site of tissue collection for demonstration of ___ bodies which are inclusion bodies in wave disinfection.
Hippocampus, negri
200
Rabies positivity can be detected through what part of brain?
Hippocampus
200
What are inclusion bodies observed in rabies infection?
Negri bodies
201
What are the segments of spinal cord?
Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and caudal segments
201
Nerves arising from the brain and can extend up to thoracic and abdominal regions
Cranial nerves
202
It is the cranial nerve responsible for eyeball muscles; rotation of eyeball. Give the number and name.
CN#3 - Oculomotor
202
It is the cranial nerve responsible for sense of smell. Give the number and name.
CN#1 - Olfactory
202
It is the cranial nerve responsible for sense of sight/vision. Give the number and name.
CN#2 - Optic
202
It is the cranial nerve that innervates the lateral rectus muscle of the eyeball. Give the number and name.
CN#6 - Abduscent/Abduscens
202
It is the cranial nerve that innervates the ophtalmic, maxillary, and mandibular structures. Give the number and name.
CN#5 - Trigeminal
202
What is the largest cranial nerve?
CN#5 - Trigeminal
203
It is the cranial nerve that is responsible for the movement of the superior oblique muscle of the eyeball. Give the number and name.
CN#4 - Trochlear
203
It is the shortest cranial nerve.
CN#4 - Trochlear
204
It is the cranial nerve that is responsible for the sense of audition or hearing and for equilibrium/ balance. Give the number and name.
CN#8 - Vestibulocochlear/ acoustic
204
It is the cranial nerve that innervates the taste buds and is for sense of taste/gustation. Give the number and name.
CN#9 - Glossopharyngeal
204
It is the cranial nerve that innervates the pharyngeal, neck, and some shoulder structures. Give the number and name.
CN#11 - Spinal Accessory
204
It is the cranial nerve that innervates the tongue muscle. Give the number and name.
CN#12 - Hypoglossal
204
It is the cranial nerve that innervates the thoracic and some abdominal organs. Give the number and name.
CN#10 - Vagus
204
It is the longest cranial nerve.
CN#10 - Vagus
204
It is the cranial nerve that innervates the facial muscles. Give the number and name.
CN#7 - Facial nerve
204
Nerves arising from the spinal cord
Spinal nerves
204
Nerves that have excitatory effects to organs
Sympathetic/ thoracolumbar nerves
204
Nerves that have inhibitory effects to organs
Parasympathetic/ craniosacral nerves
204
If there are 5 segments for the spinal cord; there are _ segments for spinal nerves.
5
204
It is the system that secretes metabolically active hormones for various body processes.
Endocrine system
204
Endocrine system secretes (releases) hormones from the cell directly to the ___ for redistribution in the body into the target organ.
Circulation
204
ENDOCRINE:DUCTLESS::EXOCRINE:DUCTS
Correct or wrong?
Correct
204
Give the 4 classifications of hormones.
Peptides
Steroidal
Lipid
Monoamines
204
Peptides are composed of complex protein molecules which includes:
Hint: 4 answers
Hypothalamic
Pituitary
Pancreatic
Parathormone
204
It is a classification of hormone that includes the adrenal cortex hormones and all reproductive/ gonadal hormones except ___.
Give the classification of hormone and answer the blank space.
Steroidal, relaxin
205
___ hormone promotes relaxation of __ ligaments during parturition.
Relaxin, pelvic
205
Relaxin is what type of hormone?
Peptide-type
205
Give one example of hormones classified as lipid hormones.
Prostaglandin
205
A classification of hormone that has one type of amino acid.
Monoamines
205
In monoamines hormone, there can be a variation of amino acid present. What are these two variations?
Tyrosine amino acid
Tryptophan amino acid
205
What are the tyrosine-derived hormones?
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Thyroid hormones
205
What are the tryptophan-derived hormones?
Melatonin
Serotonin
205
What are the two thyroid hormones?
T3 and T4
205
T3 hormone is also known as?
Triiodothyronine
206
T4 hormone is also known as?
Thyroxine/Tetraiodothyronine
207
Hypothalamus secretes what hormones?
Releasing hormones (RH)
208
This hormone have direct effect to hormones secreted by pituitary gland.
Releasing hormones (RH)
209
Pituitary gland is attached to the base of ___.
Hypothalamus
209
Hypothalamus is situated ventral to the ___.
Thalamus
210
What are the 4 parts of pituitary gland?
Pars distalis
Pars tuberalis
Pars nervosa
Pars intermedia
211
It is the part of hypophysis that separates pars distalis from pars nervosa.
Pars intermedia
212
Among the 4 parts of hypophysis, which is directly above anterior pituitary?
Pars tuberalis
212
Among the 4 parts of hypophysis, which is the anterior pituitary?
Pars distalis
212
Among the 4 parts of hypophysis, which is the posterior pituitary?
Pars nervosa
213
ACTH stands for?
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
213
What are the hormones secreted by pars distalis?
GH
ACTH
FSH
TSH
LH
Prolactin
214
The 2 lobes of the thyroid gland is connected to the ___ near the ___ cartilage.
Isthmus, thyroid
215
How many lobes are present in the thyroid gland?
2 distinct lobes
216
T3 and T4 hormone both regulate the ___ of animals. Hint: answer is in 3 words
Basal metabolic rate
216
Scattered among (interstitially) the follicular cells of the thyroid gland.
Parafollicular cells of thyroid
217
This hormone lowers blood calcium by promoting calcium deposition into bones.
Calcitonin
217
Parafollicular cells of thyroid secretes what hormone?
Calcitonin
218
Small aggregates of endocrine tissue near the thyroid gland
Parathyroid gland
219
Parathyroid gland secretes what hormone?
PTH/ parathormone
220
What does parathormone do with blood calcium?
Increases it by promoting calcium withdrawal from bone
221
Hormone that promotes lactic genesis or milk production in the mammary gland.
Prolactin
222
Located between the duodenal loop
Pancreas
222
B-cells of the islet of Langerhans secrete?
Insulin
223
A-cells of the islet of Langerhans secrete?
Glucagon
224
Islet of Langerhans are small masses of exocrine tissue scattered throughout the pancreas. True or False?
False. Endocrine tissue.
225
Adrenal gland is composed of outer adrenal cortex and inner adrenal medulla. What hormone does outer adrenal cortex secretes?
Glucocorticoids
Mineralocorticoids
225
Adrenal gland is composed of outer adrenal cortex and inner adrenal medulla. What hormone does inner adrenal medulla secretes?
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
226
Corpus albicans is made up of?
Fibroblast and other connective tissue
226
The presence of vulvar bleeding and swelling is not the "period" in dogs. True or False?
True
227
Vulvar bleeding represents ___. Hint: stage of estrus cycle
First day of proestrus
227
Estrus stage in dogs is how many days?
1 (proestrus) - 11/13.
11-13 days.
228
What structure in the ovary secrete progesterone?
Corpus luteum
228
What structure in the ovary secrete estrogen?
Graafian follicle
229
___ cells secrete testosterone.
Leydig cells
230
___ is responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristic in male animals.
Testosterone
230
The more immature the sperm cell, the more ___ they are inside the seminiferous tubule.
Peripheral
231
Principal site for spermatocytogenesis
Seminiferous tubule
232
Type of muscle that is made up of branching cells.
Cardiac Muscle
232
It is type of muscle on which its nuclei are located at the periphery of the muscle fibers.
Skeletal Muscle
233
It is type of muscle made up of long, cylindrical, multinucleated cells.
Skeletal Muscles
233
Classified as a striated, voluntary muscle
Skeletal muscle
234
It is type of muscle on which its nuclei are located more centrally.
Cardiac muscle
234
Type of muscle marked by the presence of intercalated disc.
Cardiac muscle
235
Type of muscle made up of fusiform muscles without striations.
Smooth muscle
236
Classified as non-striated involuntary muscle
Smooth muscle
237
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Trunk - Superficial Muscles
Splenius
Serratus dorsalis cranialis
Serratus dorsalis caudalis
238
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Trunk - Epaxial spinal musculature
1. Iliocostalis System
Iliocostalis thoracis
Iliocostalis lumborum
2. Longissimus System
Longissimus atlantis
Longissimus capitis
Longissimus cervicis
Longissimus thoracis et lumborum
3. Transverso-spinalis system
Complexus
Biventer
Interspinales
Intertransversarii
Multifidus cervicis, thoracis, et lumborum
239
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Trunk - Neck Muscles (directly associated with the anterior limb)
Brachiocephalicus
Sternocephalicus
Sternohyoideus
Sternothyroideus
Scalenus
Longus capitis et colli
239
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Trunk - Tail muscles
Sacrocaudalis dorsalis et ventralis
Levator ani
Rectococcygeous
Sphincter ani externi et interni
240
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Thorax and Abdominal - Abdominal Muscles
Obliquus abdominis externus
Obliquus abdominis internus
Transversus abdominis
Rectus abdominis
241
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Thorax and Abdominal - Lateral and ventral thorax muscle
Intercostales externi et interni
Intercartilagini externi et interni
Retractores costarum
Levatores costarum
Rectus thoracis
241
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Pelvic - Sublumbar muscles
Psoas minor
Ilio-psoas
242
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Thoracic (Anterior limb) - Extrinsic thoracic muscles
Latissimus dorsi
Rhomboideus
Trapezius
Serratus ventralis
Pectoralis superficialis et profundus
Cleidocervicalis, cleidobrachialis, cleidomastoideus
242
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Pelvic - Inner pelvic muscles
Gemelli
Quadratus femoris
242
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Thoracic (Anterior limb) - Lateral shoulder muscles
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Deltoideus
242
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Pelvic - Rump muscles
Tensor fasciae latae
gluteus
243
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Pelvic - Caudal thigh muscles
Biceps femoris
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus
244
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Pelvic - Cranial thigh muscles
Quadriceps femoris (vastus lateralis, v. medialis, v. intermedius, rectus femoris)
245
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Pelvic - Caudal crus muscles
Tibialis caudalis
Gastrocnemius
Popliteus
Flexor hallucis longus
Triceps surae
- Soleus
- Gastrocnemius
245
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Pelvic - Craniolateral crus muscles
Tibialis cranialis
Peroneus longus
Peroneus brevis
246
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Pelvic - Medial thigh muscles
Sartorius
Gracilis
Pectineus
Adductor
247
Enumerate the muscles.
Muscles of the Pelvic - Hindpaw muscle
Interflexorii
Lumbricales
Adductor digiti quinti
Quadratus plantae
