Amenorrhea Flashcards

1
Q

definition of primary amenorrhea

A

failure to menstruate by age 15 in the presence of normal secondary sexual development or within 5 years of breast development

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2
Q

definition of secondary amenorrhea

A

amenorrhea lasting three months

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3
Q

definition of oligomenorrhea

A

less than nine cycles a year

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4
Q

four most common causes of pathologic amenorrhea (excluding pregnancy, lactation, menopause)

A

PCOS, hypothalamic amenorrhea, hyperprolactinemia and ovarian failure

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5
Q

WHO group I is defined by

A

no evidence of exogenous estrogen, normal or low FSH levels, normal prolactin and pituitary lesions

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6
Q

WHO group II is defined by

A

evidence of estrogen production and normal levels of PRL and FSH

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7
Q

WHO group III is defined by

A

elevated serum FSH (gonadal failure)

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8
Q

initial workup for amenorrhea

A

history, physical examination, FSH, TSH and prolactin

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9
Q

if there is gonadal failure in a woman less than 30 years of age, what should be performed

A

karyotype

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10
Q

Mullerian agenesis accounts of ____% of primary amenorrhea

A

10%

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11
Q

urogenital malformations associated with mullerian agenesis

A

unilateral renal agenesis, pelvic kidney, horseshoe kidney, hydronephrosis and ureteral duplication

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12
Q

ways to distinguish mullerian agenesis and complete androgen insensitivity

A

testosterone levels, karyotype, lack of pubic hair in CAS

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13
Q

chance of gonadal malignancy in CAS

A

22%

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14
Q

when should the gonads be removed in CAS

A

after breast development

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15
Q

imperforate hymen, transverse vaginal septum or isolated absence of the vagina or cervix may lead to

A

cyclic pain, endometriosis and pelvic adhesions

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16
Q

phenotype for genetically XX with gonadal failure before sexual maturation (genitalia/breast)

A

female genitalia, incomplete breast development

17
Q

phenotype for genetically XY with gonadal failure (genitalia)

A

female genitalia

18
Q

percent of women with a Y chromosome that develop gonadal tumors

19
Q

phenotype of Turner’s

A

short stature, webbed neck and low hairline

20
Q

when does oocyte loss accelerate in Turners

A

after 18 weeks

21
Q

when should karyotype be obtained for POF

A

women under 30

22
Q

percent of fragile X premutation carriers that have POF

23
Q

autosomal disorders associated with ovarian failure

A

phosphomannomutase 2 (PMMS), galactose-1-phosphate uridultransferase (GALT), FSH receptor (FSHR), chromosome 3q blepharophimosis gene, autoimmune regularor (AIRE) gene

24
Q

when should progestin start to mimic pubertal development in adolescents with gonadal failure

A

after breast mound and areola have developed with low dose estrogen

25
preferred treatment of hyperprolactinemia
dopamine agonists
26
false positive rate of progesterone withdrawal test
20%
27
false negative rate of progesterone withdrawal test
40%
28
diagnosis for isolated gonadotropin deficiency with anosmia
Kallman syndrome
29
percent of North American women with PCOS that are obese
75%
30
diagnosis of PCOS
oligo and/or anovulation, clinical or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, ultrasound evidence of polycystic ovaries
31
to diagnose PCOS you must exclude
congenital adrenal hyperplasia, cushings, adrenal tumors
32
prolactin levels in PCOS are mildly _______
elevated (10-25%)
33
LH/FSH ratio in PCOS
greater than 2
34
impaired glucose intolerance occurs in _____% of PCOS
31%