Amenorrhea Flashcards

1
Q

definition of primary amenorrhea

A

failure to menstruate by age 15 in the presence of normal secondary sexual development or within 5 years of breast development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

definition of secondary amenorrhea

A

amenorrhea lasting three months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

definition of oligomenorrhea

A

less than nine cycles a year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

four most common causes of pathologic amenorrhea (excluding pregnancy, lactation, menopause)

A

PCOS, hypothalamic amenorrhea, hyperprolactinemia and ovarian failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

WHO group I is defined by

A

no evidence of exogenous estrogen, normal or low FSH levels, normal prolactin and pituitary lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

WHO group II is defined by

A

evidence of estrogen production and normal levels of PRL and FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

WHO group III is defined by

A

elevated serum FSH (gonadal failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

initial workup for amenorrhea

A

history, physical examination, FSH, TSH and prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

if there is gonadal failure in a woman less than 30 years of age, what should be performed

A

karyotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mullerian agenesis accounts of ____% of primary amenorrhea

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

urogenital malformations associated with mullerian agenesis

A

unilateral renal agenesis, pelvic kidney, horseshoe kidney, hydronephrosis and ureteral duplication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ways to distinguish mullerian agenesis and complete androgen insensitivity

A

testosterone levels, karyotype, lack of pubic hair in CAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

chance of gonadal malignancy in CAS

A

22%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when should the gonads be removed in CAS

A

after breast development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

imperforate hymen, transverse vaginal septum or isolated absence of the vagina or cervix may lead to

A

cyclic pain, endometriosis and pelvic adhesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

phenotype for genetically XX with gonadal failure before sexual maturation (genitalia/breast)

A

female genitalia, incomplete breast development

17
Q

phenotype for genetically XY with gonadal failure (genitalia)

A

female genitalia

18
Q

percent of women with a Y chromosome that develop gonadal tumors

A

25%

19
Q

phenotype of Turner’s

A

short stature, webbed neck and low hairline

20
Q

when does oocyte loss accelerate in Turners

A

after 18 weeks

21
Q

when should karyotype be obtained for POF

A

women under 30

22
Q

percent of fragile X premutation carriers that have POF

A

16%

23
Q

autosomal disorders associated with ovarian failure

A

phosphomannomutase 2 (PMMS), galactose-1-phosphate uridultransferase (GALT), FSH receptor (FSHR), chromosome 3q blepharophimosis gene, autoimmune regularor (AIRE) gene

24
Q

when should progestin start to mimic pubertal development in adolescents with gonadal failure

A

after breast mound and areola have developed with low dose estrogen

25
Q

preferred treatment of hyperprolactinemia

A

dopamine agonists

26
Q

false positive rate of progesterone withdrawal test

A

20%

27
Q

false negative rate of progesterone withdrawal test

A

40%

28
Q

diagnosis for isolated gonadotropin deficiency with anosmia

A

Kallman syndrome

29
Q

percent of North American women with PCOS that are obese

A

75%

30
Q

diagnosis of PCOS

A

oligo and/or anovulation, clinical or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, ultrasound evidence of polycystic ovaries

31
Q

to diagnose PCOS you must exclude

A

congenital adrenal hyperplasia, cushings, adrenal tumors

32
Q

prolactin levels in PCOS are mildly _______

A

elevated (10-25%)

33
Q

LH/FSH ratio in PCOS

A

greater than 2

34
Q

impaired glucose intolerance occurs in _____% of PCOS

A

31%