Airlaw Flashcards
1: Where is the headquarters of ICAO?
A New York
B Montreal
C London
D Paris
B Montreal
2: Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum for a crew license to have international validity?
A Annex 4,
B Annex 2.
C Annex 1.
D Annex 3
C Annex 1.
3: An aircraft flying over the territory of another State must:
A follow the Rules of the air of the State of Registration.
B follow the Rules of the air of the State it is overflying
C follow the Rules of the air of the State of the Operator.
D follow the Rules of the air of the State that has issued the aircraft certificate of airworthiness.
B follow the Rules of the air of the State it is overflying
4: For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
A The rules established by the State of Registry of the aircraft.
B The rules established by the State(s) adjacent to the high seas overflown
C The rules established by the State of the Operator of the aircraft.
D The rules established under the Convention on International Civil Aviation.
D The rules established under the Convention on International Civil Aviation.
5: Which ICAO annex is dedicated to facilitate the passage of passengers at the aerodromes?
A Annex 9.
B Annex 2.
C Annex 8.
D Annex 3.
A Annex 9.
6: A detailed description of the visual ground aids can be found in ICAO:
A Annex 14
B Annex 12
C Annex 3
D Annex 9
A Annex 14
7: Annex 14 to the Convention on International civil aviation contains SARPS for:
A security.
B aerodromes.
C facilitation.
D non of the above.
B aerodromes.
8: Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS)
A Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS).
B Annexes to the Convention on International civil aviation.
C ICAO Technical Manuals.
D Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS).
B Annexes to the Convention on International civil aviation.
9: The ICAO Annex dealing with the registration and marking of aircraft is:
A Annex 6.
B Annex 11.
C Annex 14.
D Annex 7.
D Annex 7.
10: According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non stop across the territory of other contracting States and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:
A to aircraft of scheduled air services only.
B to aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled flights only.
C to aircraft on non-commercial flights only.
D to aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services.
D to aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services.
11: Which Freedom of the Air will be exercised by an airline planning a flight that will require a technical stop in neighbouring State?
A 2nd freedom of the air.
B 3nd freedom of the air.
C 1st freedom of the air.
D 4th freedom of the air.
A 2nd freedom of the air.
12: If a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard:
A it shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.
B it shall give 45 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.
C it shall give 60 days notice to ICAO of the differences between ist own practices and the International Standard.
D it shall give 90 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard
A it shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.
13: What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an international Standard?
A The State has to publish such differences in the national AIP only.
B The State has to notify the Assembly of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP.
C The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP.
D Modifications to international Standards shall be published in the national AIP only: differences to Recommended Pracitices have do be notified to ICAO.
C The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP.
14: Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944:
A each State has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.
B each State was required to recognize the other States attending.
C only 52 nations were permitted to attend.
D all States in the world attended.
A each State has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.
15: The president of the ICAO Council is elected for:
A 1 year.
B 3 years.
C 5 years.
D 10 years.
B 3 years.
16: Which international organisation was founded with the Chicago Agreement?
A AOPA
B JAA
C ICAO
D IATA
C ICAO
17:International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes:
A standards and recommended international practices for contracting member States.
B standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all States, signatory to the Chicago convention.
C aeronautical standards adopted by all States.
D proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
A standards and recommended international practices for contracting member States.
18: According to Article 73 of the German Basic Law, the legislative right concerning aviation is:
A jointly possessed by the Federal Government and the Länder
B exclusively possessed by the Deutsche Flugsicherung GmbH (DFS)
C exclusively possessed by the Federal Government
D. exclusively possessed by the aeronautical authorities of the Länder
C exclusively possessed by the Federal Government
19: One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
A develop principles and techniques for international aviation.
B approve new international airlines.
C approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies.
D approve new international airlines with jet aircraft.
A develop principles and techniques for international aviation.
20: 5th Freedom of the Air:
A the right to carry revenue traffic from treaty partner’s territory (B) to carrier’s base nation (A).
B the right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D).
C revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B).
D the right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treay nation (B) by the carrier of another nation (A).
B the right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D).
21: Regarding air operations what is the role of the national aviation authorities in relation to EASA?
A EASA is the regulatory authority whereas national aviation authorities can implement or reject the rules on air operations.
B EASA proposes recommendations about safety in aviation to national aviation authorities which thereupon implement thier own rules.
C EASA proposes rules and regulations to the national aviation authorities, which they can implement or reject.
D EASA proposes implementing rules and regulations and the national aviation act as competent authorities.
D EASA proposes implementing rules and regulations and the national aviation act as competent authorities.
22: In which area of Air Traffic Control in Europe does Eurocontrol have a logical and operationally essential role to play?
A National airspace management within in Europe.
B Regulation of civil aviation in Europe.
C Regional air naviagtion planning in Europe.
D Air Traffic Flow Management in Europe.
D Air Traffic Flow Management in Europe.
23: What is the main role of EASA in European civil aviation?
A EASA provides legislative proposals to NAAs and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.
B EASA provides legislative proposals to NAAs only, without any obligation of implementation.
C EASA provides legislative proposals to the European Commission for implementation and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.
D EASA provides legislative proposals to CAAs only, without any obligation of implemenatation.
C EASA provides legislative proposals to the European Commission for implementation and promotes the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.
24: What is the mission statement of EASA?
A EASA suggest new rules to National Aviation Authorities, which these authorities are free to implement if they see fit.
B EASA suggests the implementation of rules to the European Commission, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide.
C EASA produces guidlines for National Aviation Authorities, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide.
D EASA produces rules and regulations, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmenal protection in Europe and worldwide.
D EASA produces rules and regulations, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmenal protection in Europe and worldwide.
25 What does IATA mean?
A International Air Transport Association
B International Airport Training Association
C International Air Trading Association
D International Aviation Training Association
A International Air Transport Association
26: What is the mission statement of IATA?
A IATA’s mission is to represent, lead and serve the airline industry. IATA seeks to improve understanding of the industry among decision makers and increase awareness of the benefits that aviation brings to national and global economies. It fights for the interests of airlines across the globe, challenging unreasonable rules and charges, holding regulators and goverments to account, and striving for sensible regulation.
B IATA produces rules and regulations, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide.
C IATA’s mission is to serve as the global forum of States for international civil aviation. IATA develops policies and Standards, undertakes compliance audits, performs studies and analyses, provides asstistance and builds aviation capacity through many other activities and the cooperation of ist Member States and stakeholders.
D IATA procedures rules and regulations, and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Asia and worldwide. It is a counterpart of EASA for countries in Asia.
A IATA’s mission is to represent, lead and serve the airline industry. IATA seeks to improve understanding of the industry among decision makers and increase awareness of the benefits that aviation brings to national and global economies. It fights for the interests of airlines across the globe, challenging unreasonable rules and charges, holding regulators and goverments to account, and striving for sensible regulation.
27: What is the status of IATA?
A It is the international legislative arm of ICAO.
B It is an associate body of ICAO.
C It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation.
D It represents the air transport operators at ICAO.
C It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation.
28: The ICAO Annex dealing with the safe transport of dangerous goods by air is:
A Annex 15.
B Annex 16.
C Annex 17.
D Annex 18.
D Annex 18.
29: The privilege for an aeroplane registered in one State and enroute to or from that State, to take on passengers, mail and cargo in a second State and put them down in a third State is called:
A 3rd Freedom of the air.
B 4th Freedom of the air.
C 5th Freedom of the air.
D 1st Freedom of the air.
C 5th Freedom of the air.
30: Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly?
A The Secretary General of ICAO.
B The President of the Assembly.
C The Council.
D The Air Navigation Commission.
C The Council.
31: Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO contracting state?
A 3rd freedom of the air
B 4th freedom of the air
C 1st freedom of the air
D 2nd freedom of the air
D 2nd freedom of the air
32: The right to land in another state for technical purpose such as refueling or maintenance is the freedome of the air.
A 4th
B 2nd
C 1st
D 3rd
B 2nd
33: The privilege to fly across the territory of another participating State without landing is called:
A 5th freedom of the air.
B 2nd freedom of the air.
C 4th freedom of the air.
D 1st freedom of the air.
D 1st freedom of the air.
34: The Second Freedom of the Air is the right to:
A land for a technical stop.
B operate acommercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.
C “cabotage” traffic, (Trans-border traffic).
D overfly without landing.
A land for a technical stop.
35: The First Freedom of the Air is:
A the right to board passengers from the State where the aircraft is registered and to fly to another State.
B the right to overfly without landing
C the right to land for a technical stop.
D the opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board bewtween two States.
B the right to overfly without landing
36: Why is the 8 th freedom of the air particularly applicable to the European Union?
A Because the EU is primarily a commercial arrangement and it is commercially sensible to prevent non-EU carriers from profiting in Europe.
B Because the Chicago Convention allows a state to give exclusivity of internal air services to another state.
C Because most of the EU is effectively ‘one state’ as far as the internal movement of people is concerned.
D To prevent non-EASA states operating domestic scheduled services in Europe.
C Because most of the EU is effectively ‘one state’ as far as the internal movement of people is concerned.
37: What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for?
A Free and unhindered transit of aeroplanes over the high seas.
B The freedom for aeroplanes to fly over the territority of any other State without landing.
C. The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state.
D The freedom for aeroplanes of one State to land in the territory of another State for the purpose of refuelling
C. The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state.
38: 6th Freedom of the Air is:
A the right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D).
B revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nations (B).
C the right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by carrier of another nation (A).
D a combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C to A) through carriers base nation (B).
D a combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C to A) through carriers base nation (B).
39: The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the:
A Warsaw Convention 1929.
B Montreal Convention 1948.
C Geneva Convention 1936.
D Chicago Convention 1944.
D Chicago Convention 1944.
40: The Air Navigation Commission consists of:
A 33 members appointed by the ICAO Council.
B 19 members appointed by the ICAO Council.
C 19 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly.
D 33 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly.
B 19 members appointed by the ICAO Council.
41: The airport licence is issued by the following aeronautical authority:
A the aeronautical authority of the Länder in which the terrain is located
B German Air Navigation Services (DFS)
C Federal Office of Civil Aviation (LBA)
D Federal Ministry of Transport and Digital Infrastructure (BMVI)
A the aeronautical authority of the Länder in which the terrain is located
42: Where is the ICAO Annex 13 applicable?
A Air Trafic Services
B The Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air
C Facilitation
D Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation
D Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation
43: The aviation supervision may prohibit a pilot to depart from an airfield:
A in order to protect against dangers and for ensuring air traffic safety
B in order to maintain flight discipline on the airfield
C because the destination airfield may only be approached after prior permission (PPR)
D for separating the aircraft approaching the airfield
A in order to protect against dangers and for ensuring air traffic safety
44: What is the mission statement of ICAO?
A ICAO produces rules and regulations, and promotes the hightest common standards of civil aviation safety and environmental protection in Europe and worldwide.
B ICAO’s mission is to represent, lead and serve the airline industry. ICAO seeks to improve understanding of the industry among decision makers and increase awareness of the benefits that aviation brings to national and global economies. It fights for the interests of airlines across the globe, challenging unreasonable rules and charges, holding regulators and governments to account, and striving for sensible regulation.
C ICAO’s mission is to serve as the global forum of States for international civil aviation. ICAO develops policies and Standards, undertakes compliance audits, performs studies and analyses, provides assistance and builds aviation capacity through many other activities and the cooperation of ots Member States and stakeholders.
D ICAO’s mission is to improve new international airlines and aircraft.
C ICAO’s mission is to serve as the global forum of States for international civil aviation. ICAO develops policies and Standards, undertakes compliance audits, performs studies and analyses, provides assistance and builds aviation capacity through many other activities and the cooperation of ots Member States and stakeholders.
45: Standards and Recommended Practices for Security are contained in ICAO Annex:
A 17
B 15
C 12
D 8
A 17
46: Which body of ICAO finalizes the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption?
A The Regional Air Navigation meeting
B The Assembly
C The Air Navigation Commision
D The Coincil
C The Air Navigation Commision
47: Name the body of ICAO that considers and recommends to the council for adoption, modifications of the Annexes of the Convention to the ICAO:
A Transport Committee
B Legal Committee
C Assembly
D Air Navigation Commission
D Air Navigation Commission
48: The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage international flights is:
A annex 9
B annex 6
C annex 8
D annex 15
A annex 9
49: The “Standards” contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
A binding for all member States
B advice and guidance for the aviation legsiation within the member States
C binding for all airline companies with international traffic
D binding for the member States that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
D binding for the member States that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
50: Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?
A ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
B ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of A)
such licenses
C ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any oft the Annexes to the convention
D ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
C ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any oft the Annexes to the convention
51: Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:
A Security
B Operation of aircraft
C Facilitations
D Aerodromes
A Security
52: The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) was established by the convention of:
A Warsaw
B Montreal
C Hague
D Chicago
D Chicago
53: The part of an aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the purpose of embarking and disembarking passengers, loading and unloading of cargo and refueling and parking is known as:
A the movement area
B the maintenance area
C the apron
D the manoeuvring area
C the apron
54: Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for Air Traffic Services (ATS)?
A Annex 6
B Annex 14
C Annex 11
D Annex 17
C Annex 11
55: Which of the following Annexes to Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?
A Annex 11
B Annex 6
C Annex 14
D Annex 10
C Annex 14
56: Who issues the certificate of airworthiness?
A State of registry
B State of design
C ICAO
D Operator
A State of registry
57: Which state shall ensure there exists a continuing integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of aeroplanes above 5700 kg?
A State of registry
B State of design
C State of the operator
D. The state of registry or the state of the operator
B State of design
58: When is an Airworthiness Certificate required to be on board an aircraft?
A For any flight operation
B For international flights
C For any flight with passengers
D Only for flights that land in an airport different from the departure airport
A For any flight operation
59: Annex 8 covers airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration of the Certificates of Airworthiness?
A The authority of the State of the Operator
B The authority of the State of the Registration
C The authority of the State of the Manufacture
D The Operator
B The authority of the State of the Registration
60: The Standards of Airworthiness, detailed in Annex 8 part III are applicable to:
A aeroplanes over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation
B aeroplanes of over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers only
C aeroplanes over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of cargo or mail in international air navigation
D aeroplanes over 25 700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation
A aeroplanes over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation
61: Where on the wings of heavier-than-air aircraft shall registration marks be located?
A On the left half of the lower surface of the wing structure
B On the right half of the lower surface of the wing structure
C On the left half of the upper surface of the wing structure
D On the right half of the upper surface of the wing structure
A On the left half of the lower surface of the wing structure
62: What is the definition of the State of Registry? (ICAO ANNEX /7
A The State on whose register the aircraft is entered
B The State where the lessor is registered
C The State where the operator is registered
D The State where the aircraft is based
A The State on whose register the aircraft is entered
63: According to Annex 7, the definition of heavier-than-air aircraft is:
A A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight
B Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the Earth’s surface
C A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight
D Any aircraft deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces
D Any aircraft deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces
64: What is the Aircraft Register and where is it kept and supervised?
A It is kept at the EASA headquarter in Cologne
B It is kept at the aviation authority of the Länder
C kept and supervised with the ICAO headquarter in Montreal
D kept and supervised at the LBA in Braunschweig
D kept and supervised at the LBA in Braunschweig
65: The height of the mark on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
A at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
B at least 40 centimetres
C at least 30 centimetres
D at least 20 centrimetres
C at least 30 centimetres
66: Which of the following gets its lift chiefly through aerodynamis forces?
A Heavier - than - air aircraft
B Aeroplanes
C Lighter-than-air aircraft
D Rotorcraft
A Heavier - than - air aircraft
67: The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than aircraft shall be:
A at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
B at least 40 centimetres
C at least 30 centimetres
D at least 20 centimetres
C at least 30 centimetres
68: The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call sign allocated:
A to the State of Registry by the International Telecommunication Union
B to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union
C to the State of Registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisation
D to State of the Operator
B to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union
69: According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
A the State of Registry or common mark registering authority
B the State of Registry only
C the international Civil Aviation Organisation
D the International Telecommunication Union
A the State of Registry or common mark registering authority
70: When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the:
A four letter combinations beginning with Q
B three letters combinations used in the internatinal code of signal
C letters used for an ICAO identification documents
D five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
D five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
71: When letters are used for registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals, for example:
A TTT
B RCC
C LLL
D FFF
A TTT
72 The height of the marks under the wings of heavier-than-air aircraft shall be:
A at least 50 centimetres
B at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres
C at least 60 centimetres
D at least 75 centimetres
A at least 50 centimetres
73: The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:
A the State of Registry and accepted by the international
Telecommunication Union
B the International Telecommunication Union
C the State of Registry
D the International Civil Aviation Organization
D the International Civil Aviation Organization
74: When the first character of registration mark is a letter:
A It may not be followed by a number
B the registration mark must be completed by the national emblem
C it shall be preceded by a hyphen
D it shall be followed by a number
C it shall be preceded by a hyphen
75: According to Annex 7, the definition of aircraft is:
A A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight
B Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the Earth’s surface
C A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight
D Any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy in the air
B Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the Earth’s surface
76: An aircraft with the identification D-CFLU can be a:
A single-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 2000 - 5700 kg MTOW
B multi-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 2000 - 5700 kg MTOW
C multi-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 14000-20000 kg MTOW
D multi-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 5700-14000 kg MTOW
D multi-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 5700-14000 kg MTOW
77: Aircraft required to be registered with an airworthiness certificate are:
A ultralight aircraft and winches for gliders
B powered gliders, gliders, hang gliders
C manned balloons, hang gliders, flying models of more than 150 kg
D airplanes, rotorcraft, airships
D airplanes, rotorcraft, airships
78: Describe the following: helicopter, glider & airship:
A aircraft
B power driven aircraft
C lighter than air aircraft
D heavier than air aircraft
A aircraft
79: An aircraft which has the right of way shall maintain its:
A altitude
B course and speed
C heading and speed
D course; speed and altitude
C heading and speed
80: Except when necessary for take-off or landing; a VFR flight over congested areas of Cities; towns or settlements or over an open air assembly of persons shall not be flown at a height less than:
A 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft:.
B 300 m above the highest obstacle.
C 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
D 600 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft.
C 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
81: An aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
A Follow me vehicles and pedestrians
B Aircraft taking off
C Aircraft landing and taking off
D Aircraft landing
C Aircraft landing and taking off
82: A steady red light beam directed at an aircraft in flight from the aerodrome control tower means:
A Do not land, give way to other aircraft and continue circling clear the landing area immediately
B Clear the landing area immediately
C Airfield closed, do not land here
D Airfield unserviceable, land elsewhere
A Do not land, give way to other aircraft and continue circling clear the landing area immediately
While taxiing, an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
A is cleard to take-off
B Must return to its point of departure
C may continue to taxi towards the take-off area
D must stop
C may continue to taxi towards the take-off area
Aircraft “A” with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC within a control area. Aircraft “B” with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which aircraft has the right of way?
A) Aircraft “A” regardless of the direction which “B” is approaching.
B) Aircraft “B” regardless of the direction “A” is approaching.
C) Aircraft “B” if “A” is on its left.
D) Aircraft “A” if “B” is on its right.
C) Aircraft “B” if “A” is on its left.
One of the following statements about aircraft ground movement is correct:
A) A vehicle towing an aircraft has priority over a taxiing aircraft.
B) An aircraft overtaking another does so by passing on the right.
C) A taxiing aircraft has priority over a vehicle towing an aircraft.
D) Two airplanes approaching head-on will alter course to the left.
C) A taxiing aircraft has priority over a vehicle towing an aircraft.
When two-way radio communication is lost, a pilot should select ____ on the transponder.
A) Code 7500
B) Code 2000
C) Code 7700
D) Code 7600
D) Code 7600
A series of red flashes from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft on ground means:
A. Stop and taxi back, you are on the wrong taxiway.
B. Give way to other aircraft taxiing.
C. Slow down taxi speed.
D. Taxi clear of landing area in use.
D. Taxi clear of landing area in use.
A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:
A. 10 minutes prior to departure.
B. 60 minutes prior to departure.
C. 30 minutes prior to the “off-blocks” time.
D. 45 minutes prior to the “off-blocks” time.
B. 60 minutes prior to departure.
89 Whilst flying in an aerodrome’s traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
A. Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
B. Is cleared to land.
C. Must give way to another aircraft.
D. Must land immediately and clear the landing area.
A. Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent
What is the minimum flight altitude for VFR flights permitted over towns, settlements, and populated areas?
A. 500 ft within a radius of 1 NM of the aircraft position.
B. 1,000 ft within a
radius of 8 km of the aircraft position.
C. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position.
D. The altitude which permits the aircraft to land safely in the event of an engine failure.
C. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position.
An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport’s circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
A. Give way to another aircraft.
B. Not land because the airport is not available for landing.
C. Continue to circle and await the clearance to land signal.
D. Not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.
B. Not land because the airport is not available for landing.
The signal from pilot to the signalman (marshaller) which means “brakes applied” is:
A. Fist clenched in front of the face, then fingers extended.
B. Arms extended, palms outwards, then move hands inwards to cross in front of the face.
C. Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of face, then clench fist.
D. Hands crossed in front of the face, palms outwards, then move arms outwards.
C. Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of face, then clench fist.
An overtaking aircraft is an aircraft that approaches another aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of:
A. Less than 50° with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
B. Less than 60° with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
C. Less than 70° with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
D. Less than 80° with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
C. Less than 70° with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
An aircraft operated on, or in the vicinity of, an aerodrome shall whether or not within an ATZ:
- Observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision.
- Conform with or avoid the pattern of traffic formed by other aircraft in operation.
- Make all turns to the right, when approaching for landing or taking-off unless otherwise instructed.
- Land and take-off into the wind unless safety, the runway configuration, or an air traffic consideration determines that a different direction should be used.
Which statements are correct?
A. 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 4
D. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 2, 4
Two aircraft are approaching each other in a controlled airspace class D in VMC at approximately the same level on converging courses. Aircraft “A” is flying under IFR, Aircraft “B” is flying under VFR. Who has the right of way?
A. Aircraft “B”, providing it has “A” on its left.
B. Aircraft “A”, providing it has “B” on its right.
C. Aircraft “B” regardless of the direction from which “A” is approaching.
D. Aircraft “A” regardless of the direction from which “B” is approaching.
A. Aircraft “B”, providing it has “A” on its left.
A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means:
A. Cleared to taxi.
B. Accelerate taxi speed.
C. Slow down taxi speed, but continue.
D. Stand by, clearance for take-off will be given in short time.
A. Cleared to taxi.
A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft in flight means:
A. Cleared to land.
B. Return for landing.
C. Make a short approach and land as soon as possible.
D. Continue circling and give way to other aircraft.
B. Return for landing.
The “Total Estimated Elapsed Time” in item 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
A. Required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time).
B. Required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
C. Required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.
D. Of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.
B. Required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
Which is the correct order of priority?
A. Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders, and balloons.
B. Gliders shall give way to airships and balloons.
C. Gliders do not give way to balloons.
D. All aircraft shall give way to aircraft which are seen to be towing other aircraft.
A. Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders, and balloons.
A red flare light signal addressed to an aircraft in flight means:
A. Aerodrome unsafe, do not land.
B. Slow down speed to minimum, give way to other aircraft in the circuit, and continue circling.
C. Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
D. Return for approach, clearance to land to be expected on final.
C. Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities, towns, or settlements unless at a height that will permit:
A. In the event of an emergency, a landing to be made safely.
B. In the event of an emergency, the aircraft can fly to the nearest suitable aerodrome.
C. In the event of an emergency, the aircraft can be flown away from the congested area.
D. In the event of an emergency, a landing to be made safely at the nearest airfield.
A. In the event of an emergency, a landing to be made safely.
When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision, each shall:
A. Alter its heading to the right.
B. Alter its heading to the left.
C. Switch on all available lights in order to warn the other traffic.
D. Turn, climb, or descend as in order to avoid.
A. Alter its heading to the right.
No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities, towns, or settlements unless at a height that will permit, in the event of an emergency, a landing to be made safely. Exceptions to this rule are:
A. Take-off and landing, or permission from the appropriate authority.
B. Take-off and landing.
C. Permission from the appropriate authority.
D. None of the above.
A. Take-off and landing, or permission from the appropriate authority.
An aircraft being towed by night must display:
A. An anti-collision beacon.
B. Steady navigation lights.
C. Navigation lights and taxi lights.
D. The same lights that are required in flight.
D. The same lights that are required in flight.
Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be displayed:
A. By all aircraft moving on the manoeuvring area.
B. By all aircraft operating on the movement area.
C. Between sunset and sunrise or any period specified by the appropriate authority.
D. As soon as the engines are running.
D. As soon as the engines are running.
When a pilot raises his arms extended, palms facing outwards, and moves his hands inwards to cross in front of the face, this means:
A. Brakes engaged.
B. Brakes released.
C. Insert chocks.
D. Remove chocks.
C. Insert chocks.
You are flying on a VFR flight in VMC in a controlled airspace. Suddenly, you realize you are unable to maintain VMC. What are your actions according to ICAO Annex 2?
A. Request a special VFR clearance if flying in a control zone.
B. Continue to fly in VMC as best as possible and land at the nearest suitable airport immediately.
C. Continue in IMC and land on the next airport which is equipped for instrument approaches.
D. Continue in IMC and land on the next suitable airport.
A. Request a special VFR clearance if flying in a control zone.
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft:
- Must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.
- Is responsible only if he is the “pilot flying”.
- May deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
- May be exempt from air regulations in order to comply with an ATC instruction.
- May ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.
Which of the following combinations contain all of the correct statements?
A. 3, 4, 5
B. 3, 5
C. 1, 4
D. 2, 3, 5
B. 3, 5
The minimum flight visibility for a VFR flight in ATS airspace classified as D at an altitude above 10,000 ft MSL is:
A. 1500 m
B. 8 km
C. 5 km
D. 5 NM
B. 8 km
Which signal from a marshaller indicates “all clear”?
A. Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of the body, then clench fist.
B. Arms raised above the head with palms facing the pilot.
C. Right arm raised bent at elbow with thumb extended.
D. Arms pointing down with palms pointing inwards, moving arms inwards from extended position.
C. Right arm raised bent at elbow with thumb extended.
A steady green light from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft on ground means:
A. Cleared for taxi.
B. Cleared for take-off.
C. Cleared to enter the runway and wait for take-off clearance signal.
D. Taxi back to the starting point on the aerodrome (return back to the parking stand).
B. Cleared for take-off.
Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an aircraft taxiing on the ground, a red flashing light means:
A. Stop taxiing.
B. Continue to taxi to the take-off area.
C. Vacate the landing area in use.
D. Return to the point of departure (taxi back to parking stand).
C. Vacate the landing area in use.
VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050 m (10,000 ft) AMSL, are:
A. 5 km visibility, 1,500 m horizontal and 1,000 ft vertical distance from clouds.
B. 8 km visibility, 1,500 m horizontal and 1,000 ft vertical distance from clouds.
C. 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds.
D. Not applicable - VFR flights are not permitted.
B. 8 km visibility, 1,500 m horizontal and 1,000 ft vertical distance from clouds.
A VFR flight, at an altitude of 5000 ft in ATS airspace classified as C, has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
A. 8 km visibility; 1,000 m vertically and 1,500 ft horizontally clear of cloud.
B. 5 km visibility; 1,500 m vertically and 1,000 ft horizontally clear of cloud.
C. 8 km visibility; 1,000 ft vertically and 1,500 m horizontally clear of cloud.
D. 5 km visibility; 1,000 ft vertically and 1,500 m horizontally clear of cloud.
D. 5 km visibility; 1,000 ft vertically and 1,500 m horizontally clear of cloud.
Above 3050 m (10,000 ft) AMSL, the VMC minima for VFR flights in all classes of airspace (except class A) are:
A. Flight visibility: 8 km, clear of clouds.
B. No minima defined, VFR flights are not permitted.
C. Flight visibility: 8 km; distance from clouds: 1,500 m horizontal; 1,000 ft vertical.
D. Flight visibility: 5 km; distance from clouds: 1,500 m horizontal; 1,000 ft vertical.
C. Flight visibility: 8 km; distance from clouds: 1,500 m horizontal; 1,000 ft vertical.
A VFR flight, when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C, has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
A) 5 km at or above 3050m (10,000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
B) 5 NM at or above 3050m (10,000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
C) 8 km at or above 3050m (10,000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds.
D) 8 km at or above 3050m (10,000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
D) 8 km at or above 3050m (10,000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
Which signal from a marshaller indicates “chocks are inserted”?
A) Arm raised with fingers extended in front of the body, then clenched into a fist.
B) Arms raised above the head with palms facing the Pilot.
C) Right arm raised bent at elbow with thumb extended.
D) Arms and wands fully extended above head, move wands inward in a “jabbing” motion until wands touch.
D) Arms and wands fully extended above head, move wands inward in a “jabbing” motion until wands touch.
The marshalling signal “arms and wands fully extended above head, moving wands inward in a ‘jabbing’ motion until wands touch” means:
A) stop.
B) chocks inserted.
C) chocks removed.
D) brakes applied.
B) chocks inserted.
The light signal from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft in flight indicating “give way to other aircraft and continue circling” is:
A) steady red.
B) steady green.
C) series of red lights.
D) series of green lights.
A) steady red.
A marshaller has his arms fully extended above his head with wands pointing up. This means that:
A) you should proceed to this parking position (stand / gate).
B) chocks removed, ready to start the push-back procedure.
C) slow down your taxi speed.
D) you should continue straight ahead.
A) you should proceed to this parking position (stand / gate).
121 The light signal from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft in flight indicating “return for landing” is.
A A series of green flashes.
B A series of red flashes.
C A steady green.
D A series of white flashes.
A A series of green flashes.
122 On a VFR flight, your magnetic is track 005°, the magnetic heading 355°. Which of the following flight level is correct?
A FL60
B FL55
C FL65
D FL70
B FL55
123 On a VFR fligth, your magnetic track is 200°. Which of the following flight levels shold be used?
A FL 65, FL 85 or FL 105
B FL 75, FL 95 or FL 115
C FL 60, FL 85 or FL 100
D FL 70, FL 90 or FL 110
A FL 65, FL 85 or FL 105
124 A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from douds:
A 5 km below 3050 m (10000ft) AMSL and clear of clouds.
B 8 km below 3050 m (10000 ft) AMSL 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
C 5 km visibility, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
D 5 km below 3050 m (10000 f) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
D 5 km below 3050 m (10000 f) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
125 In order to operate under visual flight rules above FL100 in uncontrolled airspace, there must be:
A flight visibility of 8 km.
B horizontal separation from cloud of 1 5 km.
C 8 km visibility, 1000 ft vertical and 1500 m horizontal distance from clouds.
D vertical separation from cloud of 1 000 ft.
C 8 km visibility, 1000 ft vertical and 1500 m horizontal distance from clouds.
126 The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
A indicated air speed (IAS).
B estimated ground speed (GIS).
C true air speed (TAS)
D true true air speed at 65% power.
C true air speed (TAS)
127 The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
A 8 km visibilty when at or above 3050 m (1000 ft) AMSL and 1500 m honzontal and 300m vertical from clouds.
B 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10000 ft) AMSL and dear of douds.
C 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10000 f) AMSL, clear of douds.
D 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud.
A 8 km visibilty when at or above 3050 m (1000 ft) AMSL and 1500 m honzontal and 300m vertical from clouds.
128 Except where necessary for landing and over congested areas of cities, towns or take-off, VFR flights are not permitted settlements, or over an open air assembly of persons a height less than above the highest obstacle within a radius of from the aircraft.
A 300 m; 600 m
B 300 m; 600 ft
C 500 ft; 600 m
D 1000ft; 600 ft
A 300 m; 600 m
129 An aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least:
A a distance from cloud of 1 000 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibilty of 5 km.
B a distance from cloud of 1 500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 8 km
B a distance from cloud of 600 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km
D a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibilty of 5 km
D a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibilty of 5 km
130 If the ground visibilty is reported 700 m, can a special VFR flight take-off from an aerodrome in a control zone?
A No.
B Yes, provided the cloud ceiling is higher than 500 ft.
C Yes.
D Yes, provided the pilot remains in visual contact with the ground.
A No.
131 On the ground, when two aircraft are approaching head on:
A both should declare an urgency.
B both airplanes must stop or where practicable alter course to the left to keep well clear.
C both airplanes must stop or where practicable alter course to the right to keep well
D traffic patrol has to be informed.
C both airplanes must stop or where practicable alter course to the right to keep well
132 A VFR flight, at an altitude of 5000 ft MSL in ATS airspace classified as C, has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
A 8 km visibility: 1000 m vertically and 1500 ft horizontally clear of cloud.
B 5 km visibility: 1500 ft vertically and 1 000 ft horizontalty clear of cloud.
C 8 km visibility: 1000 ft vertically and 1500 ft horizontally clear of cloud.
D 5 km visibility: 1000 ft vertically and 1 500 m horizontally clear of cloud.
D 5 km visibility: 1000 ft vertically and 1 500 m horizontally clear of cloud.
133 You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3000 ft. Your distance from the cloud should be:
A 1000 ft horizontally and 1000 ft vertically.
B 2000 ft and 3 NM horizontally.
C clear of cloud and surface in sight of the surface.
D 1000 ft vertically and 1.5 km horizontally.
D 1000 ft vertically and 1.5 km horizontally.
134 The red flashing anti-collision light (beacon) should be in use:
A before engine start, only at night.
B while taxiing for take-off.
C to indicate caution to all around whenever engines are running.
D while taxiing, but not while being towed.
C to indicate caution to all around whenever engines are running.
135 When an aircraft is operating in class F airspace below 900 m AMSL, the minimum horizontal distance from cloud for VFR flight is:
A 1000 ft.
B 1500m.
C 5 km.
D clear of clouds and surface in sight.
D clear of clouds and surface in sight.
136 A series of red flashes from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft in flight means:
A give way to other aircraft in emergency.
B aerodrome unsafe, do not land.
C continue circling and wait for further instruction.
D aerodrome temporarily closed, continue circling.
B aerodrome unsafe, do not land.
137 Flights operating within airspace classified as G above an altitude of 10 000 ft MSL and in acordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima:
A a distance from cloud: 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically; flight visibility: 8 km
B a distance from cloud: 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically; flight visibility: 5 km
C a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM), 1000 ft vertically; flight visibility: 5 km
D a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM), 1000 ft vertically; flight visibility: 8 km
A a distance from cloud: 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically; flight visibility: 8 km
138 “Raise hand just above shoulder, with palm open, eye contact with flight crew, then close hand into a fist”. This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means:
A release brakes.
B engage brakes.
C chocks removed.
D start engines.
B engage brakes.
139 The minimum height, except for take-off and landing, may
A be ignored, if at any time a suitable terrain allows a potential emergency landing
B be ignored, if the terrain is largely free of obstacles
C never be ignored
D be ignored, if it does not expose the respective residents to unnecessary noise disturbance
C never be ignored
140 Advertising flights with towed objects need permission of:
A the local aviation supervision
B the Federal Aviation Office (Luftfahrt-Bundesamt)
C the aeronautical authority of the Länder responsible for the area in which the object is to be towed
D the aeronautical authority of the Länder of residence or domicile of the applicant
D the aeronautical authority of the Länder of residence or domicile of the applicant
141 A pilot needs a permit issued by the appropiate aeronautical authority for:
A dropping tow ropes
B dropping animal feed for wild animals
C airdropping parachutists
D dropping the banner
B dropping animal feed for wild animals
142 Aerobatic flights are prohibited in heights of less than:
A 2000 ft GND
B 1500 ft GND
C 2500 ft GND
D 1000 ft GND
B 1500 ft GND
143 Which unit of measurement applies for the vertical speed in aviation?
A km/h
B Mach and Kts
C Knots
D ft/min
D ft/min
144 Who is allowed to check whether a pilot has prepared a flight properly?
A the delegate of the aviation supervision
B the advisory service
C the aerodrome operator
D the flight information service of the DFS GmbH
A the delegate of the aviation supervision
145 After having entered a control zone on a VFR-flight, the radio fails. How shall the pilot behave?
A proceed according to the acknowledged air traffic control clearance and wait for the light signals of the aerodrome control tower
B leave the control zone on the shortest way possible, land and inform air traffic control
C enter the traffic circuit immediately and land according to given light signals
D fly across the runway and wait for light
A proceed according to the acknowledged air traffic control clearance and wait for the light signals of the aerodrome control tower
145 After having entered a control zone on a VFR-flight, the radio fails. How shall the pilot behave?
A proceed according to the acknowledged air traffic control clearance and wait for the light signals of the aerodrome control tower
B leave the control zone on the shortest way possible, land and inform air traffic control
C enter the traffic circuit immediately and land according to given light signals
D fly across the runway and wait for light
B leave the control zone on the shortest way possible, land and inform air traffic control
147 The pilot in command is the ultimate authority on operating the aircraft:
A only during flight
B during taxiing, take-off, landing and enroute.
C only during take-off, flight and landing
D only if he/she is sitting on the left seat of the aircraft
B during taxiing, take-off, landing and enroute.
148 Radiotelephony communication for VFR flights in Germany in airspace “C” above flight level 100 is conducted
A in English language
B in German language
C in German or English language
D in one of the ICAO languages
A in English language
149 An aircraft overtakes another aircraft when it approaches from behind in a direction of flight having an angle of less than:
A 090° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft
B 070° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft
C 110° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft
D 120° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft
B 070° towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft
150 The pilot is required to transmit a departure message to the responsible air traffic control unit for a flight from an uncontrolled aerodrome after having
filed the flight plan.
A This only applies if the departure time deviates from the expected departure time indicated in the flight plan by more than 30 minutes.
B A departure message has to be transmitted in any case.
C This only applies if the departure time deviates by more than 5 minutes from the expected departure time indicated in the flight plan.
D This only applies if the departure time deviates by more than 15 minutes from the expected departure time indicated in the flight plan.
B A departure message has to be transmitted in any case.
151 In Germany Airspace G is below
A 5000 ft MSL or 3500 ft GND, the lower value being relevant
B 1000 ft and 1700 ft GND, otherwise 2500 ft MSL
C 1000 ft and 1700 ft GND, otherwise 2500 ft GND
D 1000 ft and 1700 ft GND, in other cases different depending on local conditions
C 1000 ft and 1700 ft GND, otherwise 2500 ft GND
152 According to ICAO Annex 2 - Rules of the Air, what is correct concerning a “Time Check”?
A It is used for controlled flights and only obtained on request by ATC.
B It is used for controlled flights and obtained on request by ATC only during ground operations.
C It is only executed when requested by ATC.
D A time check contains time given in hours, minutes and seconds.
D A time check contains time given in hours, minutes and seconds.
153 Under which conditions may aircraft fly in formation?
A only upon agreement between the participating pilots
B only in commercial air traffic
C only above uncontrolled aerodromes
D if the aircraft have a maximum mass of 2000 kg
A only upon agreement between the participating pilots
154 What can be ignored for a VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace?
A flight visibility
B ground visibility
C ground in sight
D cloud height and distance
B ground visibility
155 Engine-powered aircraft on a VFR flight in airspace C (below FL 100) are required to operate a transponder
A as a VFR-flight only on request by ATC
B always
C above 5000 ft MSL or above 2000 ft GND, whichever is higher
D above 5000 ft MSL or above 3500 ft GND, whichever is higher
B always
156 A radiotelephony signal comprising of the word “PAN PAN” means that an aircraft
A accidentally entered a danger area
B has been hijacked
C has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight.
D is threatened by grave and imminent danger, and immediate assistance is requested
C has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight.
157 When shall aircraft in operation switch on their navigation lights?
A between half an hour after sunset and half an hour after sunrise
B from half an hour past sunset to half an hour after sunrise
C from SS to SR and poor flight visibility
D at night
D at night
158 The pilot-in-command is responsible for operating the aircraft. This is valid
A in uncontrolled airspace only
B except air traffic control communication is performed via radio
C except being within an control zone
D irrespective, whether the pilot operates the aircraft personally or not
D irrespective, whether the pilot operates the aircraft personally or not
159 A pre-flight briefing needs to be obtained before every flight
A which enters controlled airspace
B with a flight distance of more than 100 km
C which requires a flight plan to be filed
D which leaves the vicinity of the aerodrome of departure
C which requires a flight plan to be filed
160 On aerodromes, aircraft taxiing by own power means
A to have no priority over other vehicles and pedestrians
B to have priority over pedestrians, but no priority over motor-driven vehicles
C to have priority over other vehicles and pedestrians
D to have the same rights as other vehicles and pedestrians unless the vehicles are police vehicles
C to have priority over other vehicles and pedestrians
- Flight visibility defines as:
A. visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight to the ground.
B. medium slant visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
C. maximum forward visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft.
D. visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
D. visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
162 The aeronautical chart ICAO 1:500,000 describes an airspace “D ctr” with:
“2800 (HX)”. Does a pilot, whose radio has failed, have the possibility to cross this airspace on a Saturday?
A. only if the status of the deactivation of the control zone has been confirmed just before the radio failure happens.
B. yes, if a flight plan has been filed and a permit of the competent aviation supervision is received.
C. yes, because this aerodrome is closed on Saturdays and Sundays.
D. only with transponder A/C 7600.
A. only if the status of the deactivation of the control zone has been confirmed just before the radio failure happens.
163 You hear on the radio that another pilot repeatedly transmits “MAYDAY”. It is:
A. a distress signal.
B. a check of the ground station.
C. a warning signal.
D. an urgency signal.
A. a distress signal.
- An aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
A) Other vehicles or pedestrians
B) Larger (heavier) aircraft
C) All vehicles on the taxiways except the “follow me” vehicle
D) Aircraft taking-off or about to take-off
D) Aircraft taking-off or about to take-off
- In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or canceled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of:
A) 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks
B) 30 minutes of the estimated time of departure
C) 60 minutes of the estimated time off blocks
D) 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure
A) 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks
- The higher value being relevant, a VFR-flight needs to operate a transponder above altitude 5000 ft MSL or:
A) 2000 ft GND
B) 2500 ft GND
C) 3000 ft GND
D) 3500 ft GND
D) 3500 ft GND
- An engine-powered aircraft on a VFR flight leaves airspace C in the vicinity of an airport and continues its flight in airspace E at FL 75. What does the pilot have to do?
A) Switches the transponder to stand-by and keeps a listening watch on UHF/VHF guard
B) Keeps listening watch in order to obtain traffic information, if necessary
C) Unrequested squawk A/C 7000 and observe the prescribed minima for VFR flights in airspace E
D) Requests to leave frequency from air traffic control and switches the transponder to A/C 0021
C) Unrequested squawk A/C 7000 and observe the prescribed minima for VFR flights in airspace E
- In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its track given in the current flight plan, action should be taken in order to:
A) Adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
B) Notify the appropriate ATS unit immediately, notifying the new track and complying with instructions from ATS
C) Maintain VMC, wait for instructions from the appropriate ATS unit
D) Immediately inform ATC
A) Adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
- If there is any danger on the route, how will ATC inform the pilot?
A) ATC will transmit to the pilot information about latitude and longitude of the potential threat
B) ATC will transmit to the pilot information about distance and bearing to the potential threat
C) ATC will transmit to the pilot information about separation time and distance to the potential threat
D) ATC will transmit to the pilot information about GPS data of the potential threat
B) ATC will transmit to the pilot information about distance and bearing to the potential threat
- While on the ground, the navigation lights shall be turned on:
A) Only from sunrise to sunset if instructed by ATC
B) By all aircraft moving on the movement area of an aerodrome from sunset to sunrise to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer, and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights
C) From sunrise to sunset so that an observer on the ground can see in which direction the aircraft is moving
D) At night and during the daytime unless otherwise instructed by ATC
B) By all aircraft moving on the movement area of an aerodrome from sunset to sunrise to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer, and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights
- What is meant by the term “SPECIAL VFR”?
A) A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the requirements of IFR
B) A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC
C) A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance with IFR
D) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to remain clear of cloud and surface in sight
B) A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC
- What is the lowest height for VFR flights over congested areas?
A) 300 ft
B) 1000 ft
C) 500 ft
D) 600 ft
B) 1000 ft
- The following signal means that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance (urgency signals):
A) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
B) Switching on and off of the landing lights in a sequence consisting of the letter group SOS
C) Switching on and off three times the navigation lights
D) Switching on and off three times the landing lights
A) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
- ICAO Annex 2: 4.6 - Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or except by permission from the appropriate authority, a VFR flight shall not be flown:
a) Over the congested areas of cities, towns, or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons at a height less than 300 m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft;
b) Elsewhere than as specified in 4.6 a), at a height less than ___ (___) above the ground or water.
A) 150 m; (500 ft)
B) 900 m; (3000 ft)
C) 600 m; (2000 ft)
D) 500 m; (1500 ft)
A) 150 m; (500 ft)
- What should a pilot do at night and if no radio communication can be established when he/she wants to acknowledge an instruction from an aerodrome control tower?
A) Fly a circle
B) Turn off and on the aircraft’s anti-collision light
C) Flash on and off twice the aircraft’s landing lights or, if not so equipped, switch on and off twice its navigation lights
D) Turn on the aircraft’s landing lights and then switch on and off twice the navigation lights
C) Flash on and off twice the aircraft’s landing lights or, if not so equipped, switch on and off twice its navigation lights
- Aircraft equipped with red anti-collision lights shall display them:
A) Outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed
B) Outside the daylight-period at engine start. During the daylight-period, this is not applicable
C) On the ground when the engines are running
D) While taxiing, but not when it is being towed
C) On the ground when the engines are running
- What is the meaning of red pyrotechnic from an airfield to an aircraft flying next to this airfield?
A) Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
B) Give way to other aircraft in emergency
C) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
D) The aircraft must not land because the airport is not available for landing
A) Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
- A signalman (marshaller) requests the pilot to engage brakes with the following signal:
A) Raise hand just above shoulder height with open palm, ensure eye-contact with crew, close hand into a fist
B) Arms raised above the head with palms facing the pilot
C) Right arm raised, bent at elbow, with thumb extended
D) Arms pointing down with palms pointing inwards, moving arms inwards from extended position
A) Raise hand just above shoulder height with open palm, ensure eye-contact with crew, close hand into a fist
- While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on his 100° relative bearing. Assuming you are on converging courses, you should see his:
A) White navigation light
B) Red navigation light
C) Green and white navigation lights
D) Green navigation light
D) Green navigation light
- Describe the lights to be displayed by an aircraft in flight at night:
A) Navigation lights and anti-collision lights
B) Navigation lights only
C) Anti-collision lights only
D) Navigation lights, anti-collision lights, and landing lights
A) Navigation lights and anti-collision lights
- What is the meaning of the term “DANGER AREAS”?
A) An airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters of a State within which flight of aircraft is prohibited
B) An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times
C) A NOTAM activated airspace where the general flight rules are disregarded
D) An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification
B) An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times
- Who is in charge of the safe conduct of a flight?
A) The pilot-in-command
B) The ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace
C) The aircraft owner
D) The airline operator
A) The pilot-in-command
- Which of the following defines “FLIGHT VISIBILITY”?
A) Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze, or precipitation
B) The forward visibility from the flight cockpit of an aircraft in flight
C) The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlighted objects by day and lighted objects by night
D) The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the air with reference to atmospheric conditions
B) The forward visibility from the flight cockpit of an aircraft in flight
- When must the pilot turn on the navigation lights?
A) Only in the daytime
B) Only at night
C) Day and night
D) When in IMC
B) Only at night
- Which of the following defines “GROUND VISIBILITY”?
A) The visibility forward from the flight deck of an aircraft
B) The visibility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer or by automatic systems
C) The visibility reported by a pilot currently flying in the vicinity
D) The forecast visibility at 3000 ft above the aerodrome
B) The visibility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer or by automatic systems
- How is “FLIGHT VISIBILITY” defined?
A) The visibility reported by a pilot currently flying in the vicinity
B) The forecast visibility at 3000 ft above the aerodrome
C) The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight
D) The visibility as reported by an accredited observer
C) The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight
- The pre-flight actions for a flight leaving the local aerodrome area, is to include a careful:
A) Study of the available meteorological reports and forecasts for the route
B) Study of the available weather charts
C) Briefing of the crew
D) Briefing of the passengers
A) Study of the available meteorological reports and forecasts for the route
- State who on board an aircraft is primarily responsible for the operation of the aircraft in accordance with the Rules of the Air (ICAO Annex 2):
A) The operator
B) The safety manager
C) The senior cabin crew member
D) The pilot-in-command
D) The pilot-in-command
- In general, the ICAO Annex 2 (Rules of the Air) applies:
A) To all IFR traffic
B) To all VFR traffic
C) Only to aircraft registered in the State being overflown
D) To all IFR and VFR traffic
D) To all IFR and VFR traffic
- While taxiing, an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
A) Must stop
B) Must return to its point of departure
C) May continue to taxi to the take-off area
D) Must vacate the landing area in use
D) Must vacate the landing area in use
- The final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft in flight lies with the:
A) Aircraft operator
B) Pilot-in-command
C) Aircraft owner
D) ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace
B) Pilot-in-command
- When is a deviation from the Rules of the Air permitted?
A) Only in the interests of flight safety
B) Anytime the PIC thinks it is necessary
C) Only if the operator has special dispensation from the aircraft manufacturer
D) Only when it is economically advantageous
A) Only in the interests of flight safety
- Pre-flight briefing for flights away from the vicinity of an aerodrome and all IFR flights shall include which of the following?
A meteorological brief
A consideration of the fuel requirements
Alternative actions if the flight cannot be completed as planned
A) 1
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 2, 3
D) All of the above are recommended but not mandatory
C) 1, 2, 3
- No continuous air-ground voice communication is required for VFR flights in airspaces:
A) G, E
B) TMZ, G, D
C) G, E, C
D) E, D, G
A) G, E
- The higher value being relevant, the pilot switches the altimeter from QNH to 1013.25 hpa above altitude 5000 ft MSL or:
A) 2000 ft GND
B) 2500 ft GND
C) 3000 ft GND
D) 3500 ft GND
A) 2000 ft GND
- What is the ceiling?
A) The lower limit of the lowest cloud layer above ground or water, covering more than half the sky and being below 6000 ft.
B) The lower limit of the base of the lowest layer of clouds above ground or water, covering more than half the sky below 20000 ft.
C) The lower limit of the lowest cloud layer above ground or water, covering at least half the sky and being below 20000 ft.
D) The lowest layer of the clouds forming the main part of the existing clouds and being below 20000 ft.
B) The lower limit of the base of the lowest layer of clouds above ground or water, covering more than half the sky below 20000 ft.
- Under which conditions may a control zone usually be entered during a VFR flight?
A. Never, because the control zone are exclusively be used by IFR traffic.
B. If VMC for the controlled airspace are fulfilled and the aircraft stays clear of clouds.
C. If DFS (German Air Navigation Services) has issued an entry clearance.
D. If VMC for airspace D-CTR is fulfilled with a ground visibility of 5 km, the cloud ceiling not lower than 1500 ft GND, and if the responsible air traffic control unit has issued the required clearance.
D. If VMC for airspace D-CTR is fulfilled with a ground visibility of 5 km, the cloud ceiling not lower than 1500 ft GND, and if the responsible air traffic control unit has issued the required clearance.
- A pilot is required to report observations concerning the safety to air traffic to:
A. the respective aeronautical authority of the Länder.
B. the nearest aerodrome operator.
C. the air traffic control unit responsible for him/her.
D. the respective aviation supervision.
C. the air traffic control unit responsible for him/her.
- In Germany, control zones are classified:
A. in the vicinity of military aerodromes as airspace B, in the vicinity of airports as airspace C, all others as airspace D.
B. as airspace D.
C. predominantly as airspace D, only a few as airspace C.
D. in the vicinity of aerodromes as airspace C, all others as airspace D.
B. as airspace D.
- The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are, in the increasing order of seriousness:
A. INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA
B. ALERTFA, DISTRESFA, RESCUEFA
C. DETRESFA, ALERTFA, INCERFA
D. INCERFA, ALERTFA, DISTRESFA
A. INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA
- For VFR flights, continuous two-way radio communication with ATS is required in the following airspace classes:
A. B, C, D.
B. B, C, D, E.
C. B, C, D, E, F.
D. B, C, D, E, F, G.
A INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA
- Which of the following phenomena would cause a SIGMET to be transmitted to aircraft flying at subsonic cruising levels?
A. Cumulonimbus cloud, volcanic ash or severe icing.
B. Active thunderstorms, moderate or severe turbulence or heavy hail.
C. Severe squall lines, heavy hail or severe icing.
D. Marked mountain waves or hail.
C. Severe squall lines, heavy hail or severe icing.
- DETRESFA is a situation where:
A. no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes
after the time a communication should have been received.
B. an aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of being cleared to land.
C. the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted.
D. an aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of being cleared to land or where the fuel on
board is considered to be exhausted.
C. the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted.
- A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC for the following airspaces:
A. CTR, TMA and AWY
B. CTR
C. CTR and CTA
D. CTR and TMA
B. CTR
- Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 meters, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class:
A. D and E airspaces
B. E airspace
C. D airspace
D. C, D and E airspaces
B. E airspace
