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2020.05.08 Well AP Exam V1 > Air Concept - Optimizations > Flashcards

Air Concept - Optimizations Flashcards

1
Q

Feature 13: Air Flush, Part 1: Air Flush, requires that a ___ is performed while maintaining an indoor air temperature of at least ___ degrees and a relative humidity below ___%

A

A building air flush must be performed while maintaining an indoor air temperature of at least 59 degrees and relative humidity below 60%

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2
Q

Feature 13: Air Flush, Part 1: Air Flush, requires that a building air flush is performed while maintaining an indoor air temperature of at least 59 degrees and a relative humidity below 60%, at one of the following (2) volumes:

A

a. Prior to occupancy: total air volume of 14,000 ft3
b. 3,500 air volume prior to occupancy + second flush of 10,500 ft3 post-occupancy. While the post-occupancy flush is taking place, the ventilation system must provide at least .3 CFM per minute of outdoor air at all times.

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3
Q

Feature 14: Air Filtration Management, Part 1: Air Leakage Testing requires that the following (2) are performed after substantial completion and prior to occupancy to ensure the structure is airtight:

A

a. Envelope commissioning in accordance with ASHRAE Guideline 0-2005 and the National Institute of Building Sciences (NIBS) (for new construction or structural renovation)
b. detailed plan for action and remediation of unacceptable conditions

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4
Q

Feature 14: Air Filtration Management, Part 1: Air Leakage Testing requires what type of documentation:

A

Annotated document & commissioning report

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5
Q

Feature 15: Increased Ventilation, Part 1: Increased Fresh Air Supply, requires that fresh air supply rates meet the following (2):

A

a. Must exceed ASHRAE 62.1-2013 fresh air supply rates met in the WELL Ventilation Effectiveness Feature by 30%
b. Follow CIBSE AM10 Design calculations

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6
Q

Feature 16: Humidity Control, Part 1: Relative Humidity, requires that at lease ONE of the following (2) are met:

a. Ventilation system with the capacity to maintain ____ levels between ___% at all times by adding or removing moisture from the air.
b. Modeled humidity levels in the space are within ___ to ___% for at least ___% of ALL business hours of the year.

A

a. Ventilation system with the capacity to maintain relative humidity levels between 30% to 50% at all times by adding or removing moisture from the air.
b. Modeled humidity levels in the space are within 30% to 50% for at least 95% of ALL business hours of the year.

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7
Q

___ humidity may promote the accumulation of growth of microbial pathogens, including bacteria, dust mites and mold.

A

High humidity may promote the accumulation of growth of microbial pathogens, including bacteria, dust mites and mold.

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8
Q

An ___ in relative humidity of ___% can increase emissions of Formaldehyde by a factor of ___ - ___.

A

An increase in relative humidity of 35% can increase emissions of Formaldehyde by a factor of 1.8 - 2.6.

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9
Q

Feature 17: Direct Source Ventilation, Part 1: Pollution Isolation and Exhaust, requires that ALL cleaning and chemical storage units, ALL bathrooms and ALL printers and copiers meet the following (2) conditions:

a. to be ___ from adjacent spaces with self-closing doors.
b. air is ___, so that all air is expelled rather than recirculated.

A

a. to be closed from adjacent spaces with self-closing doors.
b. air is exhausted, so that all air is expelled rather than recirculated.

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10
Q

Feature 17: Direct Source Ventilation, Part 1: Pollution Isolation and Exhaust key fact: copy rooms can contribute to the production of ___, which is linked to ___ and other respiratory diseases.

A

Feature 17: Direct Source Ventilation, Part 1: Pollution Isolation and Exhaust key fact: copy rooms can contribute to the production of ozone, which is linked to asthma and other respiratory diseases.

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11
Q

Feature 18: Air Quality Monitoring & Feedback, Part 1: Indoor Air Monitoring, requires that monitors measure ___ out of 3 of the following pollutants in a regularly occupied space (minimum ___ per floor) within the building, at intervals no longer than ___ and hour.

A

Part 1: Indoor Air Monitoring, requires that monitors measure 2 out of 3 of the following pollutants in a regularly occupied space (minimum 1 per floor) within the building, at intervals no longer than once and hour.

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12
Q

Feature 18: Air Quality Monitoring & Feedback, Part 1: Indoor Air Monitoring, requires that monitors measure 2 out of 3 of the following pollutants:

A

a. Particle count or particle mass
b. carbon dioxide
c. ozone

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13
Q

Feature 18: Air Quality Monitoring & Feedback, Part 2: Air Data Record-keeping & Response, requires that the project provide a ____ in an effort to consistently meet the WELL Parameters.

A

requires that the project provide a written policy in an effort to consistently meet the WELL Parameters.

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14
Q

Feature 18: Air Quality Monitoring & Feedback, Part 2: Air Data Record-keeping & Response, requires that the project provide a written policy specifying the (3) following:

a. detailed ____ strategies for monitoring and record-keeping of parameters listed in the Air Quality Standards feature.
b. Records are to be kept for a minimum of ___ years
c. Detailed plan for ___ and ___ of unacceptable conditions

A

a. detailed enforcement strategies for monitoring and record-keeping of parameters listed in the Air Quality Standards feature.
b. Records are to be kept for a minimum of 3 years
c. Detailed plan for action and remediation of unacceptable conditions

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15
Q

Feature 18: Air Quality Monitoring & Feedback, Part 3: Environmental Measure Display, requires a ___ display of the following (3) indoor environmental parameters are made available per ___ SF of regularly occupied space on a screen ___ x ___.

A

requires a real-time display of the following (3) indoor environmental parameters are made available per 10,000 SF of regularly occupied space on a screen 5.9” x 5.1”.

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16
Q

Feature 18: Air Quality Monitoring & Feedback, Part 3: Environmental Measure Display, requires the following (3) environmental parameters are displayed in real-time on a screen of 5.9” x 5.1”

A

a. temperature
b. humidity
c. carbon dioxide concentration

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17
Q

Feature 19: Operable Windows, Part 1: Full Control, requires that

a. every regularly occupied space has ___ that provide access to fresh air and daylight.

A

a. every regularly occupied space has operable windows that provide access to fresh air and daylight.

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18
Q

Feature 19: Operable Windows, Part 1: Full Control Key Fact:

____ prevailing breeze ___ and ___ levels must be analysed before integrating operable windows into the design.

A

Annual prevailing breeze patterns and average contaminant levels

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19
Q

Feature 19: Operable Windows, Part 2: Outdoor Air Measurement, requires that outdoor levels of ozone, PM10, temperature and humidity are monitored based on the following (1) requirement:

a. a ____ station is located within ___ of the building.

A

a. a data-gathering station is located within 1 mile of the building.

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20
Q

Feature 19: Operable Windows, Part 2: Outdoor Air Measurement, requires that the data collected on outdoor levels of ozone, PM10, temperature and humidity is made available to ___.

A

The building occupants

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21
Q

Feature 19: Operable Windows, Part 3: Window Operation Management, requires that the outdoor air measurement system indicates that outdoor air either (1 of 3 items):

a. exceeds ___ levels of ___ppb or ___ levels of ___ ug/m3.
b. has a temperature of ___ degrees F ___ the set indoor temperature
c. has a ___ above ___%

In addition, ONE of the following is used to discourage occupants from opening windows if outdoor conditions exceed any the above:

a. ___ on occupants’ computers or smartphones
b. ___ at all operable windows

A

a. exceeds ozone levels of 51ppb or PM10 levels of 50 ug/m3.
b. has a temperature of 15 degrees F above or below the set indoor temperature
c. has a relative humidity above 60%

In addition, ONE of the following is used to discourage occupants from opening windows if outdoor conditions exceed any the above:

a. Software on occupants’ computers or smartphones
b. Indicator lights at all operable windows

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22
Q

Feature 20: Outdoor Air Systems, Part 1: Dedicated Outdoor Air Systems (DOAS),

___ systems are used for heating and/or cooling system, and verified as being adequate through ONE of the following (2):

a. the system complies with the local codes or standards regarding dedicated outdoor air systems.
b. A ___ of the proposed system is conducted by an independent, qualified and registered professional mechanical engineer.

A

Dedicated outdoor air systems are used for heating and/or cooling system, and verified as being adequate through ONE of the following (2):

a. the system complies with the local codes or standards regarding dedicated outdoor air systems.
b. A detailed design review of the proposed system is conducted by an independent, qualified and registered professional mechanical engineer.

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23
Q

The ___ addresses thermal comfort (temperature, humidity, air, velocity, etc.) and ventilation rates, as well as overall serviceability and system reliability.

A

design review

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24
Q

Feature 21: Displacement Ventilation, Part 1: Displacement Ventilation Design & Application, requires that ONE of the following is met for projects implementing a ___ system for heating and/or cooling:

a. ___ air distribution with the air supply temperature slightly cooler/warmer than the desired space temperature
b. ___ air distribution (UFAD) with the air supply temperature slightly cooler/warmer than the desired space temperature

A

Application, requires that ONE of the following is met for projects implementing a displacement ventilation system for heating and/or cooling:

a. Low side wall air distribution with the air supply temperature slightly cooler/warmer than the desired space temperature
b. Underfloor air distribution (UFAD) with the air supply temperature slightly cooler/warmer than the desired space temperature

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25
Q

In Feature 21: Displacement Ventilation, Part 1: Displacement Ventilation Design & Application, displacement ventilation applied as part of an underfloor air distribution system MUST be installed at a ___ height whereby the underfloor area can be cleaned on an ___.

A

Underfloor air distribution system MUST be installed at a raised floor height whereby the underfloor area can be cleaned on an annual basis.

26
Q

Feature 21: Displacement Ventilation, Part 2: System Performance requires the following (2) items:

a. A ___ (CFD) analysis is conducted for the displacement ventilation system.
b. The displacement ventilation system meets ___ - Thermal Environmental Conditions for Human Occupancy - for comfort for at least ___ % of all regularly occupied space.

A

a. A Computational Fluid Dynamics (CFD) analysis is conducted for the displacement ventilation system.
b. The displacement ventilation system meets ASHRAE 55 - Thermal Environmental Conditions for Human Occupancy - for comfort for at least 75 % of all regularly occupied space.

27
Q

Feature 22: Pest Control, Part 1: Pest Reduction, requires that the following (3) are met:

a. ALL non-refrigerated, perishable food (including pet food) is stored in sealed containers)
b. ALL indoor garbage cans (except for paper recycling bins) ___ gallons or more, have lids & hands-free operations or are enclosed by cabinetry in an under-counter pull-out drawer
c. ALL indoor garbage cans ___ gallons or more have a lid.

A

a. ALL non-refrigerated, perishable food (including pet food) is stored in sealed containers)
b. ALL indoor garbage cans (except for paper recycling bins) 30 gallons or more, have lids & hands-free operations or are enclosed by cabinetry in an under-counter pull-out drawer
c. ALL indoor garbage cans 30 gallons or more have a lid.

28
Q

Feature 22: Pest Control, Part 2: Pest Inspection, requires that inspections show that the following (1 item) is not present:

A

Signs of infestation by cockroaches, termites or other pests must not be present.

29
Q

Feature 22: Pest Control Key Fact: up to ___% of individuals with asthma who live in urban environments also have sensitivity to cockroach allergens.

A

Up to 60% of individuals with asthma who live in urban environments also have sensitivity to cockroach allergens.

30
Q

Feature 23: Advances Air Purification requires the use of ___ filters to remove ___ and ___, as well as ___ to irradiate ___, ___ & ___ present in circulating indoor air.

A

Feature 23: Advances Air Purification requires the use of carbon filters to remove VOC’s and ozone, as well as UV Sanitizers to irradiate bacteria, viruses & mold spores present in circulating indoor air.

31
Q

___ are carbon and hydrogen-containing materials which evaporate and diffuse easily at ambient air.

A

VOC’s

32
Q

Feature 23: Advances Air Purification, Part 1: Carbon Filtration, requires the use of ONE of the following in order to reduce VOC’s in the indoor air in buildings which recirculate air:

a. ___ filters in the main air ducts to filter recirculated air
b. ___ air purifier with a carbon filter used in all regularly occupied spaces.

A

a. Activated carbon filters in the main air ducts to filter recirculated air
b. A standalone air purifier with a carbon filter used in all regularly occupied spaces.

33
Q

Activated carbon filters trap ___ particles while MERV filters trap ___ particles.

A

Activated carbon filters trap larger particles

MERV filters trap smaller filters

34
Q

Feature 23: Advances Air Purification, Part 2: Air Sanitization, requires that spaces with >___ regular occupants, within buildings that recirculate air, use ONE of the following (2) treatments or technologies to treat the recirculated air - either integrated within the central ventilation system or as a standalone devise:

a. ___: a method that uses ___ to break down microorganisms by destroying their DNA
b. ___: which is achieved when UV light rays and Ti)2-coated filters are combined.

A

Required in spaces with >10 regular occupants

a. Ultraviolet Germicidal Irradiation (UVGI): a method that uses IV Light to break down microorganisms by destroying their DNA
b. Photocatalytic Oxidation: which is achieved when UV light rays and Ti)2-coated filters are combined

35
Q

Feature 23: Advances Air Purification, Part 3: Air Quality Maintenance, requires evidence that the selected filtration/sanitation system continues to be fully operational. In order to do so, the project must provide IWBI with said evidence ___.

A

Annually

36
Q

Feature 23: Advances Air Purification, Part 3: Air Quality Maintenance, requires evidence that the selected filtration/sanitation system continues to be fully operational. The evidence should come annually in the form of (1) item:

A

Records of air filtration/sanitization maintenance, including evidence that the filter and/or sanitizer has been properly maintained.

37
Q

Feature 23: Advances Air Purification, Part 3: Air Quality Maintenance, requires the following (3) documentations:

A

Letter from the MEP Engineer, spot checks (for part 1 & 2), and operations schedule (for part 3)

38
Q

Feature 24: Combustion Minimization, Part 1: Appliance & Heater Combustion Ban, requires that the following (1) are forbidden in regularly occupied spaces:

a. ___-based fireplaces, stoves, space heaters, ranges and ovens

A

a. Combustion-based fireplaces, stoves, space heaters, ranges and ovens

39
Q

Feature 24: Combustion Minimization, Part 1: Appliance & Heater Combustion Ban Key Facts:

a. Carbon monoxide has ___ times the binding affinity for hemoglobin compared to oxygen.
b. ___ refers to lack of oxygen delivery to body tissue. It can cause nausea, loss of consciousness and death.

A

a. Carbon monoxide has 210 times the binding affinity for hemoglobin compared to oxygen.
b. Hypoxia refers to lack of oxygen delivery to body tissue. It can cause nausea, loss of consciousness and death.

40
Q

Feature 24: Combustion Minimization, Part 2: Low-emission Combustion Sources, require all combustion equipment used in the project for heating, cooling, water-heating, process heating or power generation (whether primary or back-up) must meet ___:

A

California’s South Coast Air Quality Management District Rules for Pollution

41
Q

In Feature 24: Combustion Minimization, Part 2: Low-emission Combustion Sources, combustion sources include the following (6) items:

A
  1. Internal combustion engines
  2. Furnaces
  3. Boilers
  4. Steam Generators
  5. Process Heathers
  6. Water Heaters
42
Q

Feature 24: Combustion Minimization, Part 3: Engine Exhaust Reduction, requires that ___ be visible from pick-up, drop-off and parking areas that indicate the following (1) items:

a. idling with vehicle engines on for >___ seconds is prohibited.

A

Signage indicating idling with vehicle engines on for > 30 seconds is prohibited.

43
Q

Feature 24: Combustion Minimization, Part 4: Construction Equipment, requires that the following (3) items are met in order to reduce ___ from both on-road and non-road diesel fueled vehicles and construction equipment:

a. ALL ___ vehicles comply with the ___ Tier ___ emissions std or local equivalent when applicable.
b. ALL ___ vehicles meet the requirements set forth in the ___ model year ___, or local equivalent when applicable.
c. ALL equipment, vehicles and loading/unloading are located ___ and ___ of adjacent buildings available.

A

Requires that the following (3) items are met in order to reduce particulate matter emissions from both on-road and non-road diesel fueled vehicles and construction equipment:

a. ALL non-road diesel engine vehicles comply with the EPA Tier 4PM emissions std or local equivalent when applicable.
b. ALL on-road diesel engine vehicles meet the requirements set forth in the EPA model year 2007 on-road standards for PM, or local equivalent when applicable.
c. ALL equipment, vehicles and loading/unloading are located away from air intakes and operable openings of adjacent buildings available.

44
Q

Feature 25, Toxic Material Reduction, Part 1: Perflourinated Compound Limitation requires that non-perflourinated compounds (PFC’s) are present in the following conditions (1 condition):

a. Levels less than or equal to ___ppm in components that constitute at least ___% by weight of a furniture or furnishings (draperies/curtains) assembly.

A

a. Levels less than or equal to 100ppm in components that constitute at least 5% by weight of a furniture or furnishings (draperies/curtains) assembly.

45
Q

Feature 25, Toxic Material Reduction, Part 2: Flame Retardant Limitation, requires that halogenated flame retardants are limited to ___% (___ppm) to the extent allowable by local code.

A

Requires that halogenated flame retardants are limited to 0.01% (100ppm) to the extent allowable by local code.

46
Q

Feature 25, Toxic Material Reduction, Part 3: Phthalate (Plasticizers) Limitation, requires that DEHP, DBP, BBP, DINP, DIDP, or DNOP (often found in Polyvinyl Chloride PVC) are limited to ___% (___ppm) in

a. flooring, including resilient and hard surface flooring and carpet
b. wall covering, window blinds and shades, shower curtains, furniture and upholstery
c. plumbing pipes and moisture barriers

A

Requires that DEHP, DBP, BBP, DINP, DIDP, or DNOP (often found in Polyvinyl Chloride PVC) are limited to 0.01% (100ppm)

47
Q

Feature 25, Toxic Material Reduction, Part 4: Isocyanate-based Polyurethane Limitation, requires that isocyanate-based polyurethane products are not used in the following (1) item:

A

interior finishings

48
Q

Feature 25, Toxic Material Reduction, Part 5: Urea-formaldehyde Restriction, requires that Urea-formaldehyde presence is limited in (3) components to ___ppm.

A

Requires that Urea-formaldehyde presence is limited in (3) components to 100ppm.

49
Q

Feature 26: Enhanced Material Safety, Part 1: Precautionary Material Safety, requires that at least ONE of the following (4) is met:

a. The project completes all imperatives in the ___ under the Living Building Challenge 3.0
b. At least ___% of products by cost (including furnishings, built-in furniture, all interior finishes and finish materials) are ___ certified.
c. At least ___% of products by cost (including furnishings, built-in furniture, all interior finishes and finish materials) have ___ substances over ___ppm, as verified by a qualified PhD toxicologist or certified industrial hygienist
d. At least ___% of products y cost (including furnishings, built-in furniture, all interior finishes and finish materials) meet some combination on the certifications described in requirements b and c.

A

a. The project completes all imperatives in the Materials Petal under the Living Building Challenge 3.0
b. At least 25% of products by cost (including furnishings, built-in furniture, all interior finishes and finish materials) are Cradle-to-Cradle Material Health certified.
c. At least 25% of products by cost (including furnishings, built-in furniture, all interior finishes and finish materials) have no-GreenScreen Benchmark substances over over 1,000ppm, as verified by a qualified PhD toxicologist or certified industrial hygienist
d. At least 25% of products y cost (including furnishings, built-in furniture, all interior finishes and finish materials) meet some combination on the certifications described in requirements b and c.

50
Q

Feature 26: Enhanced Material Safety, Part 1: Precautionary Material Safety Key Fact: off-gassing of chemicals from building materials can contribute to ___ and associated with respiratory, neurotoxic and dermatological symptoms.

A

can contribute to SBS (sick building syndrome) and associated with respiratory, neurotoxic and dermatological symptoms.

51
Q

Feature 27: Antimicrobial Activity for Surfaces, Part 1: High-touch Surfaces, requires that all countertops and fixtures in bathrooms and kitchens, and all handles, doorknobs, light switches and elevator buttons are ONE of the following (2):

a. coated with or comprised of material that is __, ___ and meets ___ for microbial activity
b. cleaned with a ___ device, that has an output of at least ___mW/cm2, used as recommended by the manufacturer.

A

a. coated with or comprised of material that is abrasion-resistant, non-leaching and meets EPA testing requirements for microbial activity
b. cleaned with a UV cleaning device, that has an output of at least ___mW/cm2, used as recommended by the manufacturer.

52
Q

Feature 27: Antimicrobial Activity for Surfaces, Part 1: High-touch Surfaces Key Fact: short wavelength ___ can reduce the bacterial load on surfaces as long as they’re used with sufficient frequency.

A

short wavelength ultraviolet light (UV-C) can reduce the bacterial load

53
Q

Feature 28: Cleanable Environment, Part 1: Material Properties, requires that ___ and ___ surfaces meet (3) requirements.

A

High-touch and non-porous surfaces

54
Q

Feature 28: Cleanable Environment, Part 2: Clean-ability, requires the following (3) items:

a. ___ carpeting is used, only ___, ___ or ___.
b. the building provides ___ space for all permanent, movable items to allow high-touch surfaces to be completely cleared during cleaning.
c. ___ between walls and windows/floors are ___.

A

a. No permanent wall-to-wall carpeting is used, only removable rugs, removable carpet tiles or hard surfaces are allowed.
b. the building provides adequate flexible storage space for all permanent, movable items to allow high-touch surfaces to be completely cleared during cleaning.
c. Right angles between walls and windows/floors are sealed.

55
Q

Feature 29: Cleaning Equipment, Part 1: Equipment and Cleaning Agents, require all cleaning equipment meets the following (3) items:

a. ___, ___ and ___ used to clean all non-porous surfaces consist of ___ with a ___ < or equal to ___.
b. ___ do not have to be ___
c. ___ contain filters with a ___ rating.

A

a. Mops, rags and dusters used to clean all non-porous surfaces consist of microfiber with a denier < or equal to 1.0.
b. Mops do not have to be wrung by hand.
c. Vacuum cleaners contain filters with a HEPA rating.

56
Q

___ filters remove 99.97% of all particles greater than 0.3 micrometres and satisfies standards of efficiency set by the Institute of Environmental Sciences and Technology.

A

High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA)

57
Q

Feature 23, Advanced Air Purification, requires the installation of which air purification method?

  1. Activated Carbon Filter
  2. MERV 13
  3. UVGI
  4. MERV 8
A

Activated Carbon Filter

58
Q

If a project has achieved the requirements for Feature 19, Operable Windows, what external conditions will cause an alert that discourages the building occupants from opening the outside windows?

  1. PM10 levels of 50 or a temp that is 8 degrees F from the set indoor temp
  2. PM2.5 levels of 50 or a temp that is 15 degrees F from the set indoor temp
  3. Ozone levels of 51 or a relative humidity below 60%
  4. Ozone levels of 51 or a temp that is 15 degrees F from the set indoor temp
A
  1. Ozone levels of 51 or a temp that is 15 degrees F from the set indoor temp

Why: Feature 19, operable windows, doesn’t monitor PM2.5, only Ozone, PM10, Humidity (cannot e above 60% humidity) and temp (cannot be 15 degrees difference in temp)

59
Q

Which three environmental conditions must be displayed in real time for Part 3: Environmental Measures Display of Feature 18, Air Quality Monitoring and Feedback?

[environmental is your key word. environment conditions = outdoor]

  1. particle count, carbon dioxide and ozone
  2. carbon monoxide, temperature and formaldehyde
  3. temperature, humidity, and particle count
  4. temperature, humidity and carbon dioxide concentration
A

temperature, humidity and carbon dioxide concentration

60
Q

What is one of the requirements that must be met for Part 2: Cleanability of Feature 28, Cleanable Environment?

  1. Permanent carpeting only is allowed in occupied spaces
  2. Removable rugs or carpet tile are not allowed
  3. Right angles between walls and ceilings are sealed
  4. Adequate flexible space is provided for permanent, moveable items
A
  1. Adequate flexible space is provided for permanent, moveable items
61
Q

Which ASHRAE document must be used as the basis for the design of an underfloor air distribution system for Feature 21, Displacement Ventilation?

  1. ASHRAE 55.1
  2. ASHRAE 62.1
  3. ASHRAE 0.2550
  4. ASHRAE UFAD Guide
A
  1. ASHRAE UFAD Guide

[tip: ASHRAE 55.1 is the standard that must be met for this feature but the Q is asking for which DOCUMENT must be used]

62
Q

Which standard must all combustion equipment used for HVAC or water heating meet to fulfill the requirements of Feature 24, Combustion Minimization?

a. SCAQMD’s rules for pollution
b. ASHRAE standard 5.1
c. EPA Tier 4 PM emissions standards
5. ASHRAE UFAD guide

A

a. SCAQMD’s rules for pollution

2020.05.08 Well AP Exam V1 (13 decks)

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