AIM Chapter 4 Air Traffic Control Flashcards

0
Q

Where can I get special VFR?

A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E to the surface
4-4-6(a)
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1
Q

What are special VFR wx minimums during the day?

A

Clear of clouds
1 sm flight visibility if operating in controlled airspace
1 sm ground visibility if taking off or landing
4-4-6(a)(1)

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2
Q

What is required for a pilot to operate special VFR at night?

A

Instrument rated pilot
Instrument capable aircraft
4-4-6(g)

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3
Q

When is an instrument rating required for special VFR?

A

Between sunset to sunrise

4-4-6(g)

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4
Q

Define METAR

A

Aviation Routine Weather Report

4-3-26(a)

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5
Q

Service volume of an AWOS

A

25 nm
10,000’
4-3-26(b)

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6
Q

How far out should a pilot call CTAF with their intentions

A

10 miles

4-1-9(c)(1)

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7
Q

MULTICOM frequency

A

122.9

Table 4-1-1

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8
Q

Define UNICOM

A

Nongovernment air/ground radio station which may provide airport information at public use airports where there is no tower or FSS
4-1-9(e)(1)

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9
Q

Define ATIS

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service

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10
Q

Standard air-to-air communications frequency

A

122.75

Table 4-1-3

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11
Q

What is ATIS?

A

Continuous broadcast of recorded noncontrol information in selected high activity terminal areas.
Designed to improve controller effectiveness and relieve frequency congestion
4-1-13(a)

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12
Q

If a pilot informs ATC they “have the numbers,” that means what?

A

They have received wind, runway, and altimeter information only
4-1-13(h)

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13
Q

ATIS includes

A
Time
Ceiling
Visibility 
Obstructions to visibility 
Temp
Dewpoint
Magnetic wind direction and velocity
Altimeter
Remarks
Runway in use
4-1-13(b)
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14
Q

When will a controller issue a safety alert?

A

When the controller is aware the aircraft is at an altitude which places the aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions or other aircraft
4-1-16

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15
Q

Basic radar services for VFR

A
Safety alerts
Traffic advisories 
Limited radar vectoring
Sequencing to the primary 
4-1-18(a)
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16
Q

When should a pilot contact approach control?

A

Approximately 25 miles out

4-1-18(a)(5)(a)

17
Q

What is the purpose of a TRSA?

A

Provide separation between all participating VFR aircraft and all IFR traffic

18
Q

Is pilot participation in a TRSA mandatory?

A

No

4-1-18(b)(1)

19
Q

Transponder code 7777

A

Reserved for military interceptor operations

4-1-20(e)(2)

20
Q

Transponder code 4000

A

Military pilots operating VFR or IFR within restricted/warning area

21
Q

When is a transponder required

A
At or above 10,000'
Within 30nm of class B
Within and above lateral bounds of class C airspace
Crossing an ADIZ
4-1-20(f)(2)
22
Q

How often must radio reports be made when utilizing hazardous area reporting service?

A

Every 10 minutes

4-1-21(a)(2)

23
Q

If radio contact has not been made within _____ minutes SAR will be initiated, when utilizing hazardous area reporting service

A

15 minutes

4-1-21(a)(2)

24
Q

The MEDEVAC callsign is intended for what?

A

Missions of an urgent medical nature
These aircraft will be given priority
4-2-4(b)

25
Q

How are runways identified.

A

Nearest 10 degree increment of the azimuth of the centerline

4-3-6(a)

26
Q

When the MU value is below ________ braking action performance starts to deteriorate

A

40 or less

4-3-9(c)

27
Q

Define LAHSO

A

Land And Hold Short

4-3-11(a)

28
Q

What are the weather minimums to receive a LAHSO clearance

A

3sm
1,000’
4-3-11(c)(5)

29
Q

If the ground control frequency is in the ________ bandwidth the controller may omit __________.

A

121 MHz
Omit the numbers preceding the decimal point
4-3-14(d)

30
Q

When is recommended that the pilot have the landing light on?

A

Below 10,000
Within 10 miles of an airport
4-3-23(c)

31
Q

When is it recommended to have the rotating beacon on?

A

When the engines are in operation

4-3-23(d)

32
Q

Squawk code 1255

A

Enroute to, from or within fire fighting areas

33
Q

When is the “Flight Check” call sign used?

A

Used to alert pilots and controllers when a FAA aircraft is engaged in flight inspection/certification of NAVAIDs and flight procedures
4-3-24(a)

34
Q

Squawk code 1277

A

SAR mission for USAF or USCG

4-1-20(g)(1)

36
Q

Squawk code 1202

A

Glider not in contact with ATC

4-1-20(g)(1)

37
Q

The absence of a sky condition or ceiling and/or visibility indicates what?

A

Sky condition or ceiling of 5,000’ or above
Visibility of 5 miles or more
4-1-13(e)

38
Q

UNICOM Communications Procedures

A
Report 10 miles from airport
Report downwind
Report base
Report final
Report leaving the runway 
4-1-9(h)
39
Q

Service volume for departure ATIS

A

5nm

100’ agl

40
Q

Service volume for arrival ATIS

A

20-60nm

25,000’

41
Q

Standard pattern altitude

A

1000’ agl unless otherwise stated

Figure 4-3-2