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Critical Care Paramedic > Advanced Airway Management > Flashcards

Advanced Airway Management Flashcards

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1
Q

Critical Value pH

A

7.2

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2
Q

Critical Value CO2

A

> 55

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3
Q

Critical Value PaO2

A

< 60

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4
Q

Needle cricothyrotomy should be performed in children < ______ years of age

A

8

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5
Q

Difficult Intubation Predictor Acronym

A 
Look
Evaluate
 (3 - 2 - 2)
Mallampti (I - IV)
Obstructions
Neck Mobility
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6
Q

The _____ criteria represent a set of difficult airway predictors is more specific to an emergent airway.

A 
H - Hypoxemia
E - Extremes of Size
A - Anatomic Challenges
V - Vomit, Blood, Fluid
E - Exsanguination/ Anemia
N - Neck Mobility
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7
Q

________ Maneuver is posterior pressure on the cricoid cartilage, believed to occlude esophagus.

A

Sellick’s

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8
Q

The _______ blade is the preferred method for neonates, infants, and young children.

A

Miller

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9
Q

Bougie Size for Adults:

A

15 Fr

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10
Q

Bougie Size for Pediatrics:

A

10 Fr

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11
Q

A High Flow Nasal Cannula can deliver _____ liters of warm, humidified air.

A

20 - 60

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12
Q

ETT Cuff pressure should be between _______ mmHg.

A

20 - 30

25 mmHg is standard

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13
Q

A ________ is the gold standard of ETT tube confirmation.

A

Chest X- Ray

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14
Q

The ETT Tube should be placed _____ cm above the carina.

A

4 - 5

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15
Q

The ETT Tube should be placed at the ______ vertebrae.

A

T3 - T4

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16
Q

Colorimetric Device should be _____ upon opening the package and should change to _____ if ET tube is placed correctly.

A

purple

yellow

“Yellow is yes, purple is pull.”

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17
Q

7 P’s For Successful Intubation

A 
Preparation
Preoxygenate
Pretreatment
Paralysis w/ induction
Protect 
Placement
Post-Intubation management
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18
Q

_______ is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent.

A

Succinylcholine

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19
Q

______ is the reversal agent for Fentanyl

A

Naloxone

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20
Q

______ is the reversal agent for Midazolam.

A

Flumazenil

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21
Q

Malignant Hyperthermia is treated with ________.

A

Dantrolene Sodium (Dantrium)

22
Q

______ is the reversal agent for Rocuronium.

A

Sugammadex (Bridion)

23
Q

Post Intubation Management Dosages

A

Fentanyl: 1 -3 mcg/kg/hr

Ketamine: 1 -2 mg/kg/hr

Versed: .05 - .1 mg/kg/hr

24
Q

_____ is how much air the patient breathes in a NORMAL BREATH.

A

Tidal Volume

25
Q

The amount of air that can be FORCEFULLY INHALED in addition to a normal tidal volume breath.

A

Inspiratory Reserve Volume

26
Q

The amount of air that can be FORCEFULLY EXHALED after a normal tidal volume breath.

A

Expiratory Reserve Volume

27
Q

Tidal Volume + Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume

A

Vital Capacity

28
Q

The amount of air left in the respiratory tract following forceful exhalation.

A

Residual Volume

29
Q

IRV + Tidal Volume + ERV + Residual Volume

A

Total Lung Capacity

30
Q

The surfaces of the airway that are not involved in gaseous exchange.

A

Dead Space (2ml/kg)

31
Q

_____ chemoreceptors are located in the medulla/pons.

A

Central

32
Q

______ chemoreceptors are located in the aortic arch/ carotid bodies.

A

Peripheral

33
Q

The Central Chemoreceptors are driven by _____.

A

CO2

34
Q

The peripheral chemoreceptors are driven by _____.

A

O2

35
Q

_______ is the law that gases travel from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

A

Fick’s Law of Diffusion

36
Q

Respiratory pattern which is deep, gasping inspiration with a pause at full inspiration followed by a brief, insufficient release. Associated with decerebrate posturing.

A

Apneustic

37
Q

Complete irregularity of breathing, with irregular pauses and increasing periods of apnea. Caused by damage to the medulla secondary to trauma or stroke.

A

Ataxic

38
Q

Groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea. Caused by medulla damage by stroke or trauma, or pressure on the medulla secondary to brainstem herniation.

A

Biot’s

39
Q

Pregressively deeper and sometimes faster breathing, followed by a gradual decrease that results in temporary apnea. Associated with decorticate posturing.

A

Cheyne-Stokes

40
Q

Respirations gradually become deep, labored and gasping. Associated with DKA.

A

Kussmaul’s

41
Q

The gold standard for oxygenation is _______.

A

pulse oximetry

42
Q

The gold standard for ventilation is ______.

A

ETCO2

43
Q

______ respiratory failure is the inability to diffuse O2. Seen in ARDS, Pneumonia, CHF.

A

Hypoxic

44
Q

______ respiratory failure is the inability to remove CO2. (Stroke, Trauma)

A

Hypercarbic

45
Q

How to measure tidal volume

A

4 - 8 cc/kg IDEAL BODY WEIGHT

46
Q

Peak Inspiratory Pressure should be < ____ cmH2O

A

35

47
Q

Plateau Pressure should be < ____ cmH2O.

A

30

48
Q

______ can lead to “breath-stacking”

A

Assist-Control Ventilation

49
Q

Ventilator Alarm Pneumonic

A 
D - dislodged
O - Obstructed 
P - Pneumothorax
E - Equipment
S - Stacked Breath
50
Q

Ratio of alveolar ventilation and blood traveling through the capillaries.

A

V/Q Ratio

51
Q

A flatted diaphragm on chest x-ray indicates _______.

A

Asthma and COPD

52
Q

______ shows a “ground glass appearance” on a chest x-ray

A

ARDS

Critical Care Paramedic (16 decks)

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