acute leukaemia Flashcards

1
Q

define acute leukaemia

A

accumulation of early myeloid or lymphoid precursors in the bone marrow, blood and other tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3 most likely causes of acute leukaemia

A

somatic mutation in early progenitor cells.
terminal event in a pre–existing blood disorder e.g. myeloproliferative disease.
chemotherapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the 2 main subgroups of acute leukaemia

A

acute myeloid leukaemia

acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Histological appearance of AML

A

blast cells in the peripheral blood
high white cell count, large immature cells with nuclei still present
high nucleus to cytoplasmic ratio and contains granules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Histological appearance of ALL

A

blast cells in the peripheral blood- smaller and rounder than in AML
smaller cytoplasm than AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the most common clinical presentations of acute myeloid leukaemia

A
  • bone marrow failure
  • anaemia
  • infections (staphylococcus aureus, perianal, oral candida)
  • bruising and haemorrhage.
  • DIC
  • lymph gland swelling (groin, axilla, cervical)
  • hepatomegaly.
  • gum hypertrophy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the most common clinical features of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A

Oral candida.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

diagnosis of leukaemia.

A
morphology
cytochemistry
flow cytometry- immunological markers
cytogenetics- FISH for genetic leukaemia's
molecular techniques- PCR for mutations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 2 types of classifications of AML

A

FAB-morphologically based on what is seen.

WHO- classification is risk adapted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what immunological markers are used to determine leukaemia

A

monoclonal antibodies determination

Immunofluorescence (in particular FACS- fluorescence activated cell sorting).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how does flourochrome-coupled antibody labelling work.

A
  • Cell surface covered with antigens
  • Antibody with flurochrome attaches,
  • Cells streamed into a single line, pass laser beam which shines beam,
  • They absorb light and then give of a specific wavelength to the colour they are.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which genetic abnormality has a good prognosis in AML

A

t(8;21) and t(15:17)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which genetic abnormality has bad prognosis in AML

A

monosomy 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the different types of chromosomal abnormalities in ALL

A

high hyperdiploidy
hyperdiploidy
pseudodiploidy
hypodiploidy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what define high hyperdiploidy

A

> 50 chromosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the 2 types of chromosomal abnormalities in ALL

A

structural and numerical.

17
Q

what factors result in poor prognosis for ALL

A
age
WBC count
Males- ALL develops in the testes.
cytogenetic abnormalities
poor response to treatment
T-ALL and null ALL
18
Q

how are molecular abnormalities monitor in acute leukaemia

e.g. where are the results obtained from

A

bone marrow and peripheral blood.

19
Q

What is the molecular pathology of AML (what causes AML)

A

abnormal cell proliferation
block in differentiation
Tumour suppression

20
Q

Management of AML

A

• Induction treatment to obtain remission, then consolidation with further courses of combination chemotherapy
younger patient- bone marrow transplant.

21
Q

management of ALL

A

All patients receive induction chemotherapy, intensive consolidation chemotherapy and prophylaxis of meningeal leukaemia with intrathecal methotrexate and cranial irradiation
Chemotherapy and bone marrow transplant

22
Q

how is bone marrow obtained

A

Siblings-25% chance of full HLA match.
Cord blood transplant= collected at birth.
Donor list.

23
Q

what is Peripheral Blood Stem Cell Transplantation

A

Bone marrow cells are forced into peripheral blood

24
Q

what condition is will a patients undergoing chemotherapy develop

A

neutropenia

25
Q

define neutropenic fever

A

pyrexia in the presence of a neutrophil count of less than 1.0 x 109/l

26
Q

what are patients who develop neutropenia at risk of

A

neutropenic sepsis- developing overwhelming gram negative or gram positive infection

27
Q

how is neutropenic sepsis managed in order to reduce the risk of infection

A

immediate administration of broad spectrum IV antibiotics (often Tazocin and Gentamicin

28
Q

how can neutropenic sepsis be prevented

A

protective isolation
prophylactic antibiotics
use of granulocyte colony stimulating
education