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Gwen - Reproductive Medicine (Obs, Gyn, Breast) > Abnormal labour and Induction of labour > Flashcards

Abnormal labour and Induction of labour Flashcards

1
Q

What percentage of pregnancies are induced?

A

10-20%

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2
Q

What are obstetric indications for induction of labour?

A
  • Uteroplacental insufficiency
  • Prolonged pregnancy - 41-42 weeks
  • Pre-labour PROM
  • IUGR
  • Oligo/anhydramnios
  • Abnormal uterine/umbilical dopplers
  • Abnormal CTG
  • Severe pre-eclampsia/Eclampsia
  • Unexplained antepartum haemorrhage
  • Chorioamnionitis
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3
Q

What are medical indications for induction of labour?

A
  • Severe hypertension
  • Uncontrolled DM
  • Renal disease with deteriorating renal function
  • Malignancies
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4
Q

What is induction of labour?

A

An attempt to artificially instigate labour using medications +/- artificial rupture of the amniotic membranes (performing amniotomy)

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5
Q

Methods of induction of labour

A
  • Membrane sweeping
  • Prostaglandin gel/oessary (most common)
  • Oxytocin with/wtihout artificial rupture of membranes
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6
Q

How is cervical ripening assessed?

A

Bishops Scoring

  • Dilatation
  • Effacement
  • Position
  • Consistency
  • Station
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7
Q

What are absolute contraindications to induction of labour?

A
  • Abnormal lie
  • Known pelvic obstruction
  • Placenta praevia
  • Foetal distress
  • Cephalopelvic disproprtion
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8
Q

What is the Bishop’s score used to determine?

A

Gives a score on cervical change - higher the score the more progressive change there is, indicating that induction of pregnancy is likely to be successful and when an amniotomy is likely to be possible

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9
Q

What are the relative contraindications to induction of labour?

A
  • Previous C-section
  • Asthma
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10
Q

Why is previous C-section a relative contraindication to induction of labour?

A

Uterus has a scar which increases risk of dehiscence/rupture if labour is artificially induced. The risk of rupture is increased with the use of prostaglandins

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11
Q

Why is asthma a relative contraindication of induction of labour?

A

Prostaglandins can cause respiratory smooth muscle contraction

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12
Q

Complications of inducing labour

A
  • Higher risk of intstrumental or caesarean
  • Utrenie hyperstimulation
  • Uterine rupture
  • Failed induction
  • Cord prolapse/shoulder dystocia
  • Infection
  • Prematurity
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13
Q

What medications are used in the induction of labour?

A
  • Prostaglandin analogues - Dinoprostone, Misoprostol
  • Oxytocin
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14
Q

What type of prostaglandin analogue is Dinoprostone?

A

Prostaglandin E2 analogue

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15
Q

What type of prostaglandin analogue is Misoprostol?

A

Prostaglandin E1 analgogue

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16
Q

What is the mechanism of action of prostaglandin analogues in induction of pregnancy?

A

Encourage cervical dilatation and effacement - ripening

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17
Q

What are adverse effects of prostaglandin analogues used for induction of labour?

A
  • Severe/hypertonic contractions
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Bowel upset
  • Pyrexia
  • Hypotension
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18
Q

What needs to be regularly monitored when using prostaglandin analogues?

A

Foetal heart - CTG

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19
Q

What is the mechanism of action of oxytocin in the induction of labour?

A

Initiates uterine contraction by attaching to uterine oxytocin receptors, increasing the frequency and force of contractions

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20
Q

What type of drug is oxytocin?

A

Cyclic nonapeptide

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21
Q

How are prostaglandin anaolgues administered?

A

PV

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22
Q

How is oxytocin administed for induction of labour?

A

IV

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23
Q

When is amniotomy performed in induction of labour?

A

Once cervix has effaced an dilated - Bishops > 7

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24
Q

When is oxytocin given in induction of labour?

A

Often used following prostaglandin treatment, once amniotomy has been performed

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25
Q

What monitoring needs to be done whilst giving a women an oxytocin infusion for induction of labour?

A

CTG monitoring

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26
Q

What are risks of using oxytocin use in induction of labour?

A
  • Uterine hypertonicity
  • Hypotension
  • Hyponatraemia
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27
Q

What does amniotomy cause release of?

A

Local prostaglandins - causes cervical ripening and myometrial contractions

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28
Q

Why is oxytocin often given at the time of amniotomy in induction of labour?

A

Decreases induction-delivery time, thereby decreasing both the foetal and maternal risk of sepsis

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29
Q

What are risks of trying to induce labour?

A
  • Prematurity
  • Drug side effects
  • C-section due to failed induction
  • Atonic PPH
  • Intrauterine infection with prolonged induction
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30
Q

Why should you monitor U+Es in someone being given oxytocin?

A

Has similar effects to ADH - look for dilutional hyponatraemia

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31
Q

How would you induce for intrauterine death at term?

A

25 mcg misoprostol every 2-4 hrs

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32
Q

When is labour augmentation required?

A

When contractions reduce frequency or strength in active labour even after spontaneous onset of labour

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33
Q

What needs to be determined before using medications to augment labour?

A

Woman needs to be assessed for signs of causes of lack of progress of labour e.g. obstruction due to malposition, which contractions could result in harm to foetus

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34
Q

What is used to augment labour?

A

IV oxytocin infusion

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35
Q

What are reasons for slow progress at stage 1 of labour?

A
  • Power
    • Inefficient uterine contraction (cervix won’t dilate) - syntocinon needed
  • Passenger
    • Malposition
    • Malpresentation,
    • Large Baby
  • Passages
    • Inadequate pelvis - CPD
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36
Q

When is failure to progress in labour suspected?

A

If there is:

  • <2cm dilation in 4 h
  • Slowing progress in parous woman
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37
Q

What is the term used to describe labour slow from onset?

A

1o dysfunctional labour

38
Q

What is the term used to describe previously adequate progress which has slowed in the first stage of labour?

A

2o arrest

39
Q

When would delay in 2nd stage of labour be suspected in a nulliparous woman?

A

If delivery is not imminent after 1 hr of active pushing

40
Q

When would delay in 2nd stage of labour be suspected in a multiparous woman?

A

If delivery is not imminent after 1 hr of activ pushing - requires obstetrician review and consideration for CS

41
Q

What would delay in the 2nd stage of labour always raise suspicion of in a multiparous woman?

A
  • Malposition
  • Disproportion
42
Q

What are the main reasons for failure of labour?

A

Powers, passages and passenger:

  • Powers - uterine inactivity
  • Passages - CPD, inadequate pelvies
  • Passenger - Large baby, malpresentation, malposition
43
Q

What is the difference between malposition and malpresentation?

A

Malpresentation referes to foetal position in the uterus, whereas malposition refers to the orientation of the foetal head (e.g. OA, LOA etc.)

44
Q

How would you monitor for foetal distress in labour?

A
  • Intermittent auscultation
  • CTG
  • Foetal blood sampling
45
Q

When would you consider advising against labour?

A
  • Obstruction to birth canal - Major placenta praevia, masses
  • Malpresentations - Transverse, shoulder, hand, ??breech
  • Medical conditions where labour would not be safe for woman
  • Specific previous labour complications - Previous uterine rupture
  • Fetal conditions
46
Q

What are the main complications that can occur in the 3rd stage of labour

A
  • Retained placenta
  • PPH
  • Obstetric shock
  • Inversion of the uterus
47
Q

What is a first degree perineal tear?

A

Injury to skin only

48
Q

What is a 2nd degree perineal tear?

A

Injury to the perineum involving perineal muscles

49
Q

What is a 3rd degree perineal tear?

A

Injury to perineum involving anal sphincter complex

50
Q

What is a grade 3a perineal tear?

A

Injury to perineum + <50% EAS thickness torn

51
Q

What is a grade 3b perineal tear?

A

Injury to perineum and >50% EAS torn

52
Q

What is a grade 3c perineal tear?

A

Injury to perineum and tear to IAS

53
Q

What is a 4th degree perineal tear?

A

Injury to perineum involving anal sphincter complex (EAS + IAS) and the anal/rectal epithelium

54
Q

What grade of tear is the following?

A

Grade 1

55
Q

What grade of perineal tear is the following?

A

Grade 2 - injury to perineal muscles

56
Q

What grade of perineal tear is the following?

A

Grade 3

57
Q

What grade of perineal tear is the following?

A

Grade 4

58
Q

What factors increase the risk of tears that involve the anal sphincters?

A
  • Forceps delivery
  • Nulliparity
  • Shoulder dystocia
  • 2nd stage > 1hr
  • Persistent OP postion
  • Midline episiotomy
  • Birth weight > 4kg
  • Epidural anaesthesia
  • Induction of labour
59
Q

When should episiotomy be considered?

A
  • Complicated vaginal delivery - breech, shoulder dystocia, forceps, ventouse
  • Extensive lower GI tract scarring - FGM, poorly healed 3rd/4th degree tears
  • Foetal distress
60
Q

What are the different types of episiotomy procedures?

A
  • Mediolateral episiotomy - most commonly used in UK
  • Midline episiotomy
61
Q

How is an episiotomy performed?

A
  • Epidural or regional block
  • 2 fingers between babies head and perineum
  • Scissors used to make sharp cut - 3-4cm long
62
Q

What are general complications of perineal trauma (including episiotomy)?

A
  • Bleeding
  • Haemorrhage
  • Pain
  • Infection
  • Scarring +/- potential disruption to anatomy
  • Dyspareunia
  • Fistula formation - very rare
63
Q

What should be done before repairing a perineal tear?

A

PR examination - ensure no trauma to anal sphincter

64
Q

What are the main indications for caesarian section?

A
  • Foetal compromise
  • Failure to progress in labour
  • Breech presentation
  • Repeat Caesarian section
65
Q

What are indications for category 1 (immediate) C-section?

A
  • Placental abruption with abnormal FHR/uterine irritability
  • Cord prolapse
  • Scar rupture
  • Prolonged bradycardia
  • Scalp pH < 7.2
66
Q

What are indications for category 2 (urgent) C-section?

A

Failure to progress with pathological CTG

67
Q

What are indications for category 3 (scheduled) C-section?

A
  • Severe pre-eclampsia
  • IUGR with poor foetal function tests
  • Failed induction of labour
68
Q

What are indications for a category 4 (elective) C-section?

A
  • Term singlton breech
  • Twin pregnancy with non-cephalic first twin
  • Maternal HIV
  • Primary genital herpes in 3rd trimester
  • Placenta praevia
69
Q

What intraoperative complications can occur in C-section procedures?

A
  • Uterine/uterocervical lacerations
  • Blood loss - Blood transfusion
  • Bladder laceration
  • Hysterectomy required
  • Bowel laceration
  • Ureteral injury
70
Q

What postoperative complications can occur following C-section?

A
  • Endometritis
  • Wound infection
  • Pulmonary atelectasis
  • VTE
  • UTI
71
Q

What risk factors can increase with risk of infection developing post C-section?

A
  • Preoperative remote infection
  • Chorioamionitis
  • Maternal severe systemic disease
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • High BMI
  • Nulliparity
  • Increased surgical blood loss
72
Q

What can C-section increase the risk of in subsequent pregnancies?

A
  • Uterine ruptue
  • Pleacenta praevia
  • Placenta accreta
  • Antepartum still birth
73
Q

What is preterm rupture of membranes?

A

DEfined as leakage of amniotic fluid in the abscence of uterine activity after 37 completed weeks of gestation

74
Q

What can cause prelabour rupture of membranes at term?

A
  • Unkown
  • Clinical/subclinical infection
  • Polyhydramnios
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Malpresentations
75
Q

What might be symptoms of prelabour rupture of membranes at term?

A
  • Sudden gush of fluid leaking from the vagina
  • Recurrent dampness
  • Constant leaking
76
Q

What might you see on examination in someone with prelabour rupture of membranes at term?

A

May need speculum exam:

  • Fluid leaking from cervix on valsalva
  • Liquor pooling in upper vagina
77
Q

What are clinical features of chorioamionitis?

A
  • Foetal tachycardia
  • Maternal tachycardia
  • Maternal pyrexia
  • Raised leucocytes
  • Rising CRP
  • Irritable/tender uterus
78
Q

How would you manage prelabout rupture of membranes at term?

A

Immediate induction (recommended after 24 hrs of rupture) or expectant managment

79
Q

What are maternal causes of malpresentation?

A
  • Multiparity
  • Pelvic tumours
  • Congenital uterine abnormalities
  • Contracted pelvis
80
Q

What are foetal causes of malpresentation?

A
  • Prematurity
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Intrauterine death
  • Macrosomia
  • Foetal abnormality
  • Polyhydramnios
  • Placenta praevia
81
Q

What placental problems can cause malpresentation?

A
  • Placenta praevia
  • Polyhydramnios
  • Amniotic bands
82
Q

When should retained placenta be suspected?

A

If it is not delivered within 30 minutes of the baby in actively managed 3rd stage and in 1h in physiologically managed 3rd stage

83
Q

How would you manage retained placenta?

A
  • IV access, FBC and crossmatch
  • Give Syntometrine or oxytocin
  • Transfer to theatre if oxytocin not effective
84
Q

What is regarded as delay in the 1st stage of labour?

A

<2cm/hr dilatation in 4hrs in any woman OR slowing progress

85
Q

What Bishops score would indicate that a womans cervix is “ripe”?

A

>5

86
Q

What is cord prolapse?

A

Umbilical cord prolapse is when, during labor, the umbilical cord comes out of the uterus with or before the presenting part of the baby. The concern with cord prolapse is that pressure on the cord will compromise blood flow to the baby and therefore foetal asphyxia.

87
Q

Risk factors for cod prolalpse

A
  • Prematurity,
  • Breech presentation
  • Multiple pregancy esp 2nd twin
  • Polyhydramnios
  • Uengaged head
  • Transverse or unstable lie + PROM
  • Placenta praevia
88
Q

What is occulta cord prolapse

A

Descent of umbillical cord through cervix alongside the presenting part

89
Q

What is overt cord prolapse

A

Descent of umbilical cord past the presenting part - EMERGENCY

90
Q

Management of a cord prolapse

A
  • Call for help
  • Alert labour ward
  • Alert neonatal team
  • Put women either head down (left lateral position) or get her onto knee elbow position
  • IMMEDIATE C section is best
91
Q

Complications of cord prolapse

A

Infant death

Cerebral palsy

Hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy

Gwen - Reproductive Medicine (Obs, Gyn, Breast) (49 decks)

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