Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Ortho > A&P > Flashcards

A&P Flashcards

1
Q

Stages of Intramembranous Ossification

A

Ossification center appears in fibrous CT membrane
Bone matrix is secreted within the fibrous membrane
Woven bone & periosteum form
Bone collar of compact bone forms/red marrow appears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Stages of Endochondral Ossification

A 
Formation of bone collar
Cavitation of the hyaline cartilage
Spongy bone formation
Formation of medullary cavity; appearance of secondary ossification centers
Ossification of the epiphyses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3 Functional Zones of Postnatal Bone Growth

A

Growth
Transformation
Osteogenic development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Growth Zone of Long Bone Growth

A

Cartilage cells undergo mitosis

Pushes epiphysis away from diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Transformation Zone of Long Bone Growth

A

Older cells enlarge
Matrix becomes calcified
Cartilage cells die
Matrix begins to deteriorate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Osteogenic Zone of Long Bone Growth

A

New bone formation occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Growth in Length of Long Bones

A

Cartilage continually grows and is replaced by bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Remodeling of Long Bones

A

Bone is resorbed & added by appositional growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hormonal Regulation of Bone Growth

A

Infancy/childhood: GH

Puberty: testosterone & estrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Testosterone & Estrogens in Bone Growth

A

Promote growth spurts
Masculinization & feminization of specific parts of the skeleton
Induce epiphyseal plate closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Remodeling Units in Bone Remodeling

A

Osteoblasts & osteoclasts deposit & resorb bone at periosteal & endosteal surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where does bone deposition occur?

A

Where bone is injured or added strength is needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bone Deposition Requirements

A 
Protein
Vitamin C, D, & A
Calcium
Phosphorus
Magnesium
Manganese
Alkaline phosphatase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is bone resorption accomplished?

A

Osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do osteoclasts secrete to resorb bone?

A

Lysosomal enzymes

Acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do lysosomal enzymes do during bone resorption?

A

Digest organic matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do acids do during bone resorption?

A

Convert calcium salts into soluble forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Importance of Ionic Calcium in the Body

A 
Transmission of nerve impulses
Muscle contraction
Blood coagulation
Secretion by glands & nerve cells
Cell division
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

2 Loops that Control Remodeling of Bone

A 
Hormonal mechanism (PTH)
Mechanical & gravitational forces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe Wolff’s Law

A

Bone grows or remodels in response to the forces or demands place upon it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bone’s Response to Mechanical Response

A

Trabeculae form along lines of stress

Large, bony projections occur where large, active muscles attach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How are bone fractures classified?

A

Position of bone ends after fracture
Completeness of the break
Orientation of bone to the long axis
+/- bone ends penetrate the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Types of Bone Fractures

A 
Non-displaced
Displaced
Complete
Incomplete
Linear
Transverse
Compound
Simple
Comminuted
Spiral
Depressed
Compression
Epiphyseal
Greenstick
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe a Non-displaced Fracture

A

Bone ends retain their normal position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe a Displaced Fracture

A

Bone ends are out of normal alignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe a Complete Fracture

A

Bone is broken all the way through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe an Incomplete Fracture

A

Bone is not broken all the way through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe a Linear Fracture

A

Fracture is parallel to the long axis of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe a Transverse Fracture

A

Fracture is perpendicular to the long axis of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe a Compound Fracture (Open)

A

Bone ends penetrate the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe a Simple Fracture (Closed)

A

Bone ends do not penetrate the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe a Comminuted Fracture

A

Bone fragments into three or more pieces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Describe a Spiral Fracture

A

Ragged break when bone is excessively twisted (sports injury)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe a Depressed Fracture

A

Broken bone portion pressed inward (skull)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe a Compression Fracture

A

Bone is crushed

Common in porous bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe an Epiphyseal Fracture

A

Epiphysis separates from diaphysis along the epiphyseal line

37
Q

Describe a Greenstick Fracture

A

Incomplete fracture where one side of the bone breaks and the other side bends

38
Q

Stages in Healing a Bone Fracture

A

Hematoma Formation
Fibrocartilaginous callous forms
Bony callus forms
Bone remodeling

39
Q

Fibrocartilaginous Callus Formation

A

Granulation tissue forms few days after fracture
Capillaries grow into tissue
Phagocytes clean up debris

40
Q

Bony Callus Formation

A

Bone trabeculae appear in the fibrocartilaginous callus

Fibrocartilaginous callus converts to bony callus

41
Q

Bone Remodeling in Bone Fractures

A

Osteoclasts remove excess material

Osteoblasts lay down compact bone

42
Q

Define Osteomalacia

A

Bones are inadequately mineralized

Soft, weak bones

43
Q

What is osteomalacia caused by?

A

Lack of calcium or vitamin D deficiency

44
Q

Common Physical Findings in Rickets

A

Bowed legs

Deformities of the pelvis, skull, & rib cage

45
Q

Define Osteoporosis

A

Bone resorption outpaces bone deposit

46
Q

Treatment of Osteoporosis

A 
Calcium + Vitamin D
Increase weight bearing exercise
Hormone replacement therapy
Natural progesterone cream
Statins
47
Q

What is Paget’s disease characterized?

A

Excess bone formation & breakdown

48
Q

Where is Paget’s disease usually localized?

A

Spine
Pelvis
Femur
Skull

49
Q

Treatment of Paget’s Disease

A

Didronate

Fosfamax

50
Q

Define Ligament

A

Connect bone to bone

Provide stability

51
Q

Define Tendon

A

Connect bone to muscle

Provide motion

52
Q

Overuse Injuries to Tendon

A

Usually respond to rest

53
Q

Acute Injuries to Tendon

A

May need surgical repair

54
Q

Partial Strains, Sprains, & Tears

A

Will heal if protected

55
Q

Complete Strains, Sprains, & Tears

A

Often need surgical repair

56
Q

Define Bursitis

A

Inflammation of bursa from overuse

57
Q

Most Common Deep Bursitis

A

Greater trochanter

Rotator cuff

58
Q

Most Common Superficial Bursitis

A

Olecranon

Pre-patellar

59
Q

Description of Skeletal Muscle

A

Striated
Multiple nuclei
Voluntary

60
Q

Description of Cardiac Muscle

A

Striated
Single nucleus
Involuntary

61
Q

Description of Smooth Muscle

A

No striations
Single nucleus
Involuntary

62
Q

Function of Skeletal Muscles

A

Movement of bones or fluids
Maintaining posture & body position
Stabilizing joints
Heat generation

63
Q

Define Epimysium

A

Dense regular connective tissue surrounding entire muscle

64
Q

Define Perimysium

A

Fibrous connective tissue surrounding fascicles

65
Q

Define Endomysium

A

Fine areolar connective tissue surrounding each muscle fiber

66
Q

What is a sarcomere?

A

Smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber

67
Q

Thick Filaments of a Sarcomere

A

Entire length of A band

68
Q

Thin Filaments of a Sarcomere

A

Run length of I band and part of the A band

69
Q

Z disc of a Sarcomere

A

Coin-shaped sheet of proteins that anchors the thin filaments
Connects myofibrils to one another

70
Q

H Zone of a Sarcomere

A

Region of only thick filaments

Mid-region where filaments don’t overlap

71
Q

M Line of Sarcomere

A

Where thick filaments attach

72
Q

What are the regulatory proteins that are bound to actin?

A

Tropomyosin

Troponin

73
Q

Describe the Sliding Filament Model of Contraction

A

Myosin heads bind to actin, detach, & bind again
Propel the thin filaments toward the M line
H zones shorten & disappear, sarcomeres shorten, muscle cells shorten, & whole muscle shortens

74
Q

Requirements for Skeletal Muscle Contraction

A

Activation

Excitation-contraction coupling

75
Q

Define Activation Regarding Skeletal Muscle Contraction

A

Neural stimulation at a neuromuscular junction

76
Q

Define Excitation-Contracting Coupling

A

Generation & propagation of an action potential along the sarcolemma

77
Q

Where are ACh receptors found on the muscles?

A

Junctional folds of the sarcolemma

78
Q

What part of neuromuscular transmission does myasthenia gravis and neuromuscular blockers affect?

A

ACh binding to ACh receptors

79
Q

What part of neuromuscular transmission does botulinum toxin affect?

A

Calcium influx into the axon terminals

80
Q

What part of neuromuscular transmission does MS affect?

A

Action potential to axon terminals

81
Q

Define Summation

A

Rapid sequence of stimuli

Muscle twitches fuse together

82
Q

Define Tetanus

A

Very rapid sequence of stimuli

No relaxation

83
Q

Muscle Fiber Components

A 
Sarcolemma
Sarcoplasma
Motor end plate
T tubule
Cisternae
Myofibrals
84
Q

Define Sarcolemma

A

Muscle cell membrane

85
Q

Define Sarcoplasma

A

Muscle cell cytoplasm

86
Q

Define Motor End Plat

A

Contact surface with axon terminal

87
Q

Define T Tubule

A

Cell membrane extension into the sarcoplasm

Reaches myofibrils

88
Q

Define Cisternae

A

Areas of the ER dedicated to Ca storage

On each side of T tubule

89
Q

What are myofibrils organized into?

A

Sarcomeres

Ortho (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions