9 long bones- mature

Question 1

What is the name of the structure is the arrow pointing towards?

Quadracondylar ridge

Tricipital line

Coracoid line

Bicipetal crest

Answer 1

b

Question 2

Which type of fungal disease is best characterised with the following definition: Typically osteolytic with proliferation and soft tissue swelling. Majority of bone lesions are solitary and occur distal to the stifle and elbow.

Coccidiomycosis

Blastomycosis

Histoplasmosis

Aspergillosis

Answer 2

b

Question 3

Which of the following features can help to differentiate bacterial osteomyelitis from neoplasia?

Sclerotic margination

Presence of wide transition zone

Soft tissue swelling

Moth-eaten lysis

Answer 3

a

Question 4

Which of the following types of neoplasia is thought to be the most aggressive form of surface osteosarcoma?

Juxtacortical osteosarcoma

Parosteal osteosarcoma

Periosteal osteosarcoma

High-grade surface osteosarcoma

Answer 4

d

Question 5

Which breed has a reported higher risk of developing chondrosarcoma?

Golden Retriever

German Shepherd Dogs

Flat-coated retriever

German short-haired pointed

Answer 5

a

Question 6

What is the most common site for metastatic neoplasia within the bones?

At the physeal scar

Proximal metaphysis

Diaphysis adjacent to the nutrient foramen

In the epiphysis

Answer 6

c

Question 7

Which statement regarding feline osteosarcomas is incorrect?

They are unlikely to metastasise

They account for 80-90% of primary bone tumours in cats

Occurs in equal frequency in both axial and appendicular skeleton

Does not have a bimodal age distribution

Answer 7

b- it is 70-80%

Question 8

According to the BSAVA MSK book, which breed is not reported to have spontaneous fracture of the lateral fabellae?

Border Collie

Golden Retriever

Labrador Retrierver

Australian Cattle Dog

Answer 8

d

Question 9

Which muscle attach at the level of the white arrow?

Deltoideus

Teres minor

Teres major

Coracobrachialis

Answer 9

. Arrow –> deltoid tuberosity- lateral Teres major attachment is at the arrowhead (medial, with latisimus). Teres minor- greater tubercle just above deltoid tuberosity

Question 10

4. What passes through the supracondylar foramen and what structures should be considered at risk of damage in the case of fractures adjacent to this region? (2 correct)

Brachial artery

Radial nerve

Musculocutaneous nerve

Median nerve

Answer 10

a and d

Question 11

5. In which breed of dogs the fabellae of the gastrocnemius are particularly located in different levels?

Boxer

German Scheper

WHWT

Chihuahua

Answer 11

c

Question 12

In terms of differentiation of primary malignant bone neoplasia and osteomyelitis, which species is most affected with osteomyelitis?

Cats

Dogs

Answer 12

a

Question 13

Which disease/s have been associated with bone infarcts?

Renal adenocarcinoma

skeletal osteosarcoma

skeletal fibrosarcoma

All of the above

Answer 13

all

Question 14

which bones more commonly get osteomyelitis (2)
calvarial bones
mandible
long bones
carpal bones
vertebral bones
tarsal bones
sesamoid bones

Answer 14

long, vertebral

Question 15

what is the most common form of haematogenous osteomyelitis in adult dogs?

Answer 15

discospondylitis

Question 16

how can you tell the difference between coccidiodomycosis or blastomycosis, and osteosarcoma?
a) you never can
b) the zone of transition is shorter in coccidioidomycosis
c) there is slower progression in OSA

Answer 16

b. The zone of transition (the region of transition between the lesion and adjacent normal bone) tends to be shorter
and better defined than with osteosarcoma, and the rate of change on serial radiographs also tends to be slower.
Thoracic radiographs may reveal hilar lymphadenopathy in coccidiodomycosis.

Question 17

which is true?
a) cats are more likely to get histoplasmosis than dogs
b) dogs are more likely to get histoplasmosis than cats
c) both dogs and cats are equally likely to be infected.
d) occurs in the east

Answer 17

c. occurs in central regions.
can also infect via GIT as well as inhalation

Question 18

name 2 protozoal diseases which can cause osteomyelitis

Answer 18

leishmania
hepatozoonosis

Question 19

what is the most likely cause of this change?
a) leishmania
b) bacterial osteomyelitis
c) metabolic disease
d) osteosarcoma

Answer 19

a

Question 20

how can you differentiate between giant cell tumours and bone cysts?

Answer 20

GCT are benign. Giant cell tumours (osteoclastoma) are rare neoplasms
seen in the epiphyses and metaphyses of long bones,
especially the distal ulna. Their radiographic appearance is
of an expansile lytic lesion with a multiloculated septate
appearance (geographic bone lysis). They resemble a bone
cyst; the differentiating feature is that giant cell tumours
usually occur in older patients and involve the epiphysis.

Question 21

Secondary renal hyperparathyroidism is caused by …
A) inability to excrete phosphates
B) inability to excrete calcium
C) excess phosphate excretion
D) excessive production of parathyroid hormone due to hyperlasia or neoplasia of the parathyroid gland(s)

Answer 21

A. Leads to excess calcium excretion and reduced serum calcium levels

Question 22

Which is true?
A) acth is not important for normal bone metabolism
B) hyperadrenocorticism is reported to cause decreased bone formation
C) hyperadrenocorticism leads to diffuse osteopetrosis

Answer 22

B