14 hips and pelvis Flashcards

1
Q

which side is closest to the plate

A

left

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2
Q

what is shown by the black arrows?
a) morgan line
b) circumferential femoral head osteophyte (CFHO)
c) normal femoral head
d) superimposition

A

B. the white is morgan line/ caudolateral curvilinear osteophyte

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3
Q

A subluxation index of 0.5 with the fluckiger technique means…
a) normal or borderline hip dysplasia
b) normal to severely dysplastic
c) all are severely dysplastic
d) 95% were severely dysplastic

A

D. The degree of lateral displacement of the femoral heads is quantified by the SI, which is comparable with the measurement of the DI described for the PennHIP® technique. This approach often shows a significantly higher degree of hip joint laxity than the standard VD extended hip joint view. A good correlation is reported between the severity of canine HD, graded according to conventional techniques (FCI grading scheme), and the degree of subluxation induced by this stress technique (Flückiger
et al., 1998)

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4
Q

how to perform a pennHIP?

A

the stifles in 90-degree flexion and the femurs oriented at 90 degrees to the tabletop (Figure 14.13a). Compression is achieved by placing weights on either side of the hip joints to achieve the maximum possible joint congruity. Distraction is achieved by placing a patented distractor between the femurs. The femurs are compressed against the device, which acts as a fulcrum allowing a lateral dis- tractive force on the hip joint, resulting in subluxation of lax joints. A distraction index is then calculated as an indicator of hip joint laxity

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5
Q

can this patient undergo close reduction
yes
no

A

no, avulsion of the round ligament

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6
Q

what is the significance of lumbar transitional vertebrae?
a) all are significant
b) due to the heritable mature, dogs with LTV should never be bred from
c) dogs with marked asymmetry of the LTV are predisposed to cauda equina syndrome
d)dogs with marked asymmetry of the LTV are predisposed to angular limb deformity

A

C

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7
Q

what is the most correct diagnosis?
a) dystrophic calcification
b) metastatic calcification
c) calcifying tendinopathy
d) calcifying tendinitis

A

C and A

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8
Q

what is the diagnosis?
a) hip dysplasia and ostreoarthritis
b) calcifying tendinopathy and incidental ossicle
c) septic arthritis
d) epiphyseal dysplasia

A

B
tendinopathy of the iliopsoas which attaches to the lesser trochanter. ossicle (separate ossification) near acetabulum

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9
Q

which is not a common site to see changes associated with calcifying tendinopathy?
a) next to the greater trochanter
b) next to the lesser trochanter
c) adjacent to the cranial border of the acetabulum
d) iliopubic/ iliopectineal eminence

A

C

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10
Q

which is false about legg- calve- perthes disease (avascular femoral head necrosis)?
a) it is unilateral in 90% of cases
b) it is autosomal dominant in west highland white terriers
c) the first radiographic sign is joint space widening
d) radiography is insensitive in the early stages of the disease

A

B. thought to be autosomal recessive.

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11
Q

what is your diagnosis?
a) avascular necrosis of the femoral head
b) slipped capital femoral epiphysis
c) capital metaphyseal osteopathy
d) hypovitaminosis D

A

C. also called physeal dysplasia. radiography shows extensive lysis and remodelling of the femoral neck and secondary pathological fractures. Osteolysis may be present in the metaphysis, while sclerosis affects the epiphysis. can get secondary pathological fracture. The aetiology remains unclear, although physeal cartilage abnormalities resulting in secondary separation, avascular necrosis and osteomyelitis are proposed. It is under discussion whether metaphyseal osteopathy represents a late stage of SCFE

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12
Q

slipped capital femoral physis is more common in…
a) german shepherds and labrador retrievers
b) pugs and german shepherds
c) labrador retrievers and shetland sheepdogs
d) shetland sheepdogs and german shepherds

A

C. Radiographically, the femoral neck shows a mixture of punctate lysis and smooth new bone formation, leading to gradual resorption and narrowing of the metaphysis. Displacement of the epiphysis relative to the metaphysis may be present secondary to the separation.

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13
Q

name the 3 primary signs of hip dysplasia

A
  • Hip joint laxity, represented by joint space divergence
  • Lack of formation of the acetabulum or secondary
    shallow acetabulum due to a lack of formative forces
  • Poor coverage of the femoral head: the femoral head
    centre is located lateral to the dorsal acetabular margin as evidenced by a decreased Norberg angle.
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14
Q

name 3/5 secondary signs of hip dysplasia

A
  • Subchondral sclerosis at the cranial acetabular margin, which moves laterally over time
  • CCO, also known as a Morgan’s line, at the caudal aspect of the femoral neck where the joint capsule inserts (see Figure 14.9)
  • CFHO, which is at the cranial femoral head joint capsule insertion
  • The above two osteophytic reactions progress over time, resulting in remodelling of the femoral head and neck
  • Periarticular osteophyte formation on the cranial effective acetabular rim and dorsal acetabular margin.
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15
Q

What is false about the norberg angle
a) Normal hips of medium to large breed dogs have an angle of more than or equal to 105 degrees is considered normal
b) in small breed dogs an angle more than 106 degrees is considered normal
c) high correlation between the norberg angle and development of osteophytes
d) the norberg angle in cats can be as small as 95 degrees.

A

B. a smaller angle is seen in normal small breed dogs

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16
Q

The hip scoring system which allows the earliest scoring is…
a) BVA
b) FCI
c) OFA
d) PennHip

A

D 16 wks

17
Q

a straight line seen in the region of the morgan line in a puppy should be…
a) disregarded
b) considered an early sign of hip dysplasia
c) considered a sign of metaphyseal osteopathy
d) considered a folding fracture

A

A

18
Q

what is the diagnosis?
a) mucolipidosis II
b) epiphyseal dysplasia
c) mucopolysaccharidosis VI
d) osteogenesis imperfecta

A

C. changes include vertebral deformity, fusion of the cervical vertebrae, hip laxity and luxation due to dysplastic acetab- ula, epiphyseal dysplasia and pectus excavatum. The gene defect can be inherited, and European Shorthair and Siamese cats are most frequently affected. Mucolipidosis type II is another lysosomal storage disease that may mimic severe HD and most commonly causes bilateral femoral head luxation.

19
Q

On VD extended views, if there is pelvic tilt, the joint space nearest the table is?

a-Narrower

b-Wider

c-No change

d-Variable, depending on the patient

A

B hip joint space wider

20
Q

Which projection can help detect undetected pelvic fractures (from standard orthogonal radiographs)

a-Ventrocranial-dorsocaudal view

b-Ventrocaudal-dorsocranial view

c-Ventrodorsal flexed view

d-Fluckiger view

A

a inlet view

21
Q

Which of the following statements regarding coxofemoral luxations/subluxations is incorrect?

a-Likelihood of repeated luxations and prognosis are influenced by preexisting HD, which worsens the prognosis

b-Chronic luxations may result in pseudoarthrosis forming

c-Luxations is more likely in skeletally immature animals due to laxity of the muscle/ligaments

d-Most luxations are craniodorsal displacements

A

c

22
Q

Which is not an early feature of slipped capital femoral epiphysis in dogs?

a-Punctate lysis of the femoral neck

b-Displacement of the epiphysis relative to the metaphysis

c-Smooth new formation of the femoral neck

d-Widening of the joint space due to thickened cartilage

A

d

23
Q

what attaches to the lesser trochanter?
a-Tendon of the gluteal muscle at the major trochanter

b-Tendon of the iliopsoas muscle at the minor trochanter

c-Tendon of the psoas minor muscle as the iliopectineal eminence

d-None of the above

A