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23 General Pathology > 9 - Bones and Joints > Flashcards

9 - Bones and Joints Flashcards

1
Q

adult skeleton has how many bones

A

206

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2
Q

bones account for what percent of body weight

A

12%

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3
Q

bone consists of what

A

extracellular matrix and various cells

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4
Q

bone function includes what

A
  1. mech support
  2. force transmission
  3. internal organ projection
  4. mineral homeostasis
  5. major site of hematopoiesis during post natal life
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5
Q

what are the anatomic classification of bones

A
  1. Long bones (bones of arms and legs)
  2. Short bones (carpal and tarsal bones of hands and feet)
  3. Flat bones (skull, ilium, sternum, and rib cage)
  4. Sesamoid bones (small bones embedded in tendon to decrease stress on tendon)
  5. Irregular bones (maxilla, mandible, temporal, sphenoid, ethmoid)
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6
Q

structural (macroscopic) classification of bone

A
  1. cortical (80% skeleton)
  2. cancellous (spongy 20%)
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7
Q

what has high turnover to remodel during stress

A

cancellous bone

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8
Q

what are the microscopic bone classification

A
  1. woven (immature bone; not stress prone)
  2. lamellar (remodeled woven bone; stronger and less flexible)
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9
Q

what is bone matrix composed of

A
  1. osteoid (35%) and minerals (65%)
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10
Q

what is in bone matrix osteoid

A
  1. type 1 collagen
  2. small amount GAGs and other proteins
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11
Q

what is in bone matrix osteoid

A

primarily HAP

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12
Q

what does HAP do for bone

A

give it hardness and acts as repository for 99% of calcium and 85% of phosphorus in body

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13
Q

what is on the surface of osteoid matrix, synthesize, tranport and assemble matric and regulate mineralization

A

osteoblasts

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14
Q

can osteoblasts remain on surface of become embedded within matrix as osteocytes

A

YES

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15
Q

what are interconnected by dentritic cytoplasmic processes; help control calcium and phosphate levels and detect mechanical forces and translate them into biologic activity

A

osteocytes

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16
Q

what are specizlied multinucleated macrophages that are derived from circulating monocytes and resorb bone

A

osteoclasts

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17
Q

what are disorders of bone and cartilage

A
  1. inherited mutations apparent during early stages of bone formation
  2. acquired diseases that appear in adulthood
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18
Q

acquired disease anomalies of bone and cartilage disorders could result from what

A
  1. localized disruption of migration and condenstion of mesenchyme
  2. global disorganization of bone and cartilage (dysplasia)
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19
Q

what are developmental disorders of bone and cartilage

A
  1. defects in nuclear proteins and transcription (CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA)
  2. defects in hormones and signal transduction (ACHONDROPLASIA)
  3. defects in extracellular structural protein (OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA)
  4. defects in metabolic pathways (OSTEOPETROSIS aka ALBERS-SCHONBERG DISEASE)
  5. diseases associated w/ defects in degradation of macromolecules (MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDOSES)
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20
Q

is cleidocranial dysplasis AD or AR? it is a mutation in what gene

A

AD - loss of function in RUNX2 gene

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21
Q

what is this:
Characterized by patent fontanelles, delayed closure of cranial sutures Wormian bones (extra bones that
occur within the cranial sutures), delayed eruption of secondary teeth and supernumerary teeth, primitive
clavicles, and short stature

A

cleidocranial dysplasia

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22
Q

what is the most common skeletal dysplasia and a major cause of dwarfism

A

achondroplasia

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23
Q

is achondroplasia AR or AR? what gene mutation

A

AD - gain of function in FGFR3 gene

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24
Q

what is this:

Characterized by retarded cartilage growth resulting
in shortened proximal extremities, an enlarged head
and budging forehead and depression of the root of
the nose, and a trunk of relatively normal length

A

achondroplasia

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25
Q

what is the most common inherited disorder of CT

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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26
Q

is osteogenesis imperfecta AD or AR? what gene mutation?

A

AD - mutation in genes encoding type 1 collagen

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27
Q

what is a phenotypically heretrogenic disorder caused by deficiends of type 1 collagen synthesis

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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28
Q

what does osteogenesis primarily affect? what else can it affect?

A

primary: bone
other: tissues rich in type 1 collagen (joints, skin, teeth, eyes, and ear)

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29
Q

what is thi:

Characterized by extreme skeletal fragility, blue sclera,
hearing loss, and small misshaped, and blue-yellow teeth
(secondary to dentin deficiency)

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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30
Q

what is this

Comprises a group of rare genetic diseases characterized by
reduced bone resorption, which leads to diffuse, symmetrical
skeletal sclerosis; bones are brittle and fracture easily

A

osteopetrosis

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31
Q

what is this:

Most of the mutations interfere with acidification of the
osteoclast resorption pit, which is required for the dissolution of
calcium hydroxyapatite within the matrix

A

osteopetrosis

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32
Q

is osteopetrosis AD or AR

A

AR - (severe infantile osteopetrosis) becomes evident in utero or soon after birth0
AD - (milder) may not be detected until later, incidentally or due to repeat fractures

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33
Q

erlenmeyer flask deformation is related to what

A

OSTROPETROSIS

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34
Q

what is this:

Lysosomal storage disease; caused by deficiencies in enzymes,
primarily acid hydrolases that degrade extracellular matrix

A

mucopolysaccharidoses

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35
Q

what is this:

Mesenchymal cells, particularly chondrocytes, degrade
extracellular matrix mucopolysaccharides; in these diseases
mucopolysaccharides accumulate within chondrocytes and
induce apoptosis

A

mucopolysaccharidoses

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36
Q

extracellular mucopolysaccharide accumulation leads to structural defect in what

A

articular cartilage

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37
Q

how do affected individuals with mucopolysaccharidoeses look

A

short stature with malformed boens

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38
Q

what are metabolic diseases of bone

A
  1. ostopenia
  2. osteoporosis
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39
Q

what is decreased bone mass (1 to 2.5 standard deviation below peak bone mass)

A

osteopenia

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40
Q

what is defined as osteopenia that is severe enough to significantly increase risk of fracture (bone mas at least 2.5 standard deviation beflow bone mass); may be localized or generalized

A

osteoporosis

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41
Q

in osteoporosis, when is peak bone mass achieved

A

during young adulthood

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42
Q

once max skeletal mass attained, bone resorption slightly exceeds formation, resulting in age related bone loss that average ___% per year

A

0.7%

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43
Q

magnitude of osteoporosis is determined by wat

A

hereditary factors

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44
Q

what are the second most reasons that contribute to osteoporosis

A

physical activity, muscle strength, diet, and hormonal state

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45
Q

what is the most common form of osteoporosis

A

senile (M+W) and postmenopausal

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46
Q

what are the categories of generalized osteoporosis

A
  1. primary
  2. secondary
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47
Q

what are primary forms of generalized osteoporosis

A
  1. idopathic
  2. postmenopausal
  3. senile (old age)
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48
Q

what are secondary forms of generalized osteoporosis

A
  1. endocrine disorders
  2. GI
  3. drugs
  4. misc (anemia, immobilization, osteogenesis imperfecta, pulmonary disease)
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49
Q

what endocrine disorders cause sceondary generalized osteoporosis

A

addison disease, DM type I, hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism , pituitary tumors, neoplasia, multiple myeloma

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50
Q

what GI disorders caused secondary generalized osteoporosis

A

hepatic insufficiency, malabsorption, malnutrition, vitamin C, and D deficiences

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51
Q

what drugs cause secondary generalized osteoporosis

A

alcohol, anticoag, anticonvulsants, chemotherapy, corticosteroids

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52
Q

fractures of what lead to immobilization

A

femoral neck, pelvic, or spine

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53
Q

can osteoporosis be reliably deteced in plain radiographs?

A

Osteoporosis cannot be reliably detected in plain
radiographs until 30%-40% of bone mass is lost

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54
Q

how to prevent and do therapeutic management for osteoporosis

A

Prevention and therapeutic management include
exercise, appropriate calcium and vitamin D intake,
and pharmacologic agents, most commonly
bisphosphonates, which reduce osteoclastic activity and
induce their apoptosis

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55
Q

who gets osteoporosis

A

everyone

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56
Q

what is a manifestation of impaired mineralization of bone matrix

A

osteomalacia and rickets

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57
Q

undermineralized matrix results from abnormal what

A

abnormal vitamin D metabolism or Vitamin D deficiency

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58
Q

___ refers to the disorder in children, in which it interferes with the deposition of bone in the growth plates

A

Rickets

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59
Q

___ is the adult counterpart of rickets, in which the bone formed during remodeling is underminaralized and predisposed to fractures

A

Osteomalacia

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60
Q

what thyroidism causes increased bone resorption

A

hyper para thyroidism

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61
Q

how does PTH indirectly have a central role in calcium homeostasis

A
  1. activateion of osteoclasts
  2. increasing calcium resorption
  3. incerasing urinary phosphate excretion
  4. increasing synthesis of active vitamin D by kidneys
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62
Q

net result of PTH action is elevated serum calcium which inhibits what?

A

inhibits PTH release from parathyroid gland

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63
Q

what can hyperparathyroidism results from

A
  1. autonomous parathyroid secretion (primary hyper PTH)
  2. chronic renal disease (secondary hyperPTH)
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64
Q

what produces a change throughout the skeleton as a consequence of unrestricted osteoclast activity

A

hyperparathyroidism

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65
Q

symptomatic untreated primary hyperPTHism manigests what skeletal abnormalities

A
  1. osteoporosis
  2. brown tumors
  3. osteitis fibrosa cystica
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66
Q

Bone loss in hyperparathyroidism predisposing to microfractures, secondary hemorrhage, macrophage recruitment, and ingrowth of reparative fibrous tissue to create a mass lesion called ___

A

brown tumor

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67
Q

what does the brown color in hyperPTHism reflect

A

vascularity, hemorrhange and hemosiderin deposits (cystic degeneration of brown tumor is common)

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68
Q

The combination of increased bone cell activity, peritubular fibrosis, and cystic brown tumors is the hallmark of severe hyperPTHism and is known as ___

A

generalized osteitis fibrosa cystica (von
Recklinghausen disease of bone)

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69
Q

___ describes the collective
skeletal changes that occur in chronic renal disease, including those associated with dialysis

A

Renal osteodystrophy

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70
Q

manifestations of renal osteodystrophy

A
  1. Osteopenia/osteoporosis
  2. Osteomalacia
  3. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
  4. Growth retardation
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71
Q

what is a disorder marked by increased but disordered and structurally unsound bone mass

A

Paget disease of bone

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72
Q

what are the 3 sequential phases of Paget disease

A
  1. An initial osteoclastic phase
  2. A mixed osteoclastic-osteoblastic stage
  3. A burnt-out quiescent osteosclerotic stage in which osteoblastic activity predominates
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73
Q

when does paget disease of bone present? when does it become more common?

A

late adulthood and gets more common with increasing age

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74
Q

what race gets paget disease

A

caucasians

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75
Q

cause of pagets

A

uncertain but has both genetic and environmental contributions

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76
Q

what gene mutation associated with pagets

A

SQSTM gene mutation

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77
Q

clinical findings of pagets

A
  1. polyostotic in majority of cases
  2. most are asymptomatic
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78
Q

what bones are most invovled in pagets

A

Pelvis, vertebrae, femur, tibia, and skull are involved
most commonly

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79
Q

what happens to afected bones in pagets

A

Affected bones become thickened, enlarged, and
weakened, with an increased risk of fractures

80
Q

Enlargement of the craniofacial skeleton in Pagets may produce ___

A

leontiasis ossea (lion faces)

81
Q

what causes progressive increase in head circumference

A

skull enlargement

82
Q

nerve compression from paget disease may lead to what

A

deafness and visual impairment

83
Q

paget disease is also called what

A

osteitis deformans

84
Q

what happens to alveolar ridges in pagets

A

Alveolar ridges tend to remain symmetrical but become grossly enlarged; results in spacing between teeth and edentulous patients complain that the dentures feel too tight

85
Q

what do radiographic images in late disease of pagets show

A

patchy sclerotic areas (cotton wool apperance)

86
Q

paget disease affected individuals have what levels of serum alkaline phosphatase, serum calcium, and phosphate leves?

A

ELEVATED serum alkaline phosphatase
NORMAL serumc alcium
NORMAL phosphate levels

87
Q

what is the most dreaded complicatino of paget disease

A

sarcoma (usually osteosarcoma or fibrosarcoma)

88
Q

paget disease with sarcoma looks like what radiographically

A

Diagnosis can be made radiographically; bone is
typically enlarged with thick, coarsened cortices and
medulla

89
Q

most individuals with pagets have mild symptoms that can be suppressed by what

A

calcitonin and bisphosphonates

90
Q

what is the loss of bone integrity, one of hte most common pathology affecting bone

A

fracture

91
Q

what fracture:

overlying skin is intact

A

simpl

92
Q

what fracture:

bone communicates with skin surface

A

compound

93
Q

what fracture:

the bone is fragmented

A

comminuted

94
Q

what fracture:

the ends of bone at fracture site are not aligned

A

displaced

95
Q

what fracture:

a slowly developing fracture that follows period of increased physical activity (e.g., runner) in which bone is subjected to repetitive loads

A

stress

96
Q

what fracture:

extending only partially thru bone; common in infants when bones are soft

A

greenstick

97
Q

what is osteonecrosis also called

A

avascular necrosis

98
Q

___ is relatively common; can be limited to the medullary cavity or involve both the medulla and cortex

A

Osteonecrosis or Infarction of bone and marrow

99
Q

2 common causes of osteonecrosis

A

fractures and corticosteroids

100
Q

other causes of osteonecrosis

A

Alcohol abuse
Bisphosphonate therapy/ Denosumab
Connective tissue diseases
Chronic pancreatitis
Gaucher disease
Pregnancy
Radiation therapy

101
Q

___ denotes inflammation of the bone and marrow, virtually always secondary to infection

A

Osteomyelitis

102
Q

can all types of organisms produce OM? what are the most common culprits?

A

All types of organisms (viruses, parasites, fungi, and
bacteria) can produce OM; certain pyogenic bacteria
and mycobacteria are the most common culprits

103
Q

why is diagnosis and tx in US become challenging

A
  1. unsual infections in immigrants from low countries
  2. opportunistic infections in immunosuppressed individuals
104
Q

what almost always causes pyogenic OM

A

bacterial infection

105
Q

how do organisms reach bone in pyogenic OM

A

Organisms may reach the bone via hematogenous
spread, extension form a contiguous site, or direct
implantation (traumatic injury)

106
Q

what bacteria is responsible for most culture positive pyogenic OM

A

staph aures

107
Q

what bacteria is responsible for pyogenic OM in individuals with genitourinary tract infections or IV drug users?

A

e. coli, pseudomonas, and Klebiseilla

108
Q

what happens during acute phase of pyogenic OM

A

bacteria proliferate and recruit neutrophils

109
Q

when does necrosis of bone cells and marrow occur in pyogenic OM

A

within 48 hours

110
Q

in pyogenic OM, bacteria and associated inflammatory response spread ___ and acess the ___ to reach the ___

A

Bacterial and associated inflammatory response then
spread longitudinally and access the Haversian system
to reach the periosteum

111
Q

what can form after preiosteal rupture in pyogenic OM? these can channel to the skin as what?

A

soft tissue abscesses; drainage sinuses

112
Q

in pyogenic OM, what can crumble and release fragments into the sinus tract?

A

dead bone or SEQUESTRUM

113
Q

in pyogenic OM, as the inflammatory process evolves, ___ recruited during the first week release cytokines that stimulate bone resorption, fibrous tissue ingrowth, and peripheral deposition of reactive bone

A

chronic inflammatory cells

114
Q

new bone formation in pyogenic OM forms hat around the devitalized, infected bone

A

forms a living shell called INVOLUCRUM

115
Q

___ may present acutely as a systemic illness with malaise, fever, chills, leukocytosis, and intense throbbing pain over the infected bone; the presentation may also be subtle with localized pain

A

Hematogenous OM

116
Q

Characteristic radiographic findings of a ___ surrounded by sclerosis strongly suggests OM

A

lytic foci of bone destruction

117
Q

what is required to identify pathogen in OM

A

biopsy and bone culture

118
Q

combination of what is usually curative of OM

A

antibiotics and surgical drainage

119
Q

Acute OM fails to resolve and persists as chronic OM in ___% cases

A

5%-25%

120
Q

what is more destructive and resistant to control than pyogenic OM

A

myobacterial OM

121
Q

how does bone involvement occur in myobacterial OM

A

Bone involvement may occur by direct extension
or following spread via blood vessels and
lymphatics

122
Q

histologic findings of what are typical of tuberculosis

A

granulmatous inflammation and caseous necrosis

123
Q

40% of mycobacterial OM involving the spine is what disease

A

Pott disease

124
Q

what is the most common malignant bone cancer

A

metastasis of other cancer going to bone (e.g., colon, breast, etc.)

125
Q

what is the most common primary bone cancer

A

osteosarcoma

126
Q

location of osteochondroma? age?

A

metaphysis of long bone
10-30 years

127
Q

what tumor has bone excrescene with cartilage cup

A

osteochondroma

128
Q

location and age of chondroma

A

location: small boens of hands and feet
age: 30-50 years

129
Q

what tumor has circumscribed hyaline cartilage nodule in medulla

A

chondroma

130
Q

location and age of chondroblastoma

A

location: epiphysis of long bones
age: 10-20 years

131
Q

what tumor cicum scribes primary bone and has pericellular calcification

A

chondroblastoma

132
Q

what are benign cartilage forming primary boen tumros

A
  1. osteochondroma
  2. chondroma
  3. chondroblastoma
133
Q

what is a malignant cartilage forming primary bone tumor

A

chondrosarcoma

134
Q

common location of chondrosarcoma and age

A

location: pelvis, shoulder
age: 40-60 years

135
Q

what tumor extends from medulla thru cortex into soft tissue, chondrocytes w/ increased cellularity and atypica

A

chondrosarcoma

136
Q

what are beign bone forming primary bone tumors

A
  1. osteoid osteoma
  2. osteoblastoma
137
Q

location and age of osteoid osteoma

A

location: metaphysis of long bone
age: 10-20 years

138
Q

what tumoe is LESS THAN 2 cm in diameter, present with severe nocturnal pain caused by prostaglandin E2 which is relieved by aspiring and other NSAIDS; cortical interlacing microtrabecular of woven bone

A

osteoid osteoma

139
Q

common location and age of osteoblastoma

A

location: vertebral column (back)
age: 10-20 years

140
Q

what tumor is GREATER THAN 2 cm, causing paint that is NOT relieved by aspiring, posterior elevemts of vertebrae, histology similar to osteoid osteoma

A

osteoblastoma

141
Q

what are malignant bone forming primary bone tumors

A

osteosarcoma

142
Q

common locaiton and age of osteosarcoma

A

location: metaphysis of distal femur, proximal tibia
age: 10-2o years

143
Q

what tumor extends from medulla to lift periosteum, malignant cells produce woven bone

A

osteosarcoma

144
Q

what age do adult jaws get osteosarcoma

A

33

145
Q

what are benign bone forming tumors of unknown origin

A
  1. giant cell tumor
  2. aneurysmal bone cyst
146
Q

location and age of giant cell tumor

A

location: epiphysis of long bones
age: 20-40 years

147
Q

what tumor destroys medulla and cortex, sheets of osteoclasts

A

giant cell tumor

148
Q

age and location of aneurysmal bone cyst

A

location: proximal tibia, distal femur, vertebra
age: 10-20 years

149
Q

what tumor occurs in vertebral body, hemorrhagic spaces, separated by cellular fibrous septae

A

aneurysmal bone cyst

150
Q

what are malignant bone forming tumors of unknown origin

A

ewing sarcoma

151
Q

location and age of ewing sarcoma

A

location: diaphysis of long bones
age: 10-20 years

152
Q

what tumor has an affected site that is frequently tender, warm, and swollen and there may be systemic findings that mimic infection, including fever, elevated ESR, anemia and leukocytosis; sheets of primitive round cells; radiographic images show ONION-SKIN reaction of periosteum

A

ewing sarcoma

153
Q

what allow movement while providing mechanical stability

A

joints

154
Q

how are joints classified

A
  1. solid (nonsynovial)
  2. cavitated (synovial)
155
Q

___ provide structural integrity, lack a
joint space, and allow only
a minimum movement

A

Solid joints (synarthrosis)

156
Q

solid joints are also called what

A

synarthrosis

157
Q

what is the cranial bones and bond between roots of teeth and jaw bones

A

fibrous synarthrosis

158
Q

what are solid joints

A
  1. fibrous synarthrosis
  2. cartilaginous joints
159
Q

___ have a joint space
that allows for a wide range of motion

A

Synovial joints

160
Q

where are synovial joints situated? how are they formed? how are they strengthened?

A

Situated between the ends of bones formed via
endochondral ossification, they are strengthened by a
dense fibrous capsule reinforced by ligaments and
muscles

161
Q

The boundary of the synovial joint space consists of the ___, which is firmly anchored to the underlying capsule and does not cover the articular surface

A

synovial membrane

162
Q

___ is a hyaluronic acid-rich plasma filtrate that acts as a viscous lubricant and provides nutrients for the articular hyaline cartilage

A

Synovial fluid

163
Q

what is inflammation of the joints

A

arthritis

164
Q

what are the clinically important forms of arthritis

A

osteoarthritis (old age, mechanical wear)
rheumatoid arthritis (autoimmune)

165
Q

what cause different types of arthritis

A

immune rxn, infection, crystal deposition

166
Q

primary pathogenic abnormality of osteoarthritis

A

mechanical injury to articular cartilage

167
Q

role of inflammation of osteoarthritis

A

secondary; inflammatory mediators exacerbate cartilage damage

168
Q

joints involved in osteoarthritis

A

primarily weight beaing (hips and knees)

169
Q

pathology of osteoarthritis

A

cartilage degeneration and fragmentation, bone spurs, subchondral cysts; minimum inflamamtion

170
Q

serum antibodies of osteoarthritis

A

NONE bc not autoimmune duh

171
Q

does osteoarthritis involve all other organs

A

no

172
Q

primary pathogenic abnormality of rheumatoid arthritis

A

autotimmunity

173
Q

role of inflammation of rheumatoid arthritis

A

primary; cartilage destruction caused by T cells and antibodies reactiev w/ joint antigens

174
Q

joints involved in rheumatoid arthritis

A

being with small joints of fingers; progression leads to multiple joint involvement

175
Q

pathology of rheumatoid arthritis

A

inflammatory pannus invading and destroying cartilage; severe chronic inflammation; joint fusion (ankylosis)

176
Q

serum antibodies in rheumatoid arthritis

A

various, inlcuding anticitrullinated peptide antibody (ACPA)

177
Q

does rheumatoid arthritis invovle other organs

A

YES (lungs, heart, other organs)

178
Q

what is characterized by cartilage degeneration that results in structural and functions failure of synovial joint (bone rubbing on bone)

A

osteoarthritis

179
Q

what are a common form of osteoarthritis

A

bone spurs

180
Q

what results in pannus formation, cartilage destruction, and synovitis. begins with malaise, fatigue and generalized musculoskeletal pain; joint involvement develops after weeks or months

A

RA

181
Q

what is pannus

A

inflammation of synovial membrane and cartilage destruction

182
Q

what are the infectious arthritis

A
  1. suppurative
  2. myobacterial
  3. viral
  4. lyma
183
Q

___: H influenzae arthritis than 2 years predominates in children younger of age; S. aureus is the main causative agent in older children and adults

A

Suppurative arthritis

184
Q

___: caused by M. tuberculosis

A

Mycobacterial arthritis

185
Q

___: can occur in a variety of infections; most common are alphavirus, parvovirus B19, rubella, Epstein-Barr virus, and hepatitis B and C viruses

A

Viral arthritis

186
Q

___: caused by spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted by deer ticks; Lyme disease involves multiple organs; arthritis occurs in <10% of cases

A

Lyme arthritis

187
Q

what are types of crystal induced arthritis

A
  1. endogenous crystals
  2. exogenous crystals
188
Q

what are endogenous crystals

A
  1. monosodium urate (gout)
  2. calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate (pseudogrout)
  3. basic calcium phosphate
189
Q

what are exogenous crystals

A

biomaterials used in prosthetic joints, that can induce arthritis as they accumulate with wear

190
Q

what refer to non-epithelial tissue excluding the skeleton, joints, central nervous system, and hemopoietic and lymphoid tissues

A

soft tissue tumors

191
Q

With the exception of skeletal muscle neoplasms, ___ tumors are 100-fold more frequent than their malignant counterparts, the sarcomas

A

benign soft tissue

192
Q

where do most soft tissue tumors arise?

A

extremities (particularly the thigh)

193
Q

tumor type, age, and features of:

benign adipose

A

tumor type: lipoma
age: 40-60
features: well-circumscribed mass of mature adipose tissue

194
Q

tumor type, age, and features of:

malignant adipose

A

tumor type: liposarcoma (well-differentiated, myxoid, and pleomorphic)
age: 50-60
features: recur locally and repeatedly unless adequately excised; pleomorphic LS are aggressive

195
Q

tumor type, common location, age, and features of:

malignant skeletal muscle

A

tumor type: alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
common location: extremities, sinuses
age: 5-15 year

tumor type: embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
common location: genitourinary
age: 1-5 year

features: aggressive, painless, infiltrative mass that may grow rapidly; treated by surgical recession and chemo with or without radiation therapy

23 General Pathology (24 decks)

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