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23 General Pathology > 8/14+15 - Neoplasia > Flashcards

8/14+15 - Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

what means new growth

A

neoplasia

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2
Q

what is the study of neoplasms

A

oncology

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3
Q

what is a genetic disorder of cell growth that is triggered by acquired or less commonly inherited mutations affecting a single cell and its clonal progeny

A

neoplasm

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4
Q

neoplasm mutations alter the function of what

A

certain genes and give neoplastic cells a survival and growth advantage

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5
Q

what are the basic components of neoplasm

A
  1. tumor parenchyma
  2. reactive stroma
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6
Q

what neoplasm component are transformed or neoplastic cells

A

tumor parenchyma

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7
Q

what neoplasm component is composed of CT, blood vessels, and variable number of cells of adaptive and innate immune system

A

reactive stroma

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8
Q

classification of tumors and their biological behavior are primarily based on___

A

parenchymal components

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9
Q

growth and spread of tumors are dependent on ___

A

stroma

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10
Q

what tumor remains localized at site of origin and are generally amenable to surgical removal

A

benign tumors

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11
Q

Do pt generally survive benign tumor

A

yes

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12
Q

what benign tumor may cause significant morbidity and are sometimes fatal

A

tumors in brain

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13
Q

how to name benign tumor of mesenchymal cells

A

“oma” is attached to name of cell type from which tumor arises (E.g., chondroma, adenoma, papilloma)

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14
Q

what tumor can invade and destroy adjacent structures and spread to distant size (metastasize)

A

malignant tumors

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15
Q

what is collectively called a “cancer”

A

malignant tumor

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16
Q

since not all cancers are deadly, what can be done to cancers discovered at early stages

A

surgical excision, systemically administered drugs, or therpeutics antibodies

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17
Q

what are malignant tumors arising in epithelial cell origin called

A

carinoma

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18
Q

what are malignant tumors arising in solid mesenchymal tissues called

A

sarcoma

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19
Q

what are malignant tumors arising in blood-forming cells called

A

leukemia

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20
Q

what is a cancer that begins in the cells that line alveoli and make substances such as mucus and is the most commone type of lung cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

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21
Q

what is a cancer that begins in squamous cells, which are thin, flat cells that look like fish scales

A

squamous cell carinoma

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22
Q

what is cancer that may begin in several types of large cells and look abnormal when viewed under microscope

A

large cell carcinoma

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23
Q

what is cancer of smooth muscle

A

leiomyosarcoma

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24
Q

what is cancer of ARMS or ERMS sksletal muscle

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

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25
Q

T/F: in most neoplasms, all parenchyma cells closely resemble one another, but in some types of tumors more than one line of differentiation is evident, creating subpopulation of cells

A

TRUE

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26
Q

what is mixed tumor of saliary glands (pleomorphic adenoma), which contains epithelial components scattered within myxoid stroma that may contain islands of cartilage and bone and example of

A

mixed tumors (create distinct subpopulation of cells)

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27
Q

benign and malignant names of:

CT and derivatives

A

B: fibroma, lipoma, chondroma, osteoma
M: fibrosarcoma, liposarcoma, chondrosarcoma, osteocarcoma

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28
Q

benign and malignant names of:

blood vessels

A

B: hemangioma
M: angiosarcoma

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29
Q

benign and malignant names of:

lymph vessels

A

B: lymphangioma
M: lymphangiosarcoma

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30
Q

benign and malignant names of:

mesothelium

A

B: benign fibrous tumor
M: mesothelioma

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31
Q

benign and malignant names of:

brain covering

A

B: meningioma
M: invasive meningioma

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32
Q

benign and malignant names of:

hematopoietic cells

A

B: NONE
M: leukemia

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33
Q

benign and malignant names of:

lymphoid tissue

A

B: NONE
M: lymphoma

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34
Q

benign and malignant names of:

smooth muscle

A

B: leiomyoma
M: leiomyosarcoma

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35
Q

benign and malignant names of:

striated muscle

A

B: rhabomyoma
M: rhabdomyosarcoma

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36
Q

benign and malignant names of:

stratified squamous

A

B: squamous cell papilloma
M: squamous cell carcinoma

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37
Q

benign and malignant names of:

basal cells of skin or adnexa

A

B: NONE
M: basal cell carinoma

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38
Q

benign and malignant names of:

melanocytes

A

B: nevus
M: malignant melanoma

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39
Q

benign and malignant names of:

epithelial lining of glands and ducts

A

B: adenoma, papilloma, cystadenoma
M: adenocarcinoma, papillary carcinoma, cystadenocarcinoma

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40
Q

benign and malignant names of:

respiratory passage

A

B: bronchial adenoma
ML bronchogenic carcinoma

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41
Q

benign and malignant names of:

renal epithelium

A

B: rental tubular adenoma
M: renal cell carinoma

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42
Q

benign and malignant names of:

liver cells

A

B: hepatic adenoma
M: hepatocellular carcinoma

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43
Q

benign and malignant names of:

urinary tract epi

A

B: transitional cell papilloma
M: transitional cell carcinoma

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44
Q

benign and malignant names of:

placenta epi

A

B: hydatiform mole
M: choriocarcinoma

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45
Q

benign and malignant names of:

testicular epi

A

B: NONE
M: seminoma, embryonal carcinoma

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46
Q

benign and malignant names of:

salivary glands

A

B: pleomorphic adenoma (mixed tumor of salivary glands)
M: malignant mix tumor of salivary gland

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47
Q

benign and malignant names of:

renal anlage

A

B: NONE
M: Wilms tumor

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48
Q

benign and malignant names of:

totipotent cells on gonads or in embryonic rests

A

B: mature teratoma, Dermoid cyst
M: immature teratoma, teratocarcinoma

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49
Q

mixed tumors are usually derived from how many germ layers

A

ONE

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50
Q

mixed tumors usually derived from more than one germ layer is called what

A

more than one germ layer - teratogenous layer

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51
Q

describe differentiation/anaplasia in benign tumors

A

well differentiated structure sometimes typical of tissue of origin

52
Q

describe differentiation/aplasia of malignant tumors

A

some lack differentiation (anaplasia); structure often atypical

53
Q

describe rate of growth of benign tumors

A

usually progressive and slow; may come to a standstill or regress; mitotic figures are rare and normal

54
Q

describe rate of growth of malignant tumors

A

erratic, may be slow to rapid; mitotic figures may be numerous and abnormal

55
Q

describe local invasion charac. of benign tumors

A

usually cohesive, expansile, well-demarcated masses that do not invade of infiltrate surrounding normal tissues

56
Q

describe local invation charac. of malignant tumors

A

locally invasive, infiltrating surrounding tissues; sometimes may be misleadingly cohesive and expansile

57
Q

describe metastasis of benign tumors

A

ABSENT

58
Q

describe metasis of malignant tumros

A

frequent; more likely with large undifferentiated primary tumors

59
Q

___ refers to the extent to which neoplastic
parenchymal cells resemble the corresponding normal
parenchymal cells, both morphologically and functionally

A

Differentiation

60
Q

__ is the lack of differentiation

A

anaplasia

61
Q

___ is the replacement of one type of cell
with another
type; nearly always found in association
with tissue damage, repair, and regeneration; often the
replacing cell type is better suited to some alterations
in the local environment

A

Metaplasia

62
Q

In ___, gastroesophageal reflux damages the
squamous epithelium of the esophagus, leading to its
replacement by glandular epithelium better suited to an acidic
background; unfortunately, the metaplastic epithelium is
prone
to malignant transformation

A

Barrett esophagus

63
Q

___ literally means ‘disordered growth’; it is
encountered principally in epithelial cells and is
recognized based on several morphological changes

A

Dysplasia

64
Q

what cells exhibit considerable pleomorphism

A

dysplastic cells

65
Q

what cells exhibit:
- consierable pleomorphism
- Often contain large hyperchromatic nuclei with a high nuclear cytoplasm ratio
- Abundant mitotic figures throughout dysplastic epithelium, rather than being confined to the basal layer
- Architectural disarray
- Loss of orderly differentiation

A

dysplastic cells

66
Q

___: when dysplasia is severe and
involves the full thickness of the epithelium, but the
lesion DOES NOT penetrate the basement
membrane

A

Carcinoma in situ

67
Q

where is Carcinoma in situ often seen

A

skin, breast, bladder, and urine cervix

68
Q

what cancer, unless treated, has a high probability to progress to invasive cancers

A

Carcinoma in situ

69
Q

Growth of ___ is accompanied by progressive
invasion, destruction of surrounding tissues, and
eventually systemic spread

A

cancer

70
Q

next to development of metastasis, ___ is the most reliable discriminator of malignant and benign tumros

A

invasiveness

71
Q

Nearly all ___ tumors are cohesive, expansile masses that remain localized to their site of origin and lack the capacity to invade to metastasize to distant sites

A

benign

72
Q

___ is the spread of tumor to sites that are
physically discontinuous with the primary tumor

A

Metastasis

73
Q

what is an event the unquivocally marks a tumor as malignant

A

Metastasis

74
Q

dissemination of metastsis occurs from what paths of spread

A
  1. direct seeding
  2. lymphatic spread
  3. hematogenous spread
75
Q

___ of body cavities or surfaces: when a malignant
neoplasm penetrates a natural ‘open space’ lacking physical
barriers; characteristic in ovarian carcinomas

A

Direct seeding

76
Q

___: most common pathway for initial
dissemination of carcinomas

A

Lymphatic spread

77
Q

___: typical of sarcomas, but is also seen in
carcinomas

A

Hematogenous spread

78
Q

The incidence of cancer varies with ___

A

geography, age, race,
and genetic background

79
Q

cancer is most common in who

A

adults older than 55 years but occur in all ages and in children and infants

80
Q

Important ___ implicated in
carcinogenesis include infectious agents, smoking, alcohol,
diet, obesity, reproductive history, and exposures to
environmental carcinogens

A

environmental factors

81
Q

Risk is increased by ___ caused
by chronic inflammation or tissue injury, certain forms of
hyperplasia or immunodeficiency

A

reparative proliferations

82
Q

___: normal cellular genes whose
products promote cellular proliferation

A

Proto-oncogenes

83
Q

___: mutated or overexpressed version on
proto-oncogenes that function autonomously, having lost
dependence on normal growth-promoting signals

A

Oncogene

84
Q

___: protein encoded by oncogene that derives
increased cancer cell proliferation, which may result from
a
variety of aberrations)

A

Oncoprotein

85
Q

___: whereas oncogenes derive
the proliferation of cells, the product of most ___ apply brakes to cell proliferation, and
abnormalities in these genes lead to failure of growth
inhibition, another fundamental hallmark of carcinogenesis

A

Tumor suppressor genes; Tumor suppressor genes

86
Q

___ such as RB and p53 recognize genotoxic stress from any source and respond by shutting
down proliferation

A

Tumor suppressor proteins such as RB and p53 recognize
genotoxic stress from any source and respond by shutting
down proliferation

87
Q

Loss of function ___ mutations are associated with
retinoblastomas and osteosarcoma

A

retinoblastoma

88
Q

Loss of function mutations of ___ is found in more than 50% of
cancers

A

p53

89
Q

___: formation of new blood vessels

A

Angiogenesis

90
Q

Even if a solid tumor
possesses all the genetic aberrations
that are required for malignant transformation, it cannot
enlarge beyond ___ mm in diameter unless it has the
capacity to induce angiogenesis

A

1-2 mm

91
Q

what is essential for angiogenesis growth? what is it controlled by

A

Vascularization is essential for their growth and is controlled by the balance between angiogenic and anti-angiogenic factors that are produced by tumor stromal cells

92
Q

what triggers angiogenesis

A

hypoxia

93
Q

angiogenesis is a multi-factorial process and is induced by

A
  • specific receptors on or near cell that are directly related to angiogenesis
  • glucose metablism and hypoxia
94
Q

1 and #2 hallmark of malignancy

A
  1. metastasis
  2. invasion
95
Q

what are the steps of tissue invasion in malignancy

A
  1. loosening of cell-cell contact
  2. degeneration of extracellular matrix
  3. attachment to novel extracellular matrix components
  4. migration of tumor cells
96
Q

T/F: The metastatic site of many tumors can be predicted by the location of the primary tumor

A

TRUE

97
Q

___: normal function of the immune system to constantly scan the body for emerging malignant cells and destroy them

A

Immune surveillance

98
Q

antitumor activity is mediated by predominantly what?

A

cell-mediated mechanisms (T-cell)

99
Q

do immune suppressed people have an increased or decreased risk of developing cancer

A

INCREASED

100
Q

what can alter DNA

A
  1. chemical carcinogens
  2. radiant energy
  3. tumor viruses
101
Q

is carcinogenesis a multistep process

A

YES

102
Q

! multistep process of chemical carcinogenesis

A
  1. initiation
  2. promotion
  3. progression
103
Q

what step of carcinogenesis:

(1) exposure of cells to a sufficient dose of a
carcinogenic agent; it causes permanent DNA damage
(mutations)

A

initiation

104
Q

what step of carcinogenesis:

(2) promoters
can induce tumor to arise from
initiated cells, but they are not tumorigenic by themselves;
application of promoters leads to proliferation and clonal
expansion of initiated (mutated) cells

A

promotion

105
Q

what step of carcinogenesis:

(3) driven to proliferate, subclones of the
initiated cells suffer various additional mutations, and
eventually a cancerous clone with all the hallmarks
characteristics emerges

A

progression

106
Q

what are major chemical carcinogens

A
  1. alkylating agents
  2. natural plants and microbial products
  3. others
107
Q

___, in the form of the UV rays of sunlight or as ionizing electromagnetic and particulate radiation, is mutagenic and carcinogenic

A

Radiation energy

108
Q

A common theme in the pathogenesis of ___ is that the infection triggers cell proliferation, which is initially polyclonal but with time becomes monoclonal by acquisition of driver mutations in rapidly dividing cells

A

microbial carcinogenesis

109
Q

! what are oncogenic RNA viruses

A

HTLV-1

110
Q

what is a retrovirus that is endemic in Japan, Caribbean, and parts of South America and Africa, that causes adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma

A

HTLV-1

111
Q

! what are oncogenic DNA viruses

A
  1. HPV
  2. EBV
  3. Hep B and C
112
Q

what is an important cause of benign warts, cervical cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer; low-risk cause benign papilloma; high-risks HPVs have been implicated in this cancer and can be prevented by vaccination

A

HPV

113
Q

what is a member of the herpesvirus family implicated in the pathogenesis of Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma and several other cancers

A

EBV - Epstein-Barr

114
Q

what causes 70-80% of hepatocellular carcinoma worlwide

A

Hep B and C

115
Q

which hepatitis are chronic

A

B, C, D

116
Q

which hepatitis are acute

A

A and E

117
Q

which hepatitis cause liver cancer

A

B and C

118
Q

! what are the high risk HPV types

A

16 and 18

119
Q

! what are the low risk HPV types

A

6 and 11

120
Q

! what are cancers, viruses or lesions that can cause EBV

A
  1. diffuse large B cell lymphoma
  2. Hodgkin lymphoma
  3. smooth muscle sarcoma
  4. gastric carcinoma
  5. nasopharyngeal carcinoma
  6. extra-nodal T/NK cell lymphoma
  7. Burkitt lymphoma
121
Q

what is the first bacterium to be classified as a carcinogen?

A

helicobacter pylori

122
Q

what bacterium is implicated in gastric adenocarcinoma and MALToma

A

helicobacter pylori

123
Q

what is a progressive loss of body fat and lean body mass, accompanied by profound weakness, anorexia, and anemia that is caused by release of factors by tumor or host immune cells

A

cachexia

124
Q

what are symptom complexes in individuals with cancer that cannot be explained by tumor spread of release of hormones that are indigenous to the tumor “cell of origin”

A

paraneoplastic syndromes

125
Q

endocrinopathies (Cushing syndrome), skin disorders, skeletal and joint abnormalities, and neuropathic syndromes are examples of what

A

paraneoplastic syndromes

23 General Pathology (24 decks)

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