Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

23 General Pathology > 10/30 - Lung Pathology > Flashcards

10/30 - Lung Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

function of the lung

A

facilitate exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) between inspired air and blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

midline trachea branches into what

A

lobar bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what allows air to pass in and out of lung?

A

lobar bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is a firm cartilage wall and are lined by columnar ciliated epithelium with abundant subepithelial glands that produce mucus

A

lobar bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which bronchus is more vertical and direct in line with trachea

A

right bronchus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

aspirated material (blood, vomit, foreign material) tend to enter what lung

A

right lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

right and left bronchi branch give rise to what

A

progressiely smaller airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

distally, bronchi gives way to what

A

bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what lacks cartilage and has submucosal glands present within their walls

A

bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

further branching of bronchioles give rise to ___ which are how many mm in diameter

A

terminal bronchioles - 2mm in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

beyond terminal bronchioles is the what

A

acinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is a spherical structure with a diameter of 7 mm

A

acinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is acinus composed of

A

respiratory bronchioles, alveolar duct, and alveolar sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the blind end of the respiratory passage whose walls are formed entirely of alveoli, the site of gas exchange

A

alveolar sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is in a pulmonary lobule

A

a cluster of 3-5 terminal bronchioles, each with its appended acinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the space between epithelial cells in alveoli

A

interstitial space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are congenital lung abnormalities

A
  1. pulmonary hypoplasia
  2. forgut cysts
  3. pulmonary sequestration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is defect in development of both lungs, resulting in decrease in lung size

A

pulmonary hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

in pulmonary hypoplasia, can one be affected more than the other?

A

YES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when is severe hypoplasia fatal

A

early neonatal periodw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what arise from abnormal detachment of primitive forgut

A

foregut cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what BRANCHIOGENIC CYSTS are rarely attached to tracehobronchial tree

A

foregut cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

forgut cysts cause compression to what

A

nearby structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is a discrete area of tissue that:

  1. Is not connected to the airway
  2. Has an abnormal blood supply arising from the aorta or its branches
A

pulmonary sequestration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what sequestration occurs EXTERNAL to lung and present in infants as a mass

A

extralobar sequestration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what sequestration occurs WITHIN lungs? who gets it?

A

intralobar sequestration - present in older children, often due to recurrent localized infections of bronchiesctasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is incomplete expansion of lungs (neonatal) or the collapse of previously inflated lungs

A

atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what does atelectasis result in

A

collapse results in areas of poorly aerted pulmonary parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

types of atelectasis

A
  1. resorption
  2. compression
  3. contraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what atelectasis:

Stems from airway obstruction
Over time, air is absorbed from distal alveoli, which collapses lung

A

resorption atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what atelectasis:

Results whenever significant volumes of fluid, tumor, or air accumulates in the pleural cavity

A

compression atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what atelectasis:

Occurs when foci or generalized pulmonary or pleural fibrosis prevents full lung expansion

A

contraction atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is excessive interstitial fluid in the alveoli

A

pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what can pulmonary edema result from

A
  1. hemodynamic disturbances
  2. increased capillary permability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

hemodynamic disturbaces is due to what

A

cardiogenic pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

increased capillary permeability is due to what

A

microvascular injury (non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what produces heavy and wet lungs

A

pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

therapy and outcome of pulmonary edema depends on what

A

underlying cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is:

Caused by increased hydrostatic pressure
Occurs most commonly in left-sided heart failure

A

hemodynamic pulmonary edema (Cardiogenic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is:

Primary injury to the vascular endothelium or damage to the alveolar epithelial cells
An inflammatory exudate leaks into the interstitial space and in more serious cases, into the alveoli

A

microvascular injury pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

injury related alveolar edema is an important feature of serious often fatal conditions called what

A

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what ALI stand for

A

acute lung injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what does ARDS stand for

A

acute respiratory distress syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what does DAD stand for

A

diffuse alveolar damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

does ALI lead to ARDS?

A

YES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

DAD is described to diagnose when viewed how?

A

under microscope (histologic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

___ is characterized by the abrupt onset of hypoxemia and bilateral pulmonary edema in the absence of cardiac failure

A

ALI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

T/F: ARDS is the manifestation of severe ALI

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

___ and ___ are associated with inflammation-associated increase in pulmonary vascular permeability , edema, and epithelial cell death

A

ALI and ARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

histologic manifestation of ALI an ARDS is what

A

diffuse lung damage (DAD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

conditions associated with development of ARDS

A
  1. infections
  2. physical injury
  3. inhaler irritants
  4. chemical injury
  5. hematologic conditions
  6. Pancreatitis
  7. Uremia
  8. Cardiopulmonary bypass
  9. Hypersensitivity reactions
  10. Organic solvents
  11. Drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

examples of infections causing ARDS

A

Sepsis, viral, mycoplasma, and pneumocystis pneumonia, gastric aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

examples of physical injury causing ARDS

A

Mechanical trauma including head injury, pulmonary contusion, near-drowning, burns, fracture emboli, ionizing-radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

examples of inhaler irritants causing ARDS

A

Oxygen toxicity, smoke, irritant gases and chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

examples of chemical injury causing ARDS

A

Heroin and methadone overdose, acetylsalicylic acid, barbiturate overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

examples of hematologic conditions causing ARDS

A

Transfusion-associated lung injury, disseminated intravascular coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

clinical features of ARDS

A

Results in profound dyspnea and tachycardia

Followed by increased respiratory failure, hypoxemia, and cyanosis (blue body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

radiograph findings of ARDS

A

bilateral infiltrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

is there proven scientific treatments for ARDS

A

NO! which sucks because it is common in acutely ill patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

mortality rates for ARDS

A

35% for mild
40% for moderate
45% for severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what this

A

ARDS -> extensive BILATERAL ALVEOLAR INFILTRATES with air bronchograms (yellow arrows)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

which one normal which one DAD

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is characterized by an increase in resistance to airflow due to diffuse airway disease, which may affect any level of the respiratory tract

A

obstructive lung disease (OLD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is characterized by reduced expansion of lung parenchyma and decreased total lung capacity

A

restrictive lung disease (RLD)

65
Q

what lung disease:

  1. Feels hard to breathe enough air
  2. Breathing difficulties may cause panic
  3. Patient may change position to attempt to make it easier to breathe
A

restrictive lung disease

66
Q

what lung disease:

  1. Lungs may feel chronically full or part full
  2. Wheezing
  3. Mucus production
A

ostructive lung dsiease

67
Q

what is the clinical distinction between OLD and RLD determined by

A

FEV1/FVC ratio called modified Tiffeneau-Pinelli index

68
Q

Tiffeneau-Pinelli index for OLD and RLD

A

OLD: FEV1/FVC less than 0.7 (ratio decreased)
RLD: FEV1/FVC remains normal (ratio is normal)

69
Q

what is the the volume of air that can forcibly be blown out in first 1-second, after full inspiration

A

FEV1 (forced expiratory volume at 1 second)

70
Q

what is the volume of air that can forcibly be blown out after full inspiration, measured in liters)

A

FVC (forced ventilator capacity (Forced vital capacity (FVC) )

71
Q

what does chronic obstructive pulmonary disease include

A
  1. emphysema - COPD
  2. chronic bonrchitis - COPD
  3. asthma
  4. bronchiectasis
72
Q

what is a common preventable and treatable disease that is characterized by persistent respiratory symptoms and airflow limitations that is due to airway and/or alveolar abnormalities caused by exposure to noxious particles or gases.

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

73
Q

chronic bronchitis

A
74
Q

bronchiectasis

A
75
Q

asthma

A
76
Q

emphysema

A
77
Q

what is defined by irreversible enlargement of the airspaces distal to terminal bronchioles, accompanied by destruction of their walls

A

emphysema

78
Q

who is empyhsema largely confined to

A

Largely confined to smokers and patients with alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency

79
Q

first symptom of patients with emphysema

A

Dyspnea (breathlessness) first symptom
Wheezing and cough occur if chronic bronchitis coexists

80
Q

what is a protease inhibitor (Pi) of the proteolytic enzyme elastase? what does protease do?

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT)
Protease is an enzyme that breaks down peptides

81
Q

pathology of emphysema

A
  1. centriacinar
  2. panacinar
82
Q

what is associated with cigarette smoking and involves respiratory bronchile first

A

centriacinar emphysema

83
Q

what is not associated with cigarette smoking, but associated with AAT deficiency inheritance and involves alveolar duct and alveoli

A

panacinar emphysema

84
Q

how does smoking cause tissue destruction

A

inflammation
activation of neutrophils
inactivation of antiproteases
increase elastase activity
tissue destruction

85
Q

how does hereditary deficiency of AAT1 cause tissue destruction

A

increases elastase acticity

86
Q

___ (shortness of breath- SOB)
first symptom

A

dyspnea

87
Q

what disease:

Cough & wheezing present if chronic bronchitis coexists, often the case
Weight loss common
Later, barrel-chested, prolonged expiration, hunched-over position helps with breathing

A

emphysema

88
Q

what disease:

Gas exchange & blood gas values are normal until very late in the disease due to hyperventilation (pink puffers)

A

emphysema

89
Q

what is defined clinically as persistent cough with sputum production for at least 3 months in at least 2 consecutive years

A

chronic bronchitis

90
Q

what is the main cause of chronic bronchitis? what else it blamed?

A

main: cigarette smoking
additionally: severe air pollution

91
Q

time length for chronic bronchitis

A

at least 3 months in at least 2 consecutive years

92
Q

in later stages of chronic bronchitis, what is seen

A

significant outflow obstrution w/ severe COPD seen

93
Q

what disease:

Hypercapnia (CO, retention), hypoxemia (low blood 02) and, eventually, cyanosis (blue bloaters)

A

chronic bronchitis

94
Q

how may chronic bronchitis terminate

A

May terminate with pulmonary hypertension and cor pulmonale with congestive heart failure

95
Q

Emphysema

A
96
Q

Chronic Bronchitis

A
97
Q

pink puffer vs blue bloater

A

emphysema = pink puffer
chronic bronchitis = blue bloater

98
Q

does asthma fall under COPD

A

no

99
Q

what is the most common chronic disease in childhood

A

asthma

100
Q

what is a heterogenous disease, usually characterized by chronic airway inflammation and variable expiratory airflow obstruction that produces symptoms such as WHEEZING,
shortness of breath, chest tightness, and cough, which vary over time and in intensity

A

asthma

101
Q

when do symptomatic asthma episodes most likely occur

A

night or in the early morning

102
Q

symptoms of asthma

A

cough
dyspnea
excessive mucus production
WHEEZING on expiration due to bronchial constriction (if severe, on inspiration also)

103
Q

morphology of asthma

A
  1. Occlusion of bronchi & bronchioles by thick, tenacious, mucus plugs
  2. Patchy necrosis & shedding of bronchial epithelial cells
  3. Edema, hyperemia & an inflammatory cell infiltrate within the bronchial wall
  4. Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of bronchial smooth muscles
  5. Increased number of submucous glands (goblet cell hyperplasia) over time
104
Q

what is immune mediated asthma

A

Type I HS (Atopic asthma)

105
Q

describe immune mediate atopic asthma

A

onset stage: 0-20 years
patient has allergic tendencies
elevated blood IgE and eosinophils

106
Q

what is the most common type of type I HS reaction

A

atopic asthma

107
Q

what are causes of nonimmune (nonatopic) asthma

A
  1. viral infections (influenza, rhinovirus, RSV)
  2. inhaled air pollutants (sulfur dioxide, ozone, nitrogen dioxide)
  3. NSAID sensitivity
  4. exercise-induced asthma
108
Q

do you have elevated, normal, or decreased IgE levels in nonimmune asthma?

A

NORMAL

109
Q

can asthma attack occur during dental procedure

A

YES

110
Q

___ can result from frequent use of steroid inhalers, especially if patient is diabetic or immunosuppressed

A

Oral candidiasis

111
Q

what is a disorder in which destruction of smooth muscles and elastic tissues by inflammation stemming from persistent or severe infection leads to permanent dilation of bronchi and bronchioles

A

bronchiectasis

112
Q

why is bronchiectasis not uncommon

A

because of better control of lung infections

113
Q

causes of bronchiectasis

A
  1. congenital or hereditary conditions
  2. severe necrotizing pneumonia
  3. bronchial obstruction
  4. immune disoder
  5. idiopathic
114
Q

congenital or hereditary conditions cause bronchiectasis that predisposed what chronic infections

A

cystic fibrosis, primary ciliary dyskinesia, Kartagener syndrome

115
Q

what causes severe necrotizing pneumonia that causes bronchiectasis

A

bactera, fungi, or viruses

116
Q

what can cause bronchial obstruction that causes bronchiectasis

A

tumor, foreign body, or mucus

117
Q

what can cause immune disorder that causes bronchiectasis

A

RA, SLE

118
Q

two categories of chronic diffuse interstitial (restrictive) lung disorders

A
  1. chronic interstitial or infiltrative disease
  2. chest wall disorders
119
Q

what is chronic interstitial or infiltrative disease that cause restrictive lung disease

A

pneumoconiosis or interstitial fibrosis of unknown causes

120
Q

what are chest wall disorders that cause restrictive lung disease

A

severe obesity, neuromuscular disease, pleural disease, kyphoscoliosis

121
Q

in restrictive lung disease, what are the FV1 and FVC levels

A

NORMAL

122
Q

what diseases associated with fibrosing restrictive lung disease:

A

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Pneumoconioses (coal workers, silicosis, asbestos- related diseases)

123
Q

__ refers to a clinicopathologic syndrome marked by progressive interstitial pulmonary fibrosis and respiratory failure

A

idiopathic pulmonay fibrosis

124
Q

cause of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

unknown, but arises in genetically predispoed individuals

125
Q

does idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis have gradual increase in dyspnea on exertion and dry cough

A

yes

126
Q

patients with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis have what survival rate

A

3.8 years

127
Q

what is nonneoplastic lung reactions to inhalation of mineral dusts encountered in the workplace or by chemical fumes, and vapors

A

pneumoconiosis

128
Q

what is lung disease caused by inhalation of coal particles and other admixed forms of dust

A

coal worker’s pneumoconiosis

129
Q

what CWP has little or no pulmonary dysfunction

A

simple CWP

130
Q

what CWP has progressive massive fibrosis or compromised pulmonary function

A

complicated

131
Q

does CWP have increase in lung cancer risk

A

NO

132
Q

Common lung disease caused by inhalation of
proinflammatory crystalline silicon
dioxide (silica)

A

silicosis

133
Q

Affects miners, rock workers, glassworkers,
etc.
May be asymptomatic or eventuate as progressive massive fibrosis
LUNG CANCER RISK INCREASED

A

silicosis

134
Q

___ is a family of proinflammatory crystalline hydrated silicates that are associated with Pulmonary fibrosis and Various forms of cancer

A

Asbestos

135
Q

Pleura; each of a pair of serous membranes lining the thorax and enveloping
the lungs in humans and other mammals
Pleural fibrosis: thickening and calcification of pleura; fire fighters,
construction workers, shipyard workers

A

asbestosis pleural fibrosis

136
Q

what has high risk of MESOTHELIOMA (cancer of pleura)

A

asbestosis pleural fibrosis

137
Q

A wide variety of idiopathic, immunologic,,
infectious (fungal) and neoplastic
processes can cause a chronic granulomatous
reaction

A

granulomatous disease

138
Q

what has a focal area of chronic inflammation

A

granuloma

139
Q

granulomatous reaction is characterized histlogically by what

A

epithelioid cells (transformed macrophages) surrounded by lymphocytes

these epi cells may later fuse to form giant cells

140
Q

what is systemic granulomatous disease of unknowncause that may involve many tissues and organs

A

sarcoidosis

141
Q

histoligic feature of sarcoidosis

A

formation of noncaseating granulomas

142
Q

clinical manifestations of sarcoidosis

A
  • LN enlargement, eye involvement (dry eyes, iritis) skin lesions (erythema nodosum), and visceral (liver, skin, marrow) involvement
  • Lung involvement occurs in 90% of cases with formation of granulomas and interstitial fibrosis
143
Q

who gets sarcoidosis

A

african americans and scandinavians
adults between 30 and 50 years of age

144
Q

___ seen on the upper back region. Multiple erythematous raised lesions are evident

A

Papular sarcoidosis as a cutaneous manifestation

145
Q

treatment of sarcoidosis

A
  1. Frequently undergoes spontaneous regression without causing any permanent damage to the affected organs
  2. Glucocorticoids, is the cornerstone for treatment (associated with several serious adverse effects)
146
Q

when is treatment for sarcoidosis indicated

A

Treatment is indicated only when symptoms are disabling and/or the granulomatous inflammation is relentlessly progressive, causing life- or organ-threatening disease

147
Q

are sarcoidosis lesions common?

A

NO! RARE!

if present: localized swelling, nodules, ulcers, gingivitis, gingival hyperplasia, gingival recession

148
Q

what disease:
Communicable chronic granulomatous disease
caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Person to person airborne spread usually
HIV has become single most important risk factor

A

tuberculoss

149
Q

in TB, what cell mediated is impaired

A

t cell mediated immunity

150
Q

oropharyngeal and intestinal infection can be contacted by what in TB

A

infected cow’s milk, but rare: M. bovis

151
Q

TB results is development of what HS

A

type IV

152
Q

what disease:
Previously unexposed and unsensitized person
Elderly & profoundly immunosuppressed may develop primary infection more than once
About 5% of primary infections lead to significant disease

A

primary TB

153
Q

what is a primary lesion usually subpleural

A

Ghon focus TB

154
Q

what is a radiologically detectable finding characteristic of primary tb

A

Ghon complex

155
Q

what disease:

Disease occurring in a previously sensitized
host (Most common after many decades following primary infection)

May follow:
- Exposure to heavy inoculum of M. tuberculosis
- May follow loss of T-cell immunity (HIV, Corticosteroids, Debilitating illness in elderly)

A

secondary reactivation TB

156
Q

what disease:

Apex of one or both upper lobes usually site
CASEATING GRANULOMAS form
to prevent spread
- Cavitation occurs readily with erosion in bronchi leading to spreading of infection via airways

A

secondary (reactivation) TB

157
Q

what is pott’s disease

A

spinal tuberculosis (and bone)

158
Q

what is oral tuberculosis

A

painless ulcer diagnosis made only by biopsy
nothing clinically distinctive

23 General Pathology (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions