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D2 Fall - Pathology Exam 1 > 9/16-9/17: Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

9/16-9/17: Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q
  1. This is an organism capable of causing disease
A

a. Pathogen

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2
Q
  1. High virulence causes disease where?
A

a. Healthy population

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3
Q
  1. Low virulence causes disease where?
A

a. Only in susceptible populations

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4
Q
  1. An opportunistic infection involves what?
A

a. Non-pathogenic organism
b. Low virulence
c. Immunocompromised host

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5
Q
  1. This is an interaction between 2 organisms where both benefit
A

a. Mutualism

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6
Q
  1. This is an interaction between 2 organisms where 1 benefits but no harm is done
A

Commensalism

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7
Q
  1. What is an example of a commensalism organism?
A

a. C. albicans

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8
Q
  1. What is an example of a pathogen?
A

a. Prions, viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa

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9
Q
  1. What are the general principles of viral infections?
A

a. Intracellular parasites
b. Cell type specific
c. Viral latency

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10
Q
  1. What is the process of viral replication?
A

a. Attach
b. Penetrate
c. Reproduce
d. Assemble
e. Release

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11
Q
  1. What are the types of viral infections?
A

a. Transient
b. Chronic latent
c. Chronic productive
d. Transforming

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12
Q
  1. What is an example of transient infection?
A

a. Hep A

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13
Q
  1. What is an example of chronic latent infection?
A

a. Herpes simplex

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14
Q
  1. What is an example of chronic productive infection?
A

a. Hep B

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15
Q
  1. What is an example of a transforming infection?
A

a. Epstein barr, HPV

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16
Q
  1. What is the natural reservoir for Herpes virus?
A

a. Humans

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17
Q
  1. HHV-1 =
A

a. Herpes simplex type 1

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18
Q
  1. HHV-2 =
A

a. Herpes simplex type 2

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19
Q
  1. HHV-3 =
A

a. Varicella zoster

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20
Q
  1. HHV-4 =
A

a. Epstein barr

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21
Q
  1. HHV-5 =
A

a. Cytomegalovirus

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22
Q
  1. HHV-8 =
A

a. Kaposi sarcoma

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23
Q
  1. How do you transmit HSV?
A

a. Contact with infected individual shedding virus

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24
Q
  1. HSV-1 is mostly
A

a. Oral infections

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25
Q
  1. HSV-2 is mostly
A

a. Genital infections

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26
Q
  1. What is primary infection?
A

a. Initial exposure to virus without immunity

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27
Q
  1. What is associated with primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
A

a. Cervical lymphadenopathy

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28
Q
  1. Primary infection with HSV leads to what?
A

a. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

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29
Q
  1. Is scarring a symptom with primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
A

No

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30
Q
  1. After primary herpetic gingivostomatitis, what can occur?
A

a. Recurrent herpetic labialis
b. Recurrent intra-oral herpes

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31
Q
  1. Primary herpes occurs on what?
A

a. Any mucosal surface, bound or movable

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32
Q
  1. Recurrent herpes occurs on what?
A

a. Bound mucosa (keratinized)
i. Hard palate
ii. Gingiva

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33
Q
  1. This is herpes associated with the fingernail
A

a. Herpes whitlow

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34
Q
  1. What is recurrent aphthous stomatitis?
A

a. Focal mucosal destruction

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35
Q
  1. What kind of reaction is recurrent aphthous stomatitis?
A

a. T-mediated cytotoxic

36
Q
  1. What is the evolution of an aphthous ulcer?
A

a. Erythematous macule
b. Ulceration
c. fibrinous membrane

37
Q
  1. What factor is important for recurrent stomatitis?
A

a. Sodium lauryl sulfate

38
Q
  1. What kind of recurrent aphthous stomatitis are there?
A

a. Minor
b. Major
c. Herpetiform

39
Q
  1. Describe minor aphthae
A

a. Recurrent, heal in 2 weeks

40
Q
  1. Describe major aphthae
A

a. Larger (>0.5cm)
b. Deeper, healing with scarring
c. Heal slowly

41
Q
  1. Describe herpetiform
A

a. Crops of ulcers, heal in 2 weeks, short remissions

42
Q
  1. Number of lesions in herpes vs aphthae?
A

a. Herpes = multiple
b. Aphthae = frequently solitary

43
Q
  1. What is the location of herpes vs aphthae?
A

a. Herpes = keratinized, non-movable
b. Aphthae = non-=keratinized, movable

44
Q
  1. Primary infection with varicella zoster is
A

Varicella

45
Q
  1. Recurrent infection with varicella zoster is
A

a. Shingle

46
Q
  1. How is varicella (primary) transmitted?
A

a. Inhalation of infected droplets

47
Q
  1. Do you get scarring from varicella?
A

No

48
Q
  1. What is associated with unilateral dermatomal involvement?
A

a. Zoster (shingles)

49
Q
  1. Describe how the pain works in zoster
A

a. Prodromal pain → acute pain → post-herpetic neuralgia (chronic pain)

50
Q
  1. Epstein barr virus can become
A

a. Neoplastic

51
Q
  1. Does epstein barr have a latency?
A

Yes

52
Q
  1. Which virus has tropism for B lymphocytes?
A

a. Epstein barr

53
Q
  1. What cells does epstein barr affect?
A

a. Epithelial cells of oral mucosa
b. Oropharynx
c. Nasopharynx

54
Q
  1. What diseases are associated with epstein barr?
A

a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. Lymphomas
c. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
d. Oral hairy leukoplakia

55
Q
  1. Palatal petechiae is associated with what?
A

a. Infectious mononucleosis

56
Q
  1. Does infectious mononucleosis have lymphocytes or monocytes?
A

a. Lymphocytes

57
Q
  1. What kind of lymphocytes does infectious mononucleosis have?
A

a. Downey cells

58
Q
  1. How can you test infectious mononucleosis?
A

a. Heterophile antibody
b. Monospot test

59
Q
  1. Oral hairy leukoplakia can occur where?
A

a. Lateral border of the tongue

60
Q
  1. Most CMV infections are ___ and population is affected by age ____
A

a. Asymptomatic
b. 60

61
Q
  1. CMV is heterophile antibody
A

Negative

62
Q
  1. You can get acute sialadenitis or retinitis (blindness) with this disease
A

a. CMV

63
Q
  1. Herpangina is associated with what?
A

a. Coxsackievirus

64
Q
  1. Koplik spots are associated with
A

a. Measles

65
Q
  1. This disease has salivary gland swelling and discomfort
A

a. Mumps

66
Q
  1. What laboratory findings can you expect from mumps?
A

a. Elevated serum amylase

67
Q
  1. How is tuberculosis transmitted?
A

a. Droplet nuclei

68
Q
  1. You get a Gohn complex in what?
A

a. Primary tuberculosis

69
Q
  1. This blocks fusion of phagosome with lysozyme
A

a. TB cord factor

70
Q
  1. You develop a positive reaction to mantoux tuberculin skin test (PPD), this is an example of
    what?
A

a. Type IV immune hypersensitivity

71
Q
  1. This vaccination is NOT used in the united states because it causes a positive PPD reaction in tuberculosis
A

a. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG)

72
Q
  1. This is tuberculosis lymphadenitis of the neck caused by infected milk
A

a. Scrofula

73
Q
  1. What are the 2 forms of syphilis?
A

a. Acquired
b. Congenital

74
Q
  1. What stage of syphilis is the most destructive?
A

a. Tertiary

75
Q
  1. What lesion is in primary syphilis?
A

a. Chancre

76
Q
  1. What lesion is in secondary syphilis?
A

a. Mucous patch

77
Q
  1. What lesion is in tertiary syphilis?
A

a. Gumma

78
Q
  1. Which syphilis stages are infectious and not?
A

a. 1 and 2 = infectious
b. 3 = not infectious

79
Q
  1. What are 2 oral manifestations of congenital syphilis?
A

a. Hutchinson incisors
b. Mulberry molars

80
Q
  1. Is actinomycosis a fungal infection?
A

No

81
Q
  1. What all describes actinomycosis?
A

a. Lumpy jaw
b. Sulfur granules
c. Bacterial infection

82
Q
  1. What is an example of a fungal disease?
A

a. Histoplasmosis
b. coccidioidomycosis

83
Q
  1. You see oral lesions in what histoplasmosis?
A

a. Disseminated histoplasmosis

84
Q
  1. What are the clinical forms of oral candidiasis?
A

a. Pseudomembranous (thrush)
b. Erythematous (atrophic)
c. Hyperplastic
d. Angular cheilitis (perleche)
e. Central papillary atrophy

85
Q
  1. Can hyperplastic candidiasis be wiped off?
A

No

86
Q
  1. Which candidiasis can be wiped off, looks like cottage cheese, and leaves a red streak?
A

a. Pseudomembranous candidiasis

D2 Fall - Pathology Exam 1 (8 decks)

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