Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

M7 B1 > 7.18 Inspection & Repair Techniques > Flashcards

7.18 Inspection & Repair Techniques Flashcards

1
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why are thorough and repeated inspections necessary in repairing structural damage?

A

To ensure the aircraft is maintained to the highest possible condition and to prevent gradual deterioration of airworthiness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the classifications of damage?

A
  • Allowable Damage
  • Non-Allowable Damage
  • Non-Repairable Damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What should be done to prepare for a thorough inspection?

A

Ensure all required panels, access doors, fairings, and cowlings are opened or removed and the structure is thoroughly cleaned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a typical checklist for a general inspection of an aircraft?

A
  • Fuselage and hull
  • Systems and components
  • Cabin and flight deck
  • Engine and nacelle
  • Landing gear
  • Wing and centre section
  • Empennage
  • Propeller
  • Communication and navigation
  • Miscellaneous items (emergency and first aid equipment)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What types of tools are used for inspection?

A
  • Inspection mirrors
  • Magnifying glasses
  • Borescopes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the definition of ‘damage’ according to the Structure Repair Manual (SRM)?

A

A cross-sectional area or a permanent distortion of a structural member.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the difference between a defect and damage?

A

A defect is any event or condition which reduces the serviceability of the aircraft, while damage refers specifically to physical harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fill in the blank: A _______ is a damaged area that is the result of scuffing, rubbing, scraping, or another type of surface erosion.

A

Abrasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is corrosion?

A

Damage that results from complex electro-chemical action and gives a cross-sectional area change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a crack in terms of aircraft damage?

A

A partial fracture or a full break in the material that causes a significant cross-sectional area change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain what a dent is.

A

A damaged area that is pushed in from its contour with no change in the cross-sectional area of the material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What constitutes non-repairable damage?

A

Damage to structural components which cannot be repaired, requiring replacement of the complete component.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the purpose of a visual inspection system?

A

To ensure that the aircraft is maintained to the highest possible condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does allowable damage mean?

A

Damage that is slight or of little significance and unlikely to propagate further damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or False: Non-Allowable Damage requires repair by removing the damaged area and inserting a reinforcing piece.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are Non-Destructive Inspection methods (NDI) used for?

A

To inspect damaged areas for defects such as corrosion, pitting, and heat/stress cracks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the function of inspection mirrors?

A

To provide a full view behind flanges and brackets during inspections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What magnification is most commonly used with magnifying glasses during inspections?

A

2x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a borescope?

A

An optical instrument used for the inspection of the internal structure or components of an aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name a feature of borescopes that assists in documentation during inspections.

A

Ability to attach a camera for taking photographs of the area under inspection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fill in the blank: A _______ is a damaged area caused by a sharp object that results in a continuous groove in the material.

A

Gouge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What should be considered when evaluating damage during an inspection?

A

Type of damage, type of original material, location of the damage, type of repair required, tools and equipment available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the purpose of surface preparation before corrosion removal?

A

To protect adjacent areas/equipment against the effects of chemicals and cleaning agents

Use suitable masking paper and tape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

List the metals for which corrosion removal procedures are explained.

A
  • Ferrous
  • Aluminium
  • Magnesium
  • Titanium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the common visual signs of corrosion on a painted surface?

A
  • Scaly or blistered surface
  • Change of colour
  • Blisters in the paint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What must be done immediately when corrosion is found?

A

All corrosion must be completely removed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some corrosion preventive maintenance actions?

A
  • Adequate cleaning
  • Thorough periodic lubrication
  • Detailed inspection for corrosion
  • Prompt treatment of corrosion
  • Drain holes free of obstructions
  • Daily draining of fuel sumps
  • Daily wipe down of exposed critical areas
  • Sealing of aircraft against water
  • Maximum use of protective covers on parked aircraft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

True or False: Corrosion that remains can cause new corrosion.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the recommended equipment for a visual inspection for corrosion?

A
  • Magnifying glass
  • Mirrors
  • Borescopes
  • Fibre optics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the first step in the corrosion removal process?

A

Cleaning and stripping of the corroded area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Fill in the blank: Abrasion by hand is suitable for areas of _____ corrosion.

A

light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is wire brushing used for?

A

To remove heavy corrosion and embedded paint or dirt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Why should wire brushing not be used on aluminium parts?

A

Fine particles from the brush can embed in the aluminium and cause further corrosion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the procedure for grinding corrosion?

A
  • Remove corrosion by grinding until a firm corrosion-free surface is achieved
  • Polish the surface with fine abrasive paper
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is abrasive blasting used for?

A

To clean or finish metal surfaces by bombarding them with abrasive particles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What PPE is required when using abrasive blasting?

A
  • Respirator
  • Hearing protection
  • Eye and head protection
  • Leather gloves
  • Safety shoes or boots
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the purpose of neutralisation in corrosion removal?

A

To complete the corrosion removal where deep corrosion was found on aluminium alloys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe the chromic acid inhibitor solution.

A

A 10% solution by weight of chromic acid, activated by sulfuric acid, effective for treating exposed or corroded aluminium surfaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the most common type of corrosion on carbon steel?

A

Ferrous oxide (rust)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does phosphoric acid do in the context of corrosion removal?

A

It actively removes iron oxide without chemically etching the base metal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Fill in the blank: To ensure safety, always read the _____ before using cleaning agents.

A

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What happens if minor traces of corrosion are left?

A

They can act as a starting point for further corrosion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the recommended method for deep cleaning aluminium surfaces?

A

Using a cleaner and brightener compound before polishing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the three forms of serious corrosion attack on aluminium alloys?

A
  • Penetrating pit type corrosion
  • Stress corrosion cracking
  • Intergranular corrosion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

True or False: Chemical surface treatment chemicals can be mixed with any substance.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the most used rust removing chemical?

A

Phosphoric acid

Phosphoric acid is commonly utilized for rust removal due to its chemical properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

True or False: Phosphoric acid is safe to handle without any protective gear.

A

False

Phosphoric acid is corrosive and highly toxic, requiring Personal Protective Equipment (PPE).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What should be done if there is spillage of phosphoric acid?

A

Collect any spillage and properly dispose of it

Proper disposal is crucial to ensure safety and compliance with regulations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What happens when phosphoric acid is applied to rust?

A

It converts rust to a water-soluble compound that can be scrubbed/washed away

This reaction helps in effective rust removal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is necessary for treating steel parts in aircraft to prevent rust?

A

The steel part must be removed from the airframe for treatment

This is to ensure complete removal of rust residues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are stainless steel and nickel chromium alloys primarily used for?

A

Where corrosion resistance is a major consideration

These materials are selected for structural parts due to their corrosion-resistant properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What type of corrosion commonly appears on stainless steels?

A

Pitting, usually black in color

Pitting corrosion can compromise the integrity of stainless steel components.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a significant characteristic of titanium alloys?

A

Highly corrosion-resistant

Despite their resistance, titanium alloys can deteriorate due to salt deposits and impurities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What should not be used for cleaning titanium parts?

A

Steel wool, iron scrapers, or steel brushes

These can damage the titanium surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the purpose of pre-treatments in corrosion protection?

A

To increase corrosion resistant properties and provide a good surface for paint adhesion

Pre-treatments are crucial for long-term protection against corrosion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Fill in the blank: A sacrificial corrosion prevention layer has a _______ electrolytical potential than the main metal.

A

lower

This allows the sacrificial layer to corrode first, protecting the underlying metal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is anodising?

A

A method of treating metals to form oxide coatings that enhance surface performance

Anodising increases wear and corrosion resistance of metals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the primary electrolyte used in the anodising process for aluminium?

A

Sulphuric acid

Sulphuric acid is commonly used for anodising due to its effectiveness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

True or False: Eloxadising creates a flexible layer on the surface of metals.

A

False

Eloxation layers are hard and brittle, making them prone to cracking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the three layers in the Airbus paint system for the outer fuselage skin?

A
  • Wash Primer
  • Paint Primer
  • Coating Lacquer

This multi-layer system provides both adhesion and protection against corrosion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the function of the Wash-Primer FCR?

A

Acts as corrosion protection and improves adhesion of the paint system

It consists of phosphoric acid and zinc-chromate pigments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What should be checked when inspecting paint finishes?

A
  • General condition
  • Surface polish
  • Brittleness
  • Cracks
  • Colour change
  • Satisfactory adhesion
  • Separation due to chemicals

A thorough inspection helps identify underlying corrosion issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the risk of not observing the minimum cure time for the FCR primer?

A

Impaired corrosion protection and adhesion

Proper curing time is essential for effective performance of the primer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the minimum cure time importance in a three-layer paint system?

A

If the minimum cure time is not observed before the next coat, corrosion protection and adhesion are impaired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Under what conditions is the use of FCR primer not recommended?

A

Humidity higher than 75% or temperatures below 15 °C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What must be applied after the FCR primer?

A

Aerodur S15/90 or CF Primer 37047.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the maximum breaking strength for applying Wash-Primer FCR?

A

180 KSI (1240 N/mm²).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the pot lifetime after preparation for the intermediate primer?

A

6 hours at temperatures of 18-22 °C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the depth hardening time for the intermediate primer?

A

About four hours (can be shortened by heating up to 125 °C).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the cure time for Epoxy Primer at 18 °C?

A

24 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which products are commonly used as coating lacquers?

A
  • Sikkens (C21/100 or HF-High Flexible)
  • Cellomer
  • Finsh
  • De Soto
  • ICI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the purpose of applying a clear varnish over coating lacquers?

A

To protect against general aging and decay and increase lifespan by 25-50%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What type of paint is used for plastic components in aviation?

A

Electrically conductive paints or antistatic primers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is required to achieve sufficient conductivity with electrically conductive paint?

A

A minimum of 75% of all countersinks in composite components must be covered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are water-displacing inhibitors used for?

A
  • Stop corrosion that has already started
  • Make surfaces water-repellent
  • Enhance corrosion protection.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Name two water-displacing inhibitors available in aviation.

A
  • LPS 3
  • Boeshield T9 H5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the safety precautions for using Dinitrol products?

A
  • Ensure proper ventilation
  • Wear Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
  • Keep away from heat and ignition sources.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the thickness of the dry film built up by Dinitrol AV 8?

A

About 1 - 2 mm (0.3 in).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What characterizes Dinitrol AV 30?

A

A thixotropic, elastic film that does not crack when deformed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the cure time for Dinitrol AV 100?

A

About six hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

True or False: Epoxy Primers can contain phosphoric acid.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Fill in the blank: The coating lacquer is applied as the last layer on previously applied _______.

A

[wash primers and intermediate primers]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the most important steps in repairing structural damage?

A

Inspection of damage and an accurate estimate of repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Why is it necessary to perform an extensive inspection of the structure when investigating damage?

A

To ensure all damage is identified and assessed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What does the Structural Repair Manual (SRM) encompass?

A

Nearly every repair to any part of the airframe deemed appropriate by the manufacturer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the primary objective of an aircraft repair?

A

To restore damaged parts as close to their original condition as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the two classifications of aircraft structure?

A
  • Primary structure
  • Secondary structure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is a primary structure in an aircraft?

A

A critical load bearing structure that is essential for flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are examples of primary structures?

A
  • Fuselage
  • Wings
  • Stabilisers
  • Flight control surfaces
  • Landing gear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is a secondary structure in an aircraft?

A

A structural element that enhances aerodynamics but does not lead to loss of the aircraft if failed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the classifications of repairs in the SRM?

A
  • Category A, B, or C repairs
  • Permanent, Interim, or Time-Limited Repairs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What characterizes a Category A repair?

A

A permanent repair with sufficient inspections from the Zonal Inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is a Category C repair?

A

A time-limited repair requiring supplemental inspections and replacement after a specified time limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What defines a Permanent Repair?

A

A repair requiring no action other than operator maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is an Interim Repair?

A

A repair that can remain indefinitely but must be inspected and replaced if deterioration occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is a Time-Limited Repair?

A

A repair that must be replaced after a specified time due to insufficient durability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is an external repair?

A

A repair that is applied quickly and typically protrudes from the aerodynamic surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is a flush repair?

A

A repair that is flush with the aerodynamic surface, usually performed in a workshop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What does the Structural Repair Manual (SRM) include?

A
  • Structural damage criteria
  • Structure material identification
  • Typical repairs
  • Substitute materials
  • Fastener information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the purpose of the SRM?

A

To provide specific instructions and data related to the repair of the aircraft structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are the chapter headings in the SRM?

A
  • Chapter 51: Structures - General
  • Chapter 52: Doors
  • Chapter 53: Fuselage
  • Chapter 54: Nacelles/Pylons
  • Chapter 55: Stabilisers
  • Chapter 56: Windows
  • Chapter 57: Wings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

How is the SRM organized?

A

By chapters and sections, with each section covering specific components of the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What does Chapter 51 of the SRM cover?

A

General subjects related to the entire structure of the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the numbering format for SRM chapters and sections?

A

A three-element system: chapter, section, and subject number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What should be considered if a typical repair is not found in the SRM?

A
  • General repair practices in chapter 51
  • Preparing a specific repair design
  • Replacing the damaged part
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the first step in using the SRM for a repair?

A

Check for allowable damage limits in the applicable table of contents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Why do older aircraft require special attention in maintaining their airframe?

A

Older aircraft are susceptible to failure due to corrosion and fatigue, requiring deeper inspections to ensure airworthiness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the purpose of the National Ageing Aircraft Research Programme?

A

To study how age affects aircraft and develop plans to maintain airworthiness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Identify corrosion-prone areas on an aircraft.

A
  • Aircraft galleys and lavatories
  • Battery compartments
  • Landing gear and wheel well areas
  • Bilge areas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Differentiate between the different levels of damage in aircraft.

A
  • Corrosion damage
  • Fatigue damage
  • Accidental damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Explain the structural design approaches of Safe-Life.

A

Safe-life specifies a ‘safe’ lifespan within which there is no significant risk of structural failure; components must be replaced before reaching this lifespan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is the Fail-Safe design principle?

A

Fail-Safe structures can sustain limit loads even when one element fails, using backup structures and secondary load paths.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What does Damage Tolerance mean in aircraft design?

A

Damage tolerance allows cracks to develop but ensures they can be detected before causing catastrophic failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Fill in the blank: Corrosion damage is caused by the process of _______.

A

corrosion or oxidation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

True or False: Fatigue damage is time-dependent.

A

False. Fatigue damage relates to the number of aircraft cycles, not time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the three kinds of damage that lead to aircraft failure?

A
  • Corrosion damage
  • Fatigue damage
  • Accidental damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What factors contribute to corrosion in aircraft?

A
  • Air pollution
  • Type of metal
  • Type of stress on the metal
  • Presence of water and oxygen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

List some methods used for corrosion removal.

A
  • Chemical
  • Mechanical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the primary threat to the structure of an aircraft?

A

Corrosion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the significance of the Aloha Airlines flight incident?

A

It highlighted the need for thorough inspection and maintenance of older aircraft due to structural failure from fatigue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the critical crack length in fatigue analysis?

A

The length at which a fracture can occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Explain the importance of the Corrosion Prevention and Control Programme (CPCP).

A

CPCP aims to prevent corrosion through regular inspections and treatments, reducing fatigue-related failures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Fill in the blank: Fatigue occurs through _______ loading patterns.

A

cyclic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What types of aircraft operations increase fatigue rates?

A
  • Aerobatics flying
  • Aerial mustering
  • Aerial agriculture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is a major contributing factor to the Aloha flight 243 accident?

A

The average flight duration of the aircraft was just 25 minutes, leading to more pressurisation cycles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What materials can be affected by fatigue?

A

Primarily metal components, but also non-metallic materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What inspection methods are effective in detecting corrosion damage?

A
  • Dye penetrant
  • Eddy current
  • Ultrasonic
  • Radiographic inspections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are the two primary areas the FAA divided aircraft into for analysis?

A
  • Structures
  • Electrical systems
130
Q

What is the effect of operating aircraft near the ocean on corrosion?

A

Increased electrolyte action of water due to salt accelerates corrosion.

131
Q

True or False: The fail-safe principle assumes an initial crack in aircraft design.

A

False. Damage tolerance assumes an initial crack, while fail-safe does not.

132
Q

What is the function of a safety by inspection approach in aircraft design?

A

To detect cracks before they affect flight safety.

133
Q

What areas of concern should be inspected for magnesium wheels?

A

Presence of entrapped water or its effects around bolt heads, lugs, and wheel-web areas

Magnesium wheels are prone to issues related to moisture retention, which can lead to corrosion.

134
Q

What specific areas of exposed rigid tubing require inspection?

A

B-nuts, ferrules, under clamps, and tubing identification tapes

These areas are prone to wear and can accumulate moisture.

135
Q

What are common traps for water and debris in aircraft structures?

A

Crevices between stiffeners, ribs, and lower skin surfaces

These areas can lead to corrosion if moisture is retained.

136
Q

How does corrosion occur in a metal skin joined by spot welding?

A

Trapped corrosive agents between the layers of metal lead to corrosion, evidenced by corrosion at crevices

Spot welding can create hidden areas where moisture accumulates.

137
Q

What is the best prevention method for corrosion in aircraft structures?

A

Keep potential moisture entry points filled with a sealant or a suitable preservative compound

This includes seams and holes from broken spot welds.

138
Q

Why is inspecting fuel tanks challenging?

A

Fuel tanks are located inside wing and fuselage structures, making access difficult

Internal inspection often requires emptying the tanks.

139
Q

What is a common issue in aircraft fuel tanks?

A

Bacterial growth

This growth can be controlled with growth-inhibiting additives during refueling.

140
Q

What part of aircraft panels is particularly susceptible to corrosion?

A

Piano hinges due to dissimilar metal contact between steel pin and aluminium hinge

They also trap dirt, salt, or moisture.

141
Q

What should be included in the inspection of wing flaps and spoiler recesses?

A

Scheduled inspections due to accumulation of grease, dirt, and water

These areas are often overlooked when the flaps and spoilers are retracted.

142
Q

What materials are reciprocating engine mounts primarily made of?

A

Welded tubular steel

These mounts require regular inspection for corrosion and fatigue due to engine stresses.

143
Q

What is the recommended inspection method for corroded tubing?

A

Clean the tubing and test structural integrity using eddy current and ultrasonic inspections

This helps prevent recurring corrosion.

144
Q

How should wire control cables be inspected?

A

Inspect for corrosion by random cleaning with solvent-soaked cloths

Cables with internal corrosion must be replaced.

145
Q

How can light external corrosion on cables be treated?

A

Remove with a stainless steel wire brush and re-coat with a recommended preservative

Regular maintenance helps ensure cable integrity.

146
Q

What should be regularly inspected in electronic and electrical compartments?

A

Circuit breakers, contact points, and switches for moisture and corrosive attack

Component removal may be necessary for thorough inspection.

147
Q

What does NDI stand for?

A

Non-destructive Inspection

148
Q

What does NDT stand for?

A

Non-destructive Testing

149
Q

What is the primary purpose of NDI/NDT?

A

To determine the airworthiness of a component without causing further damage.

150
Q

List three common non-destructive inspection methods.

A
  • Visual inspection
  • Ultrasonic
  • Radiography
151
Q

What is a discontinuity in NDI/NDT terms?

A

An interruption in the normal physical structure or configuration of a part.

152
Q

Define ‘defect’ in the context of NDI/NDT.

A

A discontinuity that interferes with the usefulness of a part.

153
Q

What is an imperfection?

A

A departure of a quality characteristic from its intended condition.

154
Q

True or False: A flaw is always harmful.

155
Q

What are the advantages of visual inspection?

A
  • Inexpensive
  • Highly portable
  • Immediate results
  • Minimum training
  • Minimum part preparation
156
Q

What is a major disadvantage of visual inspection?

A

Generally only detects large discontinuities.

157
Q

What material types can dye penetrant inspection be used on?

A
  • Aluminium
  • Magnesium
  • Cast iron
  • Stainless steel
  • Titanium
  • Ceramics
  • Plastics
  • Glass
158
Q

What is required for a successful dye penetrant inspection?

A

The defect must be open to the surface.

159
Q

What is the basic process for conducting a dye penetrant inspection?

A
  • Thorough cleaning of the metal surface
  • Applying penetrant
  • Removing penetrant
  • Drying the part
  • Applying the developer
  • Inspecting and interpreting results
160
Q

What is the significance of the developer in dye penetrant inspection?

A

It dries to a smooth, even white coating and reveals defects as bright red indications.

161
Q

What can cause false indications in dye penetrant inspection?

A
  • Poor washing
  • Press-fit parts
162
Q

What are mandatory safety precautions when using dye penetrants?

A
  • Adequate ventilation
  • Wear eye protection, gloves, and overalls
  • Avoid looking directly into the ultraviolet lamp
  • Dispose of aerosol cans correctly
163
Q

What is the principle behind eddy current inspection?

A

Inducing eddy currents in a conductive material and measuring changes in impedance.

164
Q

List some applications of eddy current inspection in aircraft maintenance.

A
  • Inspecting engines
  • Shafts
  • Wing skins
  • Wheels
  • Bolt holes
165
Q

What does an eddy current test instrument do?

A
  • Generates an AC signal
  • Receives signals from the test coil
  • Displays the results
166
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ method is used to detect surface cracks and corrosion.

A

[eddy current]

167
Q

What is a major disadvantage of X-ray radiography?

A

It is very expensive and a safety hazard.

168
Q

True or False: Ultrasonic inspection requires significant part preparation.

169
Q

What is the role of a borescope in NDI?

A

It allows inspection of areas that cannot be accessed without disassembly.

170
Q

What types of materials can be inspected using penetrant dye?

A
  • Non-porous materials
  • Metals
  • Ceramics
  • Plastics
  • Glass
171
Q

What is the advantage of using a fluorescent dye penetrant?

A

Defects show up as a brilliant yellow/green color under black light.

172
Q

What does the term ‘magnetic particle’ refer to in NDI?

A

A method that detects surface and subsurface imperfections in ferro-magnetic materials.

173
Q

What are the three basic functions of an instrument in testing?

A

Generating, Receiving, Displaying

174
Q

What is required for the calibration of eddy current test equipment?

A

A reference standard made from the same material as the item to be tested

175
Q

What typical defects can be found using Eddy Current Testing?

176
Q

What is the ultrasonic inspection method?

A

An NDI technique that uses sound energy moving through the test specimen to detect flaws

177
Q

What displays can be used for ultrasonic testing results?

A

Cathode Ray Tube (CRT), Liquid Crystal Display (LCD), computer data program, video/camera medium

178
Q

What are the three types of display patterns in ultrasonic testing?

A

‘A-scan’, ‘B-scan’, ‘C-scan’

179
Q

What are the two basic methods used in ultrasonic inspection?

A
  • Immersion test
  • Contact testing
180
Q

What are the three basic ultrasonic inspection methods?

A
  • Pulse echo
  • Through transmission
  • Resonance
181
Q

What does radiographic inspection use to identify defects?

A

X-ray and gamma-ray radiation

182
Q

What is produced when penetrating radiation is projected through a part in radiographic inspection?

A

An invisible or latent image in the film

183
Q

What are the three major steps in the X-ray process?

A
  • Exposure to radiation
  • Processing of the film
  • Interpretation of the radiograph
184
Q

What factors need to be considered for radiographic exposure?

A
  • Material thickness and density
  • Shape and size of the object
  • Type of defect to be detected
  • Characteristics of the X-ray machine
  • Exposure distances
  • Exposure angles
  • Film characteristics
  • Type of the intensifying screen, if used
185
Q

True or False: Only qualified radiographers are allowed to operate X-ray units.

186
Q

What are some dangers associated with radiation from X-ray units?

A
  • Blood and intestinal disorders
  • Leukaemia
  • Other cancers
  • Skin damage
  • Hair loss
187
Q

What is the Magnetic Particle Inspection (MPI) method used for?

A

Detection of surface and near-surface flaws in magnetic materials

188
Q

How is the part magnetised in Magnetic Particle Inspection?

A

Either locally or overall

189
Q

What causes local magnetic flux leakage in MPI?

A

A surface flaw distorting the magnetic field

190
Q

What methods can be used to produce magnetisation in MPI?

A
  • Applying a permanent magnet or electromagnet
  • Passing a large current through the specimen
  • Using a current-carrying coil
  • Making the specimen the secondary loop of a transformer
  • Placing a current-carrying coil close to the specimen surface
  • Threading a current-carrying bar through a hollow specimen
191
Q

Fill in the blank: The method of magnetisation in MPI must produce a magnetic field with lines of force at a large angle to the expected direction of the _______.

A

cracks to be detected

192
Q

What type of current can be used for magnetisation in MPI?

A

DC or AC of any waveform

193
Q

What is the advantage of using fluorescent particles in MPI?

A

Requires UV-A illumination for better visibility of cracks

194
Q

What can impair flaw sensitivity in MPI?

A

Applying methods to relatively rough and dirty surfaces

195
Q

What can happen if an aircraft is disassembled and reassembled incorrectly?

A

Significant damage can be incurred.

196
Q

Why is it important to follow basic aircraft maintenance hangar etiquette?

A

To ensure safety and organization in the maintenance area.

197
Q

What occurs during the disassembly and reassembly of major components?

A

Components are removed, inspected, and reinstalled as per the maintenance manual.

198
Q

What happens during the disassembly and reassembly of minor components?

A

Minor components are serviced or replaced as needed, often following their specific Aircraft Maintenance Manual.

199
Q

What is the process for inserting and removing solid rivets?

A

Select rivet, prepare hole, insert rivet, and form upset head.

200
Q

What are the two types of blind rivets?

A

Rivets and bolts.

201
Q

What is the purpose of structural sealing in aircraft maintenance?

A

To protect components from environmental factors and maintain structural integrity.

202
Q

What are the types of commonly used sealants?

A
  • Silicone
  • Polyurethane
  • Butyl
  • Epoxy
203
Q

What is essential to do before starting any maintenance task?

A

Ensure all correct tooling, parts, servicing fluids, and support equipment are available.

204
Q

What must be done to components removed during maintenance?

A

Label and store them in a safe place.

205
Q

True or False: Maintenance manuals contain the approved methods of disassembly and reassembly.

206
Q

What should be done with ‘Do Not Operate’ tags during maintenance?

A

They must be placed on controls and switches being serviced.

207
Q

What types of components require maintenance checks?

A
  • Engines
  • Propellers
  • Landing gears
  • Wheels
208
Q

What is the significance of torque values in assembly?

A

They ensure proper fastening according to the manufacturer’s specifications.

209
Q

What is a jig used for in aircraft assembly?

A

To ensure high dimensional accuracy during the assembly of components.

210
Q

What items are typically discarded after removal?

A
  • Filters
  • Sealing rings
  • Fuels
  • Oils
211
Q

What common issue may occur when dismantling parts?

A

Encountering a seized fastener.

212
Q

What is the recommended action for removing a seized fastener?

A

Use penetrating oil, heat, or cold to assist in removal.

213
Q

What materials are solid rivets primarily made from?

A
  • Aluminium
  • Steel
  • Titanium
  • Monel
214
Q

Fill in the blank: The upset head of a rivet is formed by the _______ of the shank.

A

[deformation]

215
Q

What must be checked after installing rivets?

A

Ensure the joint is tight and rivets are fully seated and correctly formed.

216
Q

What does the term ‘On-Condition’ refer to?

A

Components that are removed only when they fail.

217
Q

What do special fasteners require when used in CFRP structures?

A

Special nuts or collars.

218
Q

What is a Fastener Dipping Gauge used for?

A

To ensure the correct length of rivets.

219
Q

What is the acceptable condition for the head of a countersunk rivet?

A

It should be level with or slightly above the surface of the material.

220
Q

What can cause deformation or buckling of metal sheets during riveting?

A
  • Too much tool pressure
  • Rivets expanded between the sheets
  • Trapped foreign material
221
Q

What is permitted regarding the eccentricity of the upset head of a rivet?

A

Eccentricity of the upset head is permitted if the rivet shank cannot be seen.

222
Q

What is the acceptable limit for malformation of the upset head?

A

Malformation is permitted if the shape is within the dimension limits given in upset rivet dimension tables.

223
Q

Are cracks allowed in the upset head of aluminium alloy 2017 and 2024 rivets?

A

Cracks are permitted within given limits.

224
Q

Are cracks in the upset head of other aluminium alloy rivets permitted?

A

No, cracks in the upset head of other aluminium alloy rivets are not permitted.

225
Q

What type of cracks are not permitted in the structure material under either head?

A

Cracks are not permitted.

226
Q

True or False: Cracks in the heads of titanium and Monel rivets are permitted.

227
Q

What is one of the main sources of structural fatigue and failure?

A

Fastener holes.

228
Q

What should be preserved when removing a rivet?

A

The rivet hole’s original size and shape.

229
Q

What tools can be used to remove rivets?

A

Hand tools, a power drill, or a combination of both.

230
Q

What should be used to support thin metal or unsupported structures during rivet removal?

A

A back-up block.

231
Q

What safety equipment should be worn during rivet removal operations?

A

Eye protection and any other Personal Protection Equipment (PPE).

232
Q

What is a critical step to take before drilling into a rivet head?

A

Centre-punch the head as a guide for the drill-bit.

233
Q

What must be done if the rivet shank is unusually tight after the head is removed?

A

Drill the rivet about two-thirds through the thickness of the material.

234
Q

What should be inspected after removing a rivet?

A

The hole for any signs of damage.

235
Q

What is the procedure for removing countersunk rivets?

A

Drill into the exact centre of the rivet head to the approximate depth of the head.

236
Q

Fill in the blank: Replace rivets with some of the same size and ______ whenever possible.

A

[strength]

237
Q

What is the main characteristic of blind rivets?

A

Installed with access to only one end.

238
Q

Name two standard forms of blind rivets.

A
  • Friction Lock
  • Mechanical Lock
239
Q

What is a key feature of friction lock rivets?

A

The stem is pulled until the header forms a tail (bulb) on the blind side.

240
Q

True or False: A friction lock rivet can replace a solid shank rivet size for size.

241
Q

Name one type of mechanical lock rivet.

A
  • Huck-Loks®
  • Cherrylocks®
  • Olympic-Loks®
  • Cherrymax®
242
Q

What is a disadvantage of mechanical lock rivets?

A

If a rivet is too short, the lock ring can set prematurely.

243
Q

What is sealing in the context of aircraft manufacture?

A

A process that confines liquids and gasses within a given area or prevents them from entering areas.

244
Q

What are the four levels of sealing?

A
  • Absolute
  • Extensive
  • Intermediate
  • Limited
245
Q

What types of areas require sealants?

A
  • Fuel Areas
  • Pressurised Areas
  • Environmental Areas
  • Corrosion Areas
  • Electrical Areas
  • Firewall Areas
  • Acid Areas
246
Q

What are most sealing compounds known chemically as?

A

Polysulfides.

247
Q

What is the main advantage of the Hi-Lite fastener?

A

Excellent strength to weight ratio.

248
Q

What is the first step in the removal process of a Hi-Lok fastener?

A

Remove the collar using dedicated tools.

249
Q

What should be avoided when removing a Hi-Lok fastener?

A

Using a chisel and hammer.

250
Q

What are the two main categories of sealing compounds?

A

Silicone and non-silicone

251
Q

What colors are silicone compounds typically available in?

A

White, red, or grey

252
Q

What is the typical color of non-silicone compounds?

253
Q

What is Class A sealant defined as?

A

Brush coat sealant thinned with solvent for suitable viscosity

254
Q

What class of sealant is characterized as a filleting sealant?

255
Q

Define Class C sealant.

A

Faying surface sealant with medium consistency for good spreadability

256
Q

What does Class D sealant refer to?

A

Hole-filling sealant with very low slump

257
Q

What are Classes E and F used for?

A

Sprayable sealants

258
Q

What is the maximum differential pressure that sealants must withstand?

A

Approximately 11 lb/in2 (0.758 bar)

259
Q

What is the operating temperature range for sealants?

A

-65°F (-54°C) to 160°F (71°C)

260
Q

What does application time refer to?

A

Time in hours after thawing during which the sealant can be extruded

261
Q

How is squeeze-out life defined?

A

Time in hours after thawing during which a faying surface sealant can be squeezed out

262
Q

What is tack-free time?

A

Time in hours after thawing required for the sealant to cure sufficiently

263
Q

What does cure time signify?

A

Time in hours after thawing required for the sealant to cure firmly enough to handle

264
Q

What can retard the curing of two-part materials?

A

Temperatures below 60 °F (15 °C) and/or relative humidity below 40%

265
Q

What occurs if the temperature of the sealant exceeds 120 °F (49 °C)?

A

Bubbling will occur

266
Q

What is a critical precaution for uncured silicones?

A

They must be protected from contact with CO2 sources

267
Q

What should be done to ensure proper sealing preparation?

A

Thorough cleaning of the area

268
Q

What is the purpose of preliminary cleaning?

A

Remove swarf, shavings, and other loose materials

269
Q

What should be used for final cleaning before sealing?

A

Dampen clean wiping material with solvent

270
Q

What is the role of a vacuum cleaner in the cleaning process?

A

To remove aluminium swarf and debris

271
Q

How should two-part sealants be mixed?

A

Completely mixed to ensure uniform color and performance

272
Q

What is the recommended method for mixing most sealants?

A

Machine mixing

273
Q

What is the importance of thawing sealant to room temperature?

A

Cold sealant will not adhere properly

274
Q

What tools are used for the removal and cutting of sealants?

A

Sealant removal or cutting tools made of hardwood or soft metal

275
Q

What is the primary application tool for sealants?

A

Sealant gun

276
Q

What feature do nozzles for sealants provide?

A

Available in assorted sizes and shapes for various sealing requirements

277
Q

What type of rollers are recommended for spreading sealants?

A

Rubber rollers of approximately 50 Shore ‘A’ durometer hardness

278
Q

What should be done if contact with sealant occurs?

A

Remove the sealant and thoroughly wash the affected area

279
Q

Fill in the blank: The application time for Class B-2 sealant is ______ hours.

280
Q

Fill in the blank: Squeeze-out life for Class C-20 sealant is a minimum of ______ hours.

281
Q

True or False: Silicones can be stored with other sealants without risk of contamination.

282
Q

What safety equipment should be worn when handling sealants?

A

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

283
Q

What is the maximum allowable cure time for most sealants?

A

Given in the process specification

284
Q

What is the purpose of multiple-orifice nozzles in sealant application?

A

To provide a more convenient angle or diameter for application of the sealant

They allow for more rapid spreading of sealant over large areas for faying surface sealing.

285
Q

What type of rollers are recommended for spreading sealants?

A

Rubber rollers of approximately 50 Shore ‘A’ durometer hardness

These rollers are superior in spreading sealant and keeping it out of fastener holes.

286
Q

What is the function of plastic scrapers in sealant application?

A

To spread sealant over a surface in situations where using a roller would be awkward

They are useful for access or other considerations.

287
Q

What is a fillet seal?

A

A seal applied at the edges of structural joints, consisting of beads of sealant that adhere to both sides of the seam

Fillet seals provide maximum protection from fluid leakage.

288
Q

What must be avoided during the working of a fillet seal?

A

Folds, flaps, and entrapped air

Air bubbles must be worked out to ensure a proper seal.

289
Q

How is an injection seal applied?

A

To fill channels and holes resulting from structural design

Often used to back up a fillet seal.

290
Q

What is a faying surface seal?

A

A seal consisting of a layer of sealant sandwiched between two fastened mating surfaces

Primarily used to prevent corrosion and facilitate leak tracing in fuel tanks.

291
Q

What is the recommended thickness for faying surface sealant application?

A

A thickness that completely masks the surface yet minimizes the size of the continuous bead required

The specific range can be found in the SRM.

292
Q

What is the purpose of an aerodynamic smoother in aircraft sealing?

A

To fill skin gaps and fair surface discontinuities for an aerodynamically smooth surface

It also helps to exclude water.

293
Q

What is the seal plane?

A

The structural boundary on which the continuity of seal is established

In integral fuel tanks, it consists of structural components, fasteners, and sealant.

294
Q

What are prepack seals used for?

A

To fill structural cavities that are enclosed after assembly and cannot be properly injected

They are commonly used in large structural fittings.

295
Q

True or False: Fillet sealing is the basic method used for fuel retention within integral fuel tanks.

A

True

It is the only method that provides a reliable barrier against fuel leakage.

296
Q

What is the first step in the three-phase system for sealing an integral fuel tank?

A

Apply a brush coat/precoat

This is followed by applying a small first fillet and then a full-size final fillet.

297
Q

What is the purpose of metal seal caps in fuel tank fastener sealing?

A

To prevent leakage by fitting over the protruding end of the fastener

They are lightweight aluminum shells.

298
Q

Fill in the blank: The sealant must be _______ continuously around the bottom of the seal cap.

A

extruded

This ensures proper sealing of the fastener.

299
Q

What method is used for sealing electrical fittings?

A

Fillet seal

Each wire in a bundle is coated with the specified sealant prior to installation.

300
Q

What is the purpose of maintenance documents/manuals in aircraft maintenance?

A

To assist the engineer with all maintenance when performing scheduled and unscheduled maintenance.

301
Q

Name three examples of scheduled maintenance work.

A
  • Aircraft turn around
  • Daily checks
  • Planned checks
302
Q

What are two key documents that help engineers perform scheduled maintenance?

A
  • Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document
  • Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM)
303
Q

List four examples of unscheduled maintenance work.

A
  • Flight faults
  • Ground faults
  • Service problems
  • Structural damage
304
Q

Which documents assist engineers with unscheduled maintenance?

A
  • Fault Reporting Manual (FRM)
  • Maintenance Tips
  • Fault Isolation Manual (FIM)
  • Structural Repair Manual (SRM)
  • Dispatch Deviations Guide (DDG)
  • Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM)
305
Q

What is the logical process that manuals guide aircraft engineers through?

A

Finding a diagnosis to ascertain the defect and the rectification action to follow.

306
Q

What are the recommended troubleshooting steps?

A
  • Identify the defect
  • Conduct a visual inspection
  • Conduct an operational check
  • Classify the defect
  • Locate and isolate the defect
  • Rectify the defect
  • Perform a final operational check
307
Q

How should defects be recorded?

A

All defects must be transferred to a written record.

308
Q

What can initiate the troubleshooting process?

A
  • Discussing the defect with the person who identified it
  • Checking previous technical entries in the technical logbook
309
Q

What must be included in a thorough visual inspection?

A
  • Evidence of improper installation
  • Material condition
  • Leaks
  • Looseness
  • Security
310
Q

What is the purpose of an operational check?

A

To replicate the defect and check for external leakages, correct component movement, and timing.

311
Q

What are the four basic categories of system operational malfunctions?

A
  • Mechanical
  • Hydraulic
  • Pneumatic
  • Electrical
312
Q

What are common causes of hydraulic defects?

A
  • External and internal leakages
  • Total or partial restriction
  • Improper lubrication
313
Q

True or False: Electrical malfunctions can include power failures and wiring faults.

314
Q

What is a common issue in pneumatic systems?

A

Low pressure and vacuum system faults, especially leaks.

315
Q

What skills are required for locating and isolating defects?

A
  • Hands-on practical experience
  • Understanding of basic aircraft system theory
  • Knowledge of aircraft systems operation
316
Q

How are malfunctions typically rectified?

A
  • Component replacement
  • Rigging adjustments
  • Bleeding the associated system
317
Q

What must be done after completing any system maintenance?

A

Conduct a final operational check and perform an independent inspection.

318
Q

Who is responsible for signing the Certificate of Release to Service (CRS)?

A

The appropriate licensed or certified engineer.

319
Q

Fill in the blank: Defects occur through ‘_______’ and ‘_______’.

A

[cause], [effect]

320
Q

What should be checked and recorded after satisfactory completion of functional testing?

A

All associated paperwork, including new parts installed (part and serial numbers).

M7 B1 (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions