7.1 Safety Precautions Flashcards

1
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the purpose of health and safety legislation?

A

To protect the health, safety, and welfare of individuals at work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does environmental protection legislation aim to achieve?

A

To safeguard the environment from harm caused by human activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the focus of hazardous substance legislation?

A

To control the use and management of substances that pose a risk to health and safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are manual handling practices?

A

Techniques used to lift, move, or carry objects safely to prevent injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are safe working practices for handling electricity?

A

Procedures to prevent electrical hazards, including proper insulation and avoiding wet conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the significance of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

A

PPE is crucial for minimizing exposure to hazards that can cause injury or illness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How should Foreign Object Debris (FOD) be handled?

A

Through strict control measures and cleanliness to prevent damage and accidents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring safety in a shared environment?

A

It is the responsibility of everyone working in that environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are common causes of workplace accidents?

A

Over-confidence and inexperience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What personal habits can pose hazards in the workplace?

A

Alcohol and drug abuse, as well as fatigue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What role does supervision play in workplace safety?

A

Supervision is essential for training and ensuring adherence to safety protocols.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some examples of potentially hazardous general environments?

A
  • Unguarded or poorly maintained tools and machinery
  • Slippery floors
  • Poorly maintained stairways
  • Crowded workplaces
  • Bad lighting and inadequate ventilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should be done if an injury is sustained at work?

A

The employee must ensure it is recorded in the Accident Book.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

True or False: Failure to record an injury can affect future compensation claims.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does Foreign Object Damage/Debris (FOD) refer to?

A

Any article or substance that can potentially cause damage to an aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are external FOD hazards?

A
  • Bird strikes
  • Hail
  • Ice
  • Sandstorms
  • Ash-clouds
  • Objects left on the runway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are internal FOD hazards?

A
  • Items left in the cockpit
  • Tools left inside the aircraft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do aircraft maintenance teams prevent FOD?

A

By implementing strict tool control procedures and inventory checks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What can small parts lost during take-off and landing cause?

A

Damage to tyres, fuselage, or engines of other aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What tragic event highlighted the dangers of FOD?

A

The crash of Air France Flight 4590 (Concorde) in July 2000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are key actions to prevent accidents in aviation?

A
  • Never carry matches or lighters onto an aircraft
  • Keep work areas clean
  • Wear appropriate personal protection
  • Complete safety education
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Fill in the blank: To maximize safety in aviation, workers should _______ the hazard.

A

[eliminate]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Fill in the blank: To ensure safety, workers should _______ the hazard.

A

[remove]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fill in the blank: Workers should _______ equipment to protect against hazards.

A

[guard]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the primary piece of legislation for occupational health and safety in Great Britain?

A

The Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974

Also referred to as HSWA, the HSW Act, the 1974 Act, or HASAWA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What significant change did the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 introduce?

A

It provided legal safety protection to approximately 8 million employees who previously had none.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Who are considered ‘duty holders’ under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974?

A

Employers, employees, and certain self-employed people

Each has specific duties towards themselves and others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the role of the Health & Safety Executive (HSE)?

A

To prevent death, injury, or ill health in the workplace, primarily through prevention and enforcement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What methods does the HSE use to manage workplace risks?

A

Providing advice, raising awareness, operating permissions, conducting inspections, and taking enforcement action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are Industry Guidance (INDGs) and Health & Safety Guidance (HSGs)?

A

Documents providing advice to help comply with the law and explain specific legal requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is an Approved Code of Practice (ACOP)?

A

A code approved by the HSE that provides practical advice on how to comply with health and safety law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What must employers have if they employ five or more people?

A

A written health and safety policy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is required for risk assessments under the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999?

A

Assessments must be ‘suitable and sufficient’ and significant findings must be recorded in writing if five or more people are employed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does HSG 65 provide guidance on?

A

Core elements of managing health and safety, determining if requirements are met, and delivering effective arrangements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Fill in the blank: The process of managing health and safety includes the steps Plan, Do, Check, and _______.

A

Act.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What should be included in the ‘Plan’ phase of health and safety management?

A

Determine the policy and plan for implementation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the focus of the ‘Do’ phase in health and safety management?

A

Profile risks, organise for health and safety, and implement the plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does the ‘Check’ phase involve?

A

Measure performance and investigate events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What actions are taken in the ‘Act’ phase of health and safety management?

A

Review performance and act on lessons learned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

True or False: The HSE can take enforcement action only if the law is deliberately ignored.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the purpose of providing employees with information about workplace risks?

A

To inform them of the risks and how they are protected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is required for employee training in relation to workplace risks?

A

Instruction and training on how to deal with the risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is necessary for effective health and safety management regarding supervision?

A

Adequate and appropriate supervision must be in place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the significance of consulting with employees about risks at work?

A

It ensures that employees are aware of and can participate in managing their risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What must any UK employer display for their workers?

A

The health and safety law poster

It explains British health and safety laws and lists what workers and their employers should do.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is required of every business regarding health and safety?

A

A health and safety policy

This policy outlines the organisation’s approach to managing health and safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a Risk Assessment (RA)?

A

A legal duty to assess risks to health and safety of employees and others at work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Who should ideally be consulted when conducting a Risk Assessment?

A

Employees and health and safety representatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the purpose of a Risk Assessment?

A

To identify sensible measures to control risks in the workplace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When is a written record of the Risk Assessment required?

A

If the company has 5 or more employees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What do the PPE regulations require?

A

PPE must be properly assessed, maintained, stored, and used correctly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does PPE stand for?

A

Personal Protective Equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the employer’s responsibility regarding PPE?

A

To supply suitable and adequate PPE to employees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the employee’s responsibility regarding PPE?

A

To wear and use the provided PPE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

PPE should be considered as a last resort for __________.

A

Situations where risks cannot be controlled in other ways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What must be considered when assessing the suitability of PPE?

A

Environmental conditions, risk increase, job demands, and compatibility of multiple PPE items.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What should users of PPE receive training on?

A

The use of PPE equipment, including its limitations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What types of risks can eye protection guard against?

A

Chemical splashes, dust, projectiles, gas and vapour, or radiation.

60
Q

What types of head protection are available?

A

Helmets, hard hats, and bump caps.

61
Q

What does Respiratory Protective Equipment (RPE) protect against?

A

Inhaling dust, vapours, and gases.

62
Q

What should be done if PPE is damaged?

A

It must be replaced.

63
Q

What is the purpose of barrier cream?

A

To minimize the chances of developing dermatitis.

64
Q

What should be worn to protect the feet from falling objects?

A

Safety boots.

65
Q

What is the recommended action to protect hearing?

A

Wearing ear-defenders or plugs.

66
Q

What should be done to prevent hair entanglement in machinery?

A

Wearing a suitable cap or hairnet.

67
Q

True or False: The employer can make the employee pay for PPE.

68
Q

What type of respirator should be used in oxygen-deficient atmospheres?

A

Breathing apparatus.

69
Q

What must be checked before replacing PPE filters?

A

Manufacturer’s guidance.

70
Q

What does PUWER stand for?

A

Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations

PUWER 1998 places duties on people and companies who own, operate, or have control over work equipment.

71
Q

What types of responsibilities does PUWER place on businesses?

A

Responsibilities for businesses include:
* Suitability of equipment
* Stability
* Maintenance
* Stop controls
* Isolation from storage of energy
* Specific risks
* Warnings
* Remote controlled self-propelled equipment

PUWER is supported by an Approved Code of Practice (ACOP).

72
Q

What is the purpose of LOLER?

A

To place duties on people and companies who own, operate, or have control over lifting equipment

LOLER 1998 also requires that lifting operations be properly planned, supervised, and carried out safely.

73
Q

What is required of all lifting equipment under LOLER?

A

Lifting equipment must be:
* Fit for purpose
* Appropriate for the task
* Suitably marked
* Subject to statutory periodic ‘thorough examination’

Records of all thorough examinations must be maintained.

74
Q

What does COSHH stand for?

A

Control of Substances Hazardous to Health

COSHH regulations require employers to control substances hazardous to health.

75
Q

What types of substances are covered by COSHH?

A

Substances that can cause:
* Lung diseases
* Dermatitis
* Burns
* Cancers

These can result in significant costs to industry and society.

76
Q

What must employers do under COSHH?

A

Employers must take effective measures to control exposure and protect health.

These measures can also improve production or reduce waste.

77
Q

What is required when a product is ‘dangerous for supply’?

A

The supplier must provide a safety data sheet

An assessment of the task must consider how workers could be exposed to hazards.

78
Q

List the four hazard types in an MSDS.

A
  • Health hazards
  • Fire hazards
  • Reactivity hazards
  • Environmental hazards

Each section of an MSDS contains sub-sections for further information.

79
Q

What is the significance of the MSDS/SDS?

A

They provide essential information for safe supply, handling, and use of chemicals

They are not risk assessments but help employers complete a risk assessment.

80
Q

What is the hierarchy of measures for manual handling according to the Manual Handling Operations Regulations?

A
  • Avoid hazardous manual handling
  • Assess the risk
  • Reduce the risk to as low as reasonably practicable

This guidance helps prevent and manage risks from manual handling.

81
Q

What does the Electricity at Work Regulations 1989 aim to prevent?

A

It aims to prevent death or personal injury from electrical causes

This includes injuries from electric shock, electric burn, and fires of electrical origin.

82
Q

Fill in the blank: The guidance for manual handling emphasizes reducing _______.

A

the amount of twisting, stooping, and reaching.

83
Q

True or False: MSDS must be updated every year.

A

False

MSDS are updated every three years unless significant new data arises.

84
Q

What should be considered when assessing hazardous substances?

A

Considerations include:
* Danger labels
* Production of gas, fumes, dust
* Harmful effects on breathing and skin
* Alternatives and safer methods

This checklist helps in identifying hazardous materials.

85
Q

What is included in the first section of an MSDS?

A

Identification of the substance/mixture and of the company/undertaking

This section provides crucial information about the chemical and its supplier.

86
Q

What should you never do when handling electrical equipment?

A

Never handle or operate electrical equipment with wet hands or feet, or in a wet area.

87
Q

What type of tools should be used instead of electrical power tools when working on aircraft?

A

Pneumatic tools.

88
Q

What is a key safety measure regarding electrical wires and cables?

A

Do not allow electrical wires and cables to dangle over sharp edges.

89
Q

How often should electrical equipment be checked?

A

Regularly, with a serviceable label attached indicating the most recent test date.

90
Q

What type of electrical equipment should be used in hazardous areas?

A

Approved and specially designed explosion proof electrical equipment.

91
Q

What are some potential effects of electric shock?

A
  • Muscular contractions
  • Respiratory failure
  • Fibrillation of the heart
  • Cardiac arrest
  • Injury from internal burns.
92
Q

What should be done before working on aircraft electrical systems?

A

Ensure that external electrical power has been switched off and disconnect the aircraft battery.

93
Q

What is the risk associated with compressed gases?

A

They can explosively decompress and rupture if allowed to escape uncontrolled.

94
Q

What should be done before charging an aircraft system with a compressed gas?

A

Purge the hose on the gas bottles.

95
Q

What is the maximum operating pressure for compressed air in workshops?

A

Approximately 80 psi.

96
Q

True or False: Compressed air can be deadly even at low pressures.

97
Q

What are some risks associated with using compressed air?

A
  • Foreign objects can be injected into the skin
  • Eye injuries can occur
  • Air bubbles can enter the bloodstream
  • Rupture of the esophagus or lungs.
  • Hearing loss from loud noises.
98
Q

What must always be worn when using compressed air?

A

Proper PPE, including safety glasses and hearing protection.

99
Q

What must be avoided to prevent fire hazards when working with oxygen?

A

Avoid oxygen coming into contact with oils and greases.

100
Q

What type of tools should be used on oxygen systems?

A

Oxygen-specific tools.

101
Q

What must be checked before charging breathing oxygen systems on aircraft?

A

Ensure the oxygen is not contaminated.

102
Q

What is required for all oils and chemicals used in maintenance?

A

MSDS or SDS information.

103
Q

What does the GHS safety data sheet include?

A
  • Identification
  • Hazard(s) identification
  • Composition/information on ingredients
  • First-aid measures
  • Fire-fighting measures
  • Accidental Release Measures
  • Handling and storage
  • Exposure control/personal protection
  • Physical and chemical properties
  • Stability and reactivity
  • Toxicological information
  • Ecological information
  • Disposal considerations
  • Transport information
  • Regulatory information
  • Other information.
104
Q

What is the main threat during aircraft fuelling operations?

A

The risk of fire.

105
Q

What must be avoided to prevent static discharge during fuelling?

A

Avoid static discharge in the form of a spark.

106
Q

What defines a confined space?

A

An enclosed space with a risk of death or serious injury from hazardous substances or dangerous conditions.

107
Q

What should be done if entry into a confined space cannot be avoided?

A

Ensure a safe system is available to work inside the space and constantly monitor the environment.

108
Q

What is essential if the air inside a confined space is not safe to breathe?

A

Breathing apparatus.

109
Q

What is the purpose of procedures and guidelines for chemical storage and handling?

A

To prevent leaks and spills and reduce response time in case of an incident

These procedures ensure that any damage from chemical spills is minimized.

110
Q

What should you do first when you become aware of a chemical spill?

A

Alert all personnel in the area to leave immediately

If the spill is severe, begin the evacuation process of the building.

111
Q

True or False: You should remove an injured co-worker from the exposed area immediately, regardless of safety.

A

False

Only remove the injured person if it is safe to do so; otherwise, wait for emergency services.

112
Q

What is the first step in securing the space after a chemical spill?

A

Prevent fire or explosions by turning off ignition and heat sources

This should be done until the spill is contained.

113
Q

What should be done with other substances that can react with the spill?

A

Secure them in a segregated chemical storage area

This helps prevent further reactions and hazards.

114
Q

What protective equipment should be worn before approaching a chemical spill?

A

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

PPE is crucial for safety when dealing with hazardous materials.

115
Q

Fill in the blank: Use absorbent socks and booms to try to _______ the chemical spill.

A

confine

This limits the area affected by the spill.

116
Q

What should you cover to prevent the spilled substance from contaminating water supplies?

A

Drains

This is done using drain seals.

117
Q

After containing the spill, what should be used to soak up the spilled chemical?

A

Absorbent pillows and mats

These materials help in the cleanup process.

118
Q

What should be done with damaged containers after a chemical spill?

A

Place them temporarily on spill decks or spill trays

This helps manage the hazardous waste safely.

119
Q

True or False: You should stop wearing Personal Protective Equipment during cleanup.

A

False

Always wear PPE until the cleanup is complete.

120
Q

What should be done with contaminated materials after a chemical spill cleanup?

A

Put them in a clearly labelled chemical waste container

This ensures proper disposal and safety.

121
Q

What method should be used to clean up powder form chemicals?

A

Sweep carefully or use moist absorbent pads

Alternatively, dampen the powder with a suitable solvent before cleaning.

122
Q

What is the final step in the cleanup process after a chemical spill?

A

Wash away any residue with clean water

This ensures the area is safe and contaminant-free.

123
Q

What are the three essential elements needed for a fire to start?

A

A source of ignition, a source of fuel, and oxygen.

124
Q

What is the purpose of the Dangerous Substances and Explosive Atmospheres Regulations 2002 (DSEAR)?

A

To assess and reduce the risk of fires and explosions from work activities involving dangerous substances.

125
Q

What actions should be taken to prevent a fire in the workplace?

A

Carry out a fire safety risk assessment, keep sources of ignition and flammable substances apart, ensure good housekeeping, install fire detection systems, have fire-fighting equipment available, keep escape routes clear, and provide training.

126
Q

Fill in the blank: Fires can be classified into classes based on their _______.

A

fuel types

127
Q

What are the classifications of fires according to their fuel types?

A
  • Class A: Combustible Solids
  • Class B: Flammable Liquids
  • Class C: Flammable Gases
  • Class D: Metals
  • Class F: Cooking Oils and Fats
128
Q

True or False: Electrical fires are classified as Class E fires.

129
Q

What is the recommended action in the event of a fire on an aircraft?

A

Shut all aircraft systems down, call emergency services, assist injured personnel, remove ground equipment, and provide technical assistance to fire services.

130
Q

What is the main principle of how water extinguishers work?

A

By cooling the fire below its kindling temperature.

131
Q

What type of fires are foam fire extinguishers suitable for?

A

Class A and B fires.

132
Q

Fill in the blank: Wet chemical extinguishers are specifically used for _______ fires.

A

deep fat fryer

133
Q

What are the two forms of Halon used in fire extinguishing?

A
  • Halon 1211
  • Halon 1301
134
Q

What is the main function of carbon dioxide extinguishers?

A

To exclude oxygen from a fire and cool it rapidly.

135
Q

What is saponification in the context of wet chemical extinguishers?

A

A process where the extinguishant reacts with oil to form a soapy substance, cooling and emulsifying burning liquids.

136
Q

What is the significance of the fire triangle?

A

It illustrates the three elements needed to sustain a fire: ignition, fuel, and oxygen.

137
Q

What should be done if flammable liquids are used in the workplace?

A

Keep them in an approved store outside the hangar or workshop.

138
Q

True or False: The use of water on a Class D fire is safe and effective.

139
Q

What is a Mandatory Occurrence Report (MOR)?

A

A report detailing what happened and the extent of damage after an abnormal event on an aircraft or engine.

140
Q

What is the role of supplier safety data sheets in fire safety?

A

To provide information about which substances might be flammable.

141
Q

What should be regularly reviewed and updated to ensure fire safety?

A

The fire safety risk assessment.

142
Q

What is the main use of Halon in aviation?

A

To extinguish fires in aircraft cabins.

143
Q

Fill in the blank: Dry powder extinguishers are also known as _______ extinguishers.

144
Q

What is the primary risk associated with using dry powder extinguishers in enclosed spaces?

A

The powder can be easily inhaled and is difficult to clean up.

145
Q

What actions should be taken to maintain good housekeeping in fire safety?

A

Avoid build-up of rubbish, dust, or grease that could start a fire.