7.14 Material Handling Flashcards

1
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the base measurement in sheet metal forming?

A

The outside dimension of a formed part

The base measurement is given on the engineering drawing or obtained from the original part.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does ‘leg’ refer to in the context of a formed angle?

A

The longer part of a formed angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define ‘flange’ in sheet metal forming.

A

The shorter part of a formed angle, opposite to the leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is meant by ‘bend allowance’ (BA)?

A

The curved section of the bend, considered as the length of the curved portion of the neutral line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

True or False: The bend radius (BR) is measured from the inside surface of the metal.

A

False

The bend radius is measured from a radius centre to the inside surface of the metal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the neutral axis in metal bending?

A

An imaginary line that has the same length after bending as before bending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does K-Factor represent?

A

The percentage of the material thickness where there is no stretching or compressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fill in the blank: The distance the jaws of a folder must be set back from the mould line to form a bend is known as _______.

A

[setback (SB)]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a ‘mould point’?

A

The point of intersection of the mould lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Total Developed Width (TDW)?

A

The width of material measured around the bends from edge to edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the significance of the K-factor in bending operations?

A

It must be used for all bends that are smaller or larger than 90°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is the K-factor calculated for bends other than 90°?

A

K-factor = tangent of half the bend angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What must be used for marking out flat pattern developments on aircraft sheet metal?

A

Authorised soft markers and pencils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why should engineer’s scribers not be used for marking out flat patterns?

A

They can cause stress raisers and are not always authorised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the purpose of creating a flat pattern in sheet metal forming?

A

To show how much material is required and to prevent material waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What factors should be considered when forming a straight line bend?

A
  • Thickness of the material
  • Alloy composition of the material
  • Material’s temper (hardness)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the minimum bend radius?

A

The smallest radius without weakening the metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

True or False: The radius of a bend is measured on the outside of the curved material.

A

False

The radius of the bend is measured on the inside of the curved material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the effect of a radius that is too sharp during bending?

A

It can crack the material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is the setback (SB) calculated for a bend?

A

SB = Radius (R) + Thickness (MT)

The K-factor is multiplied by the sum of the radius and thickness to find the setback.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens to the bend area after bending?

A

It becomes 10 - 15% thinner than before bending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the significance of bend lines in flat pattern development?

A

They must be determined to develop a flat pattern for sheet metal forming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the bend allowance in metalworking?

A

The length of material required for the bend.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What factors does the bend allowance rely on?

A
  • Degree of bend
  • Radius of the bend
  • Thickness of the metal
  • Type of material used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does the radius of the bend relate to the thickness of the material?

A

The radius of the bend is normally proportional to the thickness of the material being bent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens to the material when bending a piece of metal?

A

Material on the inside of the radius is compressed, while material on the outside is stretched.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the neutral axis in bending?

A

A space that is not affected by either force, occurring at approximately 0.445 times the metal thickness from the inside of the radius.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the formula to calculate the bend allowance for a 90° bend?

A

Circumference of the neutral line divided by 4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Calculate the bend allowance for a 90° bend with a radius of 0.250 in and thickness of 0.051 in.

A

0.43 in (10.92 mm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the formula for calculating bend allowance for angles other than 90°?

A

R = desired bend radius, MT = thickness of the metal, N = number of degrees of bend (1° to 180°).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does a bend allowance chart provide?

A

Bend allowances for various angles, radii of bends, and material thicknesses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the setback in metalworking?

A

The distance that must be accounted for when calculating the flat dimensions of a metal piece.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the formula to find the setback?

A

SB = setback, K = K-factor, R = inside radius of the bend, MT = material thickness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do you calculate the flat line dimension?

A

Flat = Mould Line Dimension (MLD) – Setback (SB).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the purpose of the bend sight line?

A

To ensure the bend is formed accurately within the bend allowance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

True or False: The upper number in each cell of a bend allowance chart is for a 90° bend.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Fill in the blank: The neutral axis occurs at a distance of approximately ______ times the metal thickness from the inside of the radius.

A

0.445

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What should be done to avoid incorrect positioning during bending?

A

Align the sightline with the outer extremity of the radius bar before forming.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What must be added to the overall length of the layout pattern to ensure adequate material for the bend?

A

The length of the neutral axis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the developed length in metalworking?

A

The total length of flat portions and bend allowances combined.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the process of shaping sheet metal called?

A

Forming

Forming involves altering the shape of the material, which can be simple or complex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the two methods of forming by altering the shape of sheet metal?

A

Stretching & Shrinking

These methods change the contour of the material to achieve the desired shape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the most easily formed metal used in aircraft construction?

A

Pure aluminium

The ease of forming aluminium alloys depends on their temper condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is required for extensive forming or making complex curves in sheet metal?

A

Annealing

Annealing makes the metal easier to form and allows for smaller bend radii.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the role of a sheet metal folding machine in bending?

A

To make straight bends

When unavailable, short sections can be bent by hand using bending blocks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What must be consulted to determine the minimum bend radius for sheet metal?

A

Structural Repair Manual (SRM)

It contains tables listing the smallest allowable radius for different thicknesses and tempers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the importance of adjusting the clamping pressure when using a sheet metal folder?

A

To ensure the material is clamped securely

Proper clamping prevents slippage while bending.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Fill in the blank: The process of bending metal that protrudes beyond the bending block is done by tapping it lightly with a _______.

A

rubber or plastic mallet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the preferred method for curving an extruded or formed angle section?

A

Stretching

Stretching requires a V-block and a mallet for effective shaping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a joggle in sheet metal working?

A

An offset at the intersection of a stringer or former

It allows clearance for another part while maintaining a smooth surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the general rule of thumb for calculating the allowance of a joggle?

A

Four times the material thickness

For 90° angles, a slightly greater allowance is needed due to stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What method can be used to form a joggle on a flat piece of metal?

A

Using a normal folding machine (cornice brake)

The joggle is formed by bending the metal at specified angles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

True or False: Excessive hammering during the stretching process can cause the metal to harden.

A

True

Excessive hammering induces stresses and strains in the metal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What type of blocks are used for forming curved flanged parts?

A

Hardwood or metal forming blocks

These blocks are made in pairs and designed specifically for the part’s shape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What method can be used to reduce a curve that has been formed too much?

A

Reversing the angle strip on the V-block

Light blows of the hammer can help adjust the curve back to the desired shape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the purpose of using a soft-faced mallet in the shrinking process?

A

To prevent buckling and damage to the metal

It helps in gradually working out buckles without harming the material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What must be done after forming a flanged angle by shrinking?

A

Planishing against the form block

This step smooths out the flange and removes small irregularities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What materials can be used to make forming blocks or dies for joggling?

A

Hardwood, steel, aluminium alloy

Each material has its specific use case depending on the frequency of use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the procedure for forming a joggle using joggle blocks?

A

Place the part between the joggle blocks and squeeze in a vice

This process creates the necessary joggle in the material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What should be done after the joggle is formed with joggle blocks?

A

Turn the joggle blocks over and flatten the bulge with a wooden mallet

This ensures that the opposite flange is smoothed out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When are hardwood dies considered satisfactory for joggling?

A

When the die is to be used only a few times

Hardwood dies are less durable than steel or aluminium alloy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the advantages of using aluminium alloy dies for joggling?

A

Easier to fabricate, cause less surface damage to aluminium

Aluminium alloy dies are preferred for producing a large number of joggles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What should be done when using joggling dies for the first time?

A

Test them for accuracy on a test piece

This ensures that the dies will produce the correct dimensions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is important to maintain on the surfaces of joggle blocks?

A

Keep them free from dirt and filings

This prevents damage to the work surface during the joggling process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is an alternative method for producing a simple joggle in thin aluminium alloy?

A

Use a joggle plate

A joggle plate can simplify the joggling process for thin materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What must the thickness of the joggle plate represent?

A

The depth of the joggle required

This ensures that the joggle is formed accurately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

According to the four times the material thickness rule, what is the allowance for joggling?

A

Four times the material thickness

This rule helps in determining the correct dimensions for the joggle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How is the metal joggled using a joggle plate?

A

Joggled between the slots of the joggle plate and hit with a mallet on a hard surface

This method creates the joggle efficiently.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What should you consider during a visual inspection of sheet metal work for damage?

A

Consider the impact from foreign objects and how far the damage extends into supporting structural members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is necessary when inspecting aircraft structures for damage?

A

A close inspection of all rivets, bolts, and attaching structures along the complete member for evidence of damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What must be periodically inspected in an aircraft structure?

A

Structural integrity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Where is corrosion most likely to occur in an aircraft structure?

A

In areas where moisture and salt spray can accumulate, especially in corners.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What indicates a loose rivet during inspection?

A

A dark, greasy residue or deterioration of paint around the rivet head, often called a ‘smoking rivet’.

75
Q

What visual signs indicate warped or buckled wings?

A

Presence of parallel skin wrinkles running diagonally across the wings.

76
Q

What must be done to aluminium alloy surfaces with a chipped protective coating?

A

They must be recoated to prevent the formation of corrosion.

77
Q

What are two Non-Destructive Testing (NDT) methods used for inspecting structural members?

A

Eddy current and ultrasonic inspection techniques.

78
Q

Define burnishing in the context of aircraft parts.

A

Polishing of one surface by sliding contact with a smooth and harder surface, usually without displacement of metal.

79
Q

What is the definition of corrosion?

A

Loss of metal from the surface by chemical or electrochemical action.

80
Q

What does a crack in metal indicate?

A

A physical separation of two adjacent portions of metal caused by excessive stress.

81
Q

What is a dent?

A

Indentation in a metal surface produced by an object striking with force.

82
Q

What is the result of erosion on a metal surface?

A

Loss of metal from the surface by mechanical action of foreign objects.

83
Q

What does chattering refer to?

A

Breakdown or deterioration of metal surface by vibratory or chattering action.

84
Q

What does a gouge indicate on a metal surface?

A

Indicates metal loss or displacement of material due to contact with foreign material under heavy pressure.

85
Q

What is pitting in the context of metal surfaces?

A

Sharp, localized breakdown of metal surface, usually with defined edges.

86
Q

How should riveted joints be inspected?

A

Examine both the shop and manufactured heads, the surrounding skin, and structural parts for deformities.

87
Q

What should be done if rivets show head slippage?

A

They must be replaced.

88
Q

What does the presence of black residue around rivets indicate?

A

Indicates movement (fretting), not necessarily looseness.

89
Q

What are the acceptable conditions for rivet head cracks?

A

Depth < 0.32 cm, width < 0.16 cm, and confined to a specific area.

90
Q

What is the significance of keeping drain holes clean in aircraft structures?

A

Prevents moisture accumulation and potential corrosion.

91
Q

Fill in the blank: A _______ is a groove in or breakdown of a metal surface from contact with foreign material under heavy pressure.

92
Q

True or False: A loose rivet will always overload adjacent rivets to the point of cracking.

93
Q

What is the primary purpose of bonding in the aerospace industry?

A

To form permanent joints between materials such as composites, fabrics, metals, and plastics.

94
Q

What factors determine the type of adhesive used in bonding?

A

Surface texture of adherent, type of joint required, and manner of load application.

95
Q

What are adhesives primarily made of?

A

Synthetic resins.

96
Q

True or False: Most bonding is performed during the manufacturing stage.

97
Q

What should be ensured when working with adhesives and sealants?

A

Proper ventilation or a Local Exhaust Ventilation (LEV) system.

98
Q

What are the advantages of bonded repairs compared to bolted repairs?

A

They do not add stresses to the structure by drilling fastener holes.

99
Q

What is a disadvantage of bonded repairs?

A

They require special storage, handling, and curing procedures.

100
Q

Bolted repairs are typically used on composite skins thicker than ______.

A

6 mm (0.125 in).

101
Q

What type of repair is most effective for honeycomb sandwich parts?

A

Bonded scarf (tapered) type repair.

102
Q

How many basic types of composite repairs are there?

103
Q

List the types of composite repairs.

A
  • Bolted metal or pre-cured composite patches
  • Bonded metal or pre-cured composite patches
  • Resin injection
  • Laminating new repair plies through one surface
  • Laminating new repair plies through both surfaces
104
Q

What is the best type of permanent repair to a composite structure?

A

Laminating new repair plies in the damaged area.

105
Q

What tools are best suited for cutting prepreg and dry fabrics?

A

Heavy-duty scissors.

106
Q

What type of power tools are recommended for working with composite materials?

A

Pneumatic power tools.

107
Q

What is a caul plate used for during the curing process?

A

To support the composite structure/panel.

108
Q

What is the purpose of vacuum bagging in composite repairs?

A

To create a secure bond by removing air from the bag.

109
Q

What is the role of release agents in composite repairs?

A

To allow the part to come off the tool or caul plate easily after curing.

110
Q

What does a bleeder ply do in the vacuum bagging process?

A

Creates a path for air to escape and collects excess resin.

111
Q

Fill in the blank: A _______ is used to seal the vacuum bag to the component and create an air-tight seal.

A

Vacuum bag sealing tape.

112
Q

What is the purpose of a vacuum pump in composite repairs?

A

To remove air from the vacuum bag and create pressure on the plies.

113
Q

What is the typical cure temperature range for ovens used in composite repairs?

A

120 °C (250 ˚F) to 175 °C (350 °F).

114
Q

What is an autoclave used for in composite repairs?

A

To control pressure and heat during the curing process.

115
Q

What type of heating methods are typically used for aircraft repairs?

A
  • Electrical resistance heat blankets
  • Infrared heat lamps
116
Q

What is the function of thermocouples in the composite repair process?

A

To accurately measure temperatures.

117
Q

What are the two types of thermocouples mentioned?

A

Type J and Type K.

118
Q

What is the disadvantage of using room temperature wet lay ups?

A

They do not restore the strength and durability of the original structure.

119
Q

Prepreg materials must be stored in a freezer below ______.

A

-18 °C (-0.4 °F).

120
Q

What is the purpose of the backing on prepreg materials?

A

To prevent the prepreg from sticking together.

121
Q

What is the maximum time allowed for storing a prepreg at low temperature called?

A

Storage life

Storage life is typically between six months to a year.

122
Q

What is the maximum time allowed for a material to be at room temperature before it cures called?

A

Mechanical life

The handling life is shorter than the mechanical life.

123
Q

What is the recommended time at room temperature to complete the lay-up process called?

A

Handling life

124
Q

At what temperatures do prepregs typically cure?

A

120 °C (248 °F) and 200 °C (392 °F)

125
Q

True or False: Prepreg materials should be stored in sealed, moisture-proof bags.

126
Q

What overlap is generally recommended for prepreg repair plies?

A

1/2” (12.5mm)

127
Q

What are the two lay-up methods for repairing materials?

A
  • Use the largest ply first
  • Use the smallest ply first and build up sizes
128
Q

What is the high strength direction of a fabric called?

129
Q

What is a warp clock used for?

A

To describe the direction of the fibres on a diagram or manufacturer’s sheets

130
Q

What is the typical curing temperature range for composite materials?

A

120 °C ‑ 175 °C (248 °F ‑ 347 °F)

131
Q

What is the disadvantage of a room temperature cure wet lay-up repair?

A

It does not fully restore the strength or durability of the original cured components.

132
Q

What type of repair meets the strength requirements but is limited by time or flight cycles?

A

Temporary repair

133
Q

What is the damage classification that restores the required strength but not the durability?

A

Interim repair

134
Q

What type of repair restores both strength and durability?

A

Permanent repair

135
Q

What is minor core damage in a sandwich honeycomb structure?

A

Damage smaller than 12 mm (0.5 in) in diameter

136
Q

What is a potted repair?

A

A repair involving filling minor core damage with a recommended potting compound.

137
Q

What must be done to remove water from the damaged area before repair?

A

All traces of water need to be removed from the core.

138
Q

What tool is used to taper or step sand a uniform taper around cleaned-up damage?

A

Flexible disc sander

139
Q

What must be done to the core before it can be successfully repaired?

A

Remove any traces of water

140
Q

What is the purpose of vacuum bagging in the repair process?

A

To remove air and to pressurize the repair for curing.

141
Q

What must be inspected after curing a repair?

A

The repair must be free from pits, blisters, resin-rich and resin-starved areas.

142
Q

What type of inspection methods are used for post-repair inspection?

A
  • Visual inspection
  • Tap inspection
  • Ultrasonic inspection
143
Q

Fill in the blank: The engineer is responsible for recording the time in and out of the freezer for _______.

A

[mechanical life]

144
Q

What must be done to the edges of the damaged area before applying the repair?

A

Taper or step sand the edges

145
Q

What is the typical maximum properties curing temperature for composite repairs?

A

65 °C (149 °F)

146
Q

What should be done if the resin system is not fully mixed?

A

The resin cannot cure properly.

147
Q

True or False: Mixing large quantities of quick curing resins is recommended.

148
Q

What must be kept clean for successful adhesion in bonded areas?

A

Bonded areas

Clean surfaces are crucial for the integrity of the bond.

149
Q

What is the purpose of peel ply in composite bonding?

A

Ensures surface cleanliness prior to bonding

Peel ply creates a pristine surface when stripped away.

150
Q

What effect do high resin peaks from peel ply weave have?

A

They can create cracks in the bond line

Light sanding can remove these peaks.

151
Q

What temperature conditions are preferred for bonded repairs with composite materials?

A

Elevated temperatures

Higher quality bonds are produced at elevated temperatures.

152
Q

What methods can be used to increase temperature during aircraft repairs?

A

Heat bonder, heat lamps, hot air, heat blankets

These methods help maintain the correct temperature during curing.

153
Q

What is vacuum bagging used for in composite repairs?

A

To remove air from the plies of a repair layup

Pressure can also be applied if required.

154
Q

What is the effect of typical aircraft fuels on cured epoxy resin?

A

Little to no effect

However, they can saturate porous core materials.

155
Q

Which hydraulic fluids can attack cured epoxy?

A

Some Skydrol™ brand hydraulic fluids

These are primarily used in civilian aircraft.

156
Q

Do de-icing/anti-icing fluids affect composite structures?

A

No known effects

They do not harm composite materials.

157
Q

What can strong acids do to cured epoxy?

A

Attack and destroy it

Weaker acids do not have this effect.

158
Q

What effect do weaker alkalis have on cured epoxies?

A

No attack on cured epoxies

However, they can attack some structural foams.

159
Q

Which solvent is known to chemically attack cured epoxy resin?

A

Methylene Chloride

It cannot be used on composites.

160
Q

Why can’t chemical paint strippers be used on composites?

A

They are largely based on methylene chloride

This can harm composite materials.

161
Q

What is required for aircraft to prevent arcing or fiber damage during lightning strikes?

A

Electrical contact between metallic and composite parts

This allows for dissipation of electrical energy.

162
Q

How does lightning travel through an aluminum skin aircraft?

A

Flows through the skin and discharges out the static wicks

Composites do not conduct electricity.

163
Q

What must be built into composite components for lightning protection?

A

A conductive path

Resins can evaporate if not protected.

164
Q

What are some methods for electrical bonding in composite structures?

A

Aluminium wires, fine aluminium screens, thin aluminium foil, flame-sprayed aluminium, bonded metal pieces

Each method serves to help dissipate electrical charge.

165
Q

What must be performed after repairs to composite lightning protection methods?

A

An electrical continuity check

This verifies conductivity between the repair and surrounding mesh/wires.

166
Q

What is the primary purpose of performing inspections on composite repairs?

A

To ensure the repair has been correctly executed and to document the results.

Inspections are carried out by an engineer after vacuum bagging materials are removed, followed by a supervisor/certifier inspection.

167
Q

What are the common conditions recognized during post-repair inspections?

A
  • Resin dry portions of the repair (porosity)
  • Resin rich areas of the repair
  • Delamination
  • Debonding
  • Foreign object inclusion
  • Evidence of overheating
  • Evidence of undercure

Inspecting the area surrounding the repair is also necessary for debonding and overheating evidence.

168
Q

What is required if defects are found during the inspection process?

A

A standard damage assessment must be carried out and component-allowable damage limits must be applied.

169
Q

What is documented during non-destructive inspections?

A

Results are recorded in a written report attached to repair documentation as evidence for certification and release to service.

170
Q

What are some commonly used non-destructive inspection (NDI) techniques for composite structures?

A
  • Tap testing
  • Visual or optical inspection
  • Bond tester or resonator
  • Thermography and shearography
  • Holography
  • Acoustic emission
  • Ultrasonics
  • Radiography

Ultrasonics and radiography are the most commonly used methods.

171
Q

What is tap testing used for?

A

To quickly evaluate accessible aircraft composite or bonded surfaces for delamination or debonding.

172
Q

What are the three commonly used tap testing methods?

A
  • Coin tap test
  • Instrumented tap test (woodpecker)
  • Tap test with a light hammer
173
Q

True or False: Tap testing can effectively detect delamination in laminate materials.

A

False

Tap testing is not recommended for laminate materials due to their rigidity.

174
Q

What tools are commonly used to aid visual inspection?

A
  • 10 times magnification
  • Borescopes
  • Mirrors
175
Q

What does visual inspection of a laminate typically detect?

A

Resin starvation appearing as porosity on the surface.

176
Q

What is shearography used for?

A

Rapid assessment of flaws in surfaces of composite structures.

177
Q

How does ultrasonic inspection work?

A

Ultrasonic waves travel through solids and liquids, with their attenuation revealing internal defects.

178
Q

What is the main benefit of using X-ray inspection for composite structures?

A

No disassembly or removal of surface coatings is required.

179
Q

What is produced by the passage of X-rays through a test object onto film?

A

A radiograph.

180
Q

What do darker regions on a radiograph represent?

A

More penetrable parts of the test specimen.

181
Q

Fill in the blank: The acoustic response from a bonded part during tap testing produces a clear _______.

A

audible ring

182
Q

What is the risk associated with exposure to high levels of X-rays and gamma rays?

A

It is hazardous and can ultimately be fatal.

183
Q

What influences the speed of ultrasonic waves?

A

The density and elasticity of the medium.