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ANP 1106 > 7 > Flashcards

7 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different types of bone cells?

A

Osteoprogenitor cells: stem cells that give rise to osteoblasts
Osteoblasts: bone-forming cells that synthesize and secrete collagen fibers and other organic components of bone matrix
Osteocytes: mature bone cells that maintain the bone tissue
Osteoclasts: bone-dissolving cells that break down bone tissue and release minerals into the blood

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2
Q

What is the composition of bone matrix?

A

Organic components: collagen fibers and other proteins that provide flexibility and tensile strength
Inorganic components: hydroxyapatite crystals made of calcium phosphate that provide hardness and compressional strength

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3
Q

What are the two types of bone tissue?

A

Compact bone: dense and solid, found in the diaphysis of long bones and on the outer surface of all bones
Spongy (cancellous) bone: porous and filled with red bone marrow, found in the epiphysis of long bones and the interior of all other bones

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4
Q

What are the different types of bone fractures?

A

Closed (simple) fracture: the bone is broken but does not penetrate the skin
Open (compound) fracture: the bone is broken and penetrates the skin
Comminuted fracture: the bone is shattered into multiple pieces
Greenstick fracture: the bone is bent and only partially broken
Spiral fracture: the bone is twisted, resulting in a ragged break
Depressed fracture: the bone is crushed inward, usually in the skull

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5
Q

What are the steps of bone repair?

A

Hematoma formation: blood vessels in the bone and surrounding tissue break, forming a blood clot (hematoma)
Fibrocartilaginous callus formation: fibroblasts and chondroblasts migrate to the fracture site and produce a fibrocartilage callus to bridge the broken ends of the bone
Bony callus formation: osteoblasts secrete a bony collar around the fibrocartilage callus, creating a hard callus
Bone remodeling: excess bone tissue is removed and compact bone replaces spongy bone, restoring the original shape and strength of the bone

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6
Q

What factors affect bone growth and remodeling?

A

Nutrition: calcium, vitamin D, and other nutrients are essential for bone growth and remodeling
Hormones: growth hormone, thyroid hormone, sex hormones, and parathyroid hormone all play important roles in bone growth and remodeling
Physical stress: weight-bearing exercise and mechanical stress stimulate bone growth and remodeling
Aging: bone mass and strength decrease with age, particularly in women after menopause

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7
Q

What are the three general classes of joints based on their structure?

A

Fibrous joints
Cartilaginous joints
Synovial joints

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8
Q

What is a synarthrosis joint?

A

A synarthrosis joint is an immovable joint. It is typically composed of fibrous tissue and is found where bones have grown together to form sutures.

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9
Q

What is an amphiarthrosis joint?

A

An amphiarthrosis joint is a slightly movable joint. It is typically composed of cartilage and is found in joints that provide some movement but offer more stability than mobility.

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10
Q

What is a diarthrosis joint?

A

A diarthrosis joint is a freely movable joint. It is typically composed of synovial tissue and includes most joints of the body.

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11
Q

What is a synovial joint?

A

A synovial joint is a joint in which the articulating bones are separated by a fluid-filled joint cavity. It is the most common type of joint in the body and provides the greatest range of motion.

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12
Q

What are the six types of synovial joints?

A

Plane joint
Hinge joint
Pivot joint
Condylar joint
Saddle joint
Ball-and-socket joint

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13
Q

What are the functions of synovial fluid?

A

Lubrication of joint surfaces
Nutrient distribution to cartilage
Shock absorption

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14
Q

What is the role of bursae and tendon sheaths in synovial joints?

A

Bursae and tendon sheaths are synovial membrane-lined structures that cushion or protect tendons as they pass over bony prominences or between muscles.

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15
Q

What are the three main types of joint movements?

A

Angular movements (flexion, extension, abduction, adduction)
Rotation (medial rotation, lateral rotation)
Special movements (elevation, depression, protraction, retraction, inversion, eversion, dorsiflexion, plantar flexion)

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16
Q

What is the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic ligaments?

A

Intrinsic ligaments are located within the joint capsule and are part of the joint itself. Extrinsic ligaments are located outside of the joint capsule and connect bones to each other.

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17
Q

What is the axial skeleton?

A

The axial skeleton is the portion of the skeleton that consists of the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage.

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18
Q

What is the appendicular skeleton?

A

The appendicular skeleton is the portion of the skeleton that consists of the upper and lower limbs, the shoulder girdle, and the hip girdle.

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19
Q

What are the functions of the skeletal system?

A

The functions of the skeletal system include support, protection, movement, storage of minerals and fat, and blood cell production.

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20
Q

What are the different types of bones?

A

The different types of bones include long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, and sesamoid bones.

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21
Q

What are the parts of a long bone?

A

The parts of a long bone include the diaphysis, epiphyses, articular cartilage, periosteum, medullary cavity, and endosteum.

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22
Q

What is the diaphysis?

A

The diaphysis is the shaft or long, cylindrical part of a long bone.

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23
Q

What are the epiphyses?

A

The epiphyses are the rounded ends of a long bone that articulate with other bones.

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24
Q

What is articular cartilage?

A

Articular cartilage is a layer of hyaline cartilage that covers the articular surface of bones.

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25
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

The periosteum is a dense layer of connective tissue that covers the outer surface of bones.

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26
Q

What is the medullary cavity?

A

The medullary cavity is a hollow cavity within the diaphysis that contains bone marrow.

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27
Q

What is the endosteum?

A

The endosteum is a thin layer of connective tissue that lines the medullary cavity and the spaces within spongy bone.

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28
Q

What is ossification?

A

Ossification is the process of bone formation, which involves the deposition of calcium salts and other minerals onto a collagenous matrix.

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29
Q

What are the two types of ossification?

A

The two types of ossification are intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification.

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30
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

Intramembranous ossification is the process of bone formation that occurs directly within a membrane of connective tissue.

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31
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

Endochondral ossification is the process of bone formation that occurs within a cartilage model.

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32
Q

What is bone tissue composed of?

A

Bone tissue is composed of cells, extracellular matrix, and mineral salts.

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33
Q

What are the cells in bone tissue?

A

The cells in bone tissue include osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts.

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34
Q

What is the extracellular matrix in bone tissue composed of?

A

The extracellular matrix in bone tissue is composed of collagen fibers and ground substance, which includes proteoglycans and glycoproteins.

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35
Q

What is the function of osteoblasts?

A

Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells that produce and secrete collagen fibers and ground substance, which eventually become mineralized to form bone tissue.

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36
Q

What is the function of osteocytes?

A

Osteocytes are mature bone cells that maintain bone tissue by exchanging nutrients and waste products with blood vessels.

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37
Q

What is the function of osteoclasts?

A

Osteoclasts are large, multinucleated cells that break down and reabsorb bone tissue, releasing calcium and other minerals into the bloodstream.

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38
Q

What is the process of bone remodelling?

A

Bone remodelling is the continuous process of bone resorption by osteoclasts followed by bone deposition by osteoblasts.

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39
Q

What hormones regulate bone remodelling?

A

Hormones such as parathyroid hormone and calcitonin regulate bone remodeling by regulating the activity of osteoclasts and osteoblasts.

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40
Q

What is the importance of calcium in bone tissue?

A

Calcium is an important mineral component of bone tissue that provides strength and rigidity.

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41
Q

How does exercise affect bone tissue?

A

Exercise stimulates bone tissue to become stronger and denser by increasing the activity of osteoblasts and enhancing bone remodeling.

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42
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating and regulating motor movements, including posture, balance, and coordination.

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43
Q

What is ataxia?

A

Ataxia is a condition characterized by uncoordinated and jerky movements, often caused by damage to the cerebellum.

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44
Q

What is the function of the brainstem?

A

The brainstem is responsible for regulating vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure.

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45
Q

What is the reticular formation?

A

The reticular formation is a network of neurons in the brainstem that plays a key role in regulating consciousness, sleep, and arousal.

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46
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

The thalamus acts as a relay center for sensory information, relaying information to the appropriate area of the cerebral cortex.

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47
Q

What is the limbic system?

A

The limbic system is a group of structures in the brain involved in emotion, motivation, and memory.

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48
Q

What is the hippocampus?

A

The hippocampus is a structure in the limbic system that plays a key role in the formation and consolidation of new memories.

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49
Q

What is the amygdala?

A

The amygdala is a structure in the limbic system involved in the processing of emotions, particularly fear.

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50
Q

What is the hypothalamus?

A

The hypothalamus is a structure in the brain responsible for regulating homeostasis, including body temperature, hunger, thirst, and hormone release.

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51
Q

What is the blood-brain barrier?

A

The blood-brain barrier is a specialized system of cells and proteins that prevents many substances from entering the brain, protecting the brain from harmful substances and maintaining a stable internal environment.

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52
Q

What is the function of the parathyroid hormone?

A

The parathyroid hormone (PTH) regulates blood calcium levels by increasing the activity of osteoclasts, promoting the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys, and stimulating the production of vitamin D in the kidneys.

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53
Q

What is hypoparathyroidism?

A

Hypoparathyroidism is a condition in which the parathyroid glands produce too little PTH, resulting in low blood calcium levels.

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54
Q

What is hyperparathyroidism?

A

Hyperparathyroidism is a condition in which the parathyroid glands produce too much PTH, resulting in high blood calcium levels.

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55
Q

What are the symptoms of hypoparathyroidism?

A

Symptoms of hypoparathyroidism may include muscle cramps, twitching, and spasms, as well as numbness and tingling in the fingers, toes, and lips. Severe cases may also lead to seizures, convulsions, and respiratory failure.

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56
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperparathyroidism?

A

Symptoms of hyperparathyroidism may include fatigue, weakness, nausea, constipation, and increased thirst and urination. Over time, high blood calcium levels can also lead to bone loss, kidney stones, and heart and brain damage.

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57
Q

How is hypoparathyroidism treated?

A

Hypoparathyroidism is typically treated with calcium and vitamin D supplements to raise blood calcium levels, as well as medication to reduce phosphate levels in the blood.

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58
Q

How is hyperparathyroidism treated?

A

Treatment for hyperparathyroidism depends on the cause and severity of the condition, but may include surgical removal of the parathyroid glands, medication to lower blood calcium levels, and dietary changes to reduce calcium intake.

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59
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Osteoporosis is a condition in which bone density and strength decrease, making bones fragile and more likely to fracture. It is often associated with aging, but can also result from hormonal imbalances or medication use.

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60
Q

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A

Risk factors for osteoporosis include age, gender (women are at higher risk), family history, low body weight or BMI, lack of exercise, smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and certain medical conditions or medication use.

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61
Q

How is osteoporosis treated?

A

Treatment for osteoporosis typically involves lifestyle changes such as exercise and diet modifications, as well as medication to slow or prevent bone loss and promote bone growth.

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62
Q

What is the function of the pineal gland?

A

The pineal gland secretes melatonin, which helps regulate circadian rhythms.

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63
Q

What is the location of the pineal gland?

A

The pineal gland is a small endocrine gland located in the epithalamus of the brain.

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64
Q

What is the function of melatonin?

A

Melatonin helps regulate circadian rhythms, including sleep-wake cycles, and has also been implicated in other physiological processes such as immune function and aging.

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65
Q

What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands?

A

Endocrine glands secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream, while exocrine glands secrete their products through ducts onto body surfaces or into body cavities.

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66
Q

Name three types of stimuli that can activate endocrine glands.

A

Endocrine glands can be activated by a variety of stimuli, including hormonal, neural, and humoral stimuli.

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67
Q

What is a tropic hormone?

A

A tropic hormone is a hormone that stimulates the secretion of another hormone by a target endocrine gland.

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68
Q

What is the role of the hypothalamus in the endocrine system?

A

The hypothalamus produces and secretes several hormones that regulate the secretion of hormones from the pituitary gland, as well as controlling other endocrine functions such as the release of hormones from the adrenal gland.

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69
Q

What is the function of the thyroid gland?

A

The thyroid gland produces hormones that regulate metabolic rate and protein synthesis, as well as playing a role in growth and development.

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70
Q

What is the location of the thyroid gland?

A

The thyroid gland is located in the neck, just below the larynx and anterior to the trachea.

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71
Q

What is the role of calcitonin?

A

Calcitonin is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland that helps regulate calcium levels in the blood by promoting the uptake of calcium into bones.

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72
Q

What is the function of the respiratory system?

A

The respiratory system’s primary function is to supply oxygen to the body’s cells while removing carbon dioxide.

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73
Q

What are the three processes of respiration?

A

Pulmonary ventilation (breathing), external respiration (exchange of gases between lungs and blood), and internal respiration (exchange of gases between blood and body tissues).

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74
Q

What is the difference between the conducting zone and respiratory zone of the respiratory system?

A

The conducting zone includes the nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles, and its function is to filter, warm, and moisten incoming air while conducting it to the respiratory zone. The respiratory zone includes the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli, where gas exchange occurs.

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75
Q

What is the role of mucus in the respiratory system?

A

Mucus traps debris and pathogens in the respiratory system, preventing them from entering the lungs.

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76
Q

What are the two types of cells found in the alveoli?

A

Type I alveolar cells, which make up the wall of the alveoli, and type II alveolar cells, which secrete surfactant to prevent the alveoli from collapsing.

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77
Q

How is oxygen transported in the blood?

A

Oxygen binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells and is transported to the body’s tissues.

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78
Q

How is carbon dioxide transported in the blood?

A

Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in three ways: dissolved in plasma, bound to hemoglobin, or as bicarbonate ions.

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79
Q

What is the role of the respiratory centers in the brain?

A

The respiratory centers in the brain regulate the rate and depth of breathing to maintain homeostasis of blood gases, primarily carbon dioxide.

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80
Q

What is the function of the cochlea?

A

The cochlea is responsible for hearing.

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81
Q

What is the function of the semicircular canals?

A

The semicircular canals are responsible for balance.

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82
Q

What is the difference between static and dynamic equilibrium?

A

Static equilibrium is when the head and body are still, while dynamic equilibrium is when the head and body are in motion.

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83
Q

What is the role of the maculae in the vestibule?

A

The maculae are responsible for detecting changes in the position of the head.

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84
Q

What are the three layers of the eye?

A

The three layers of the eye are the outer fibrous layer, the middle vascular layer, and the inner neural layer.

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85
Q

What is the function of the rods and cones in the retina?

A

Rods are responsible for vision in dim light, while cones are responsible for color vision and visual acuity.

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86
Q

What is the function of the iris?

A

The iris regulates the amount of light entering the eye.

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87
Q

What is the function of the lens?

A

The lens refracts and focuses light onto the retina.

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88
Q

What is the role of the ciliary muscle in the eye?

A

The ciliary muscle adjusts the shape of the lens to help focus light onto the retina.

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89
Q

What is the blind spot in the eye?

A

The blind spot is the area of the retina where the optic nerve exits the eye and there are no photoreceptors.

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90
Q

What is the skull and how many bones does it consist of?

A

The skull is the body’s most complex bony structure, which is formed by cranial and facial bones, 22 in all.

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91
Q

Describe the functions of the cranial bones

A

The cranial bones enclose and protect the brain
They provide attachment sites for head and neck muscles

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92
Q

List the 8 cranial bones

A

Frontal bone
Parietal bones (2)
Temporal bones (2)
Occipital bone
Sphenoid bone
Ethmoid bone

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93
Q

List the 14 facial bones

A

Nasal bones (2)
Maxillae (2)
Zygomatic bones (2)
Lacrimal bones (2)
Palatine bones (2)
Inferior nasal conchae (2)
Vomer bone
Mandible

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94
Q

Define sutures and their function

A

Sutures are interlocking joints between skull bones
They are mostly immovable and provide a strong, rigid structure to protect the brain

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95
Q

Name and describe the four major skull sutures

A

Coronal suture: connects the frontal bone to the parietal bones
Sagittal suture: connects the two parietal bones
Squamous suture: connects the parietal and temporal bones
Lambdoid suture: connects the parietal bones to the occipital bone

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96
Q

Define and describe the cranial vault and cranial base

A

The cranial vault is the part of the skull that forms the superior, lateral, and posterior aspects of the skull, as well as the forehead
The cranial base forms the inferior aspect of the skull and is divided into three fossae (anterior, middle, and posterior) that cradle the brain

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97
Q

List the major cavities of the skull

A

Cranial cavity (houses the brain)
Nasal cavity (contains the nasal conchae and opens to the external environment through the nostrils)
Oral cavity (houses the mouth and tongue)
Middle ear cavity (houses the auditory ossicles)
Inner ear cavity (houses the inner ear structures responsible for hearing and balance)
Orbit cavity (houses the eyeball and its associated muscles, nerves, and blood vessels)

98
Q

Explain the functions of the sinuses

A

Sinuses are air-filled cavities within certain skull bones
They lighten the skull and provide resonance to the voice
They also produce mucus that helps to moisten and warm the air we breathe

99
Q

Parietal bones

A

Curved, rectangular bones that form most of the superior and lateral aspects of the skull.

100
Q

Cranial vault

A

The superior and lateral aspects of the skull formed by the parietal bones.

101
Q

Sutures

A

The joints where bones of the skull meet.

102
Q

Coronal suture

A

The suture where the parietal bones meet the frontal bone anteriorly.

103
Q

Sagittal suture

A

The suture where the parietal bones meet superiorly at the cranial midline.

104
Q

Lambdoid suture

A

The suture where the parietal bones meet the occipital bone posteriorly.

105
Q

Squamous suture

A

The suture where a parietal and temporal bone meet on the lateral aspect of the skull.

106
Q

Occipital bone

A

The bone that forms most of the skull’s posterior wall and base.

107
Q

Occipitomastoid suture

A

The suture where the occipital bone articulates with the temporal bone.

108
Q

Foramen magnum

A

The large hole in the base of the occipital bone through which the inferior part of the brain connects with the spinal cord.

109
Q

Occipital condyles

A

The curved, rockerlike structures flanking the foramen magnum that articulate with the first vertebra of the spinal column.

110
Q

External occipital protuberance

A

The median protrusion just superior to the foramen magnum.

111
Q

Hypoglossal canal

A

A canal through which a cranial nerve (XII) passes, hidden medially and superiorly to each occipital condyle.

112
Q

Nuchal lines

A

Inconspicuous ridges that mark the occipital bone near the foramen magnum.

113
Q

Ligamentum nuchae

A

A sheetlike elastic ligament that connects the vertebrae of the neck to the skull and is secured by the external occipital crest.

114
Q

Temporal bones

A

The bones that form the inferolateral aspects of the skull and parts of the cranial base, lying inferior to the parietal bones.

115
Q

Squamous part

A

The flaring part of the temporal bone that ends at the squamous suture and has a barlike zygomatic process.

116
Q

Zygomatic arch

A

The structure formed by the zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the zygomatic bone of the face, felt as the projection of the cheek.

117
Q

Mandibular fossa

A

The small, oval depression on the inferior surface of the zygomatic process that receives the condylar process of the mandible.

118
Q

Temporomandibular joint

A

The freely movable joint formed by the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone and the condylar process of the mandible.

119
Q

What are the parietal bones and what do they form?

A

The parietal bones are two large, curved, rectangular bones that form most of the superior and lateral aspects of the skull, and as such, they form the bulk of the cranial vault.

120
Q

What is the cranial vault?

A

The cranial vault, also known as the calvaria or skullcap, is the upper part of the skull that encloses and protects the brain. It is formed by the frontal bone, parietal bones, occipital bone, and the superior portions of the temporal bones. The cranial vault is also known as the “neurocranium” and serves as a protective structure for the brain, while also providing attachment points for muscles and ligaments of the head and neck.

121
Q

What are sutures?

A

Sutures are fibrous joints that connect the bones of the skull. These joints are formed by fibrous connective tissue and allow for some movement between the bones while still providing stability and protection for the brain. The sutures are important for the growth and development of the skull, as they allow the bones to expand as the brain grows. There are four main types of sutures in the human skull: the coronal suture, sagittal suture, lambdoid suture, and squamous suture.

122
Q

What is the coronal suture?

A

The coronal suture is a dense, fibrous joint that runs in a transverse direction across the skull separating the frontal bone from the parietal bones. It connects the anterior fontanelle (soft spot) to the posterior fontanelle, which are the areas of fibrous membranes in the infant skull where the bones have not yet fused together. The coronal suture usually fuses completely by the age of 30, but its closure can vary from person to person.

123
Q

What is the sagittal suture?

A

The sagittal suture is a dense, fibrous joint that connects the two parietal bones of the skull. It runs along the midline of the skull, from the bregma (the junction between the coronal and sagittal sutures) to the lambda (the junction between the sagittal and lambdoid sutures). The sagittal suture is the longest of the cranial sutures and serves as an important landmark for anatomical and surgical references. It also helps to dissipate forces and provide structural support to the skull.

124
Q

What is the lambdoid suture?

A

The lambdoid suture is a dense, fibrous connective tissue joint located on the posterior side of the skull that separates the parietal bones from the occipital bone. It has a distinctive shape, resembling the Greek letter lambda (Λ), which is where its name comes from. The lambdoid suture typically appears as a curved line on the back of the skull that extends from the midpoint of the superior nuchal line (on the occipital bone) to the mastoid process (on the temporal bone) on either side.

125
Q

What is the squamous suture?

A

The squamous suture, also known as the squamosal suture, is a dense, fibrous joint that connects the temporal bone with the parietal bone on the side of the skull. It runs in a curving shape from the region near the ear to the back of the skull, where it meets the lambdoid suture. The squamous suture is so named because it forms a squamous, or flat, surface where the temporal bone and parietal bone meet.

126
Q

What is the occipital bone and what does it form?

A

The occipital bone is a flat bone that forms the back and lower part of the skull. It is situated at the base of the skull, where it articulates with the first cervical vertebra, also known as the atlas. The occipital bone forms the posterior and inferior surfaces of the cranium, as well as the posterior cranial fossa, which houses the brainstem and cerebellum. It also provides attachment sites for various muscles, ligaments, and blood vessels.

127
Q

What is the occipitomastoid suture?

A

The occipitomastoid suture is the joint formed between the occipital bone and the mastoid portion of the temporal bone. It is located on the lateral aspect of the skull and is an important landmark for neurosurgeons and radiologists. This suture separates the occipital bone, which forms the back of the skull, from the temporal bone, which forms the side of the skull.

128
Q

What is the foramen magnum?

A

The foramen magnum is a large opening in the base of the skull, located at the bottom of the occipital bone. It is the largest foramen (opening) in the skull and serves as a passage for the spinal cord to connect with the brain. The brainstem and its components (medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain) also pass through the foramen magnum as they connect to the spinal cord. In addition, the foramen magnum allows for the passage of several arteries, veins, and nerves that supply the head and neck.

129
Q

What are the occipital condyles?

A

The occipital condyles are two rounded protuberances located on the undersurface of the occipital bone, near the foramen magnum. They are important structures because they articulate with the first cervical vertebra, also known as the atlas, forming the atlanto-occipital joint. This joint allows for the flexion and extension of the head.

130
Q

What is the external occipital protuberance?

A

The external occipital protuberance (EOP) is a bony prominence that is located at the midline of the posterior aspect of the occipital bone, which is the bone that forms the back of the skull. It serves as an attachment point for various muscles and ligaments, including the nuchal ligament which connects the skull to the spinal column.

131
Q

What is the hypoglossal canal?

A

The hypoglossal canal is a small opening located in the skull base that is formed by the occipital bone and the petrous part of the temporal bone. It is located on either side of the foramen magnum, which is the large opening in the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes. The hypoglossal canal is the opening through which the hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII) passes. This nerve is responsible for controlling the movements of the tongue and other important functions such as speech, swallowing, and breathing.

132
Q

What are the nuchal lines?

A

The nuchal lines are bony ridges located on the occipital bone of the skull. There are three nuchal lines: the superior nuchal line, the inferior nuchal line, and the highest nuchal line. These lines serve as attachment points for muscles and ligaments in the neck and back. The superior nuchal line is the most prominent and runs horizontally across the posterior aspect of the skull. The inferior nuchal line is a less prominent ridge that is located below the superior nuchal line, and the highest nuchal line is a small ridge located above the superior nuchal line.

133
Q

What is the ligamentum nuchae?

A

The ligamentum nuchae is a fibrous structure located in the back of the neck, extending from the occipital bone to the spinous process of the seventh cervical vertebra in humans. It is also called the nuchal ligament or the elastic nuchal ligament. The ligamentum nuchae provides attachment for various muscles, including those involved in moving the head and neck, and helps to maintain the upright posture of the head. It also plays a role in absorbing shock and reducing stress on the cervical vertebrae during movement.

134
Q

What are the temporal bones?

A

The temporal bones are paired bones located on the lateral (side) aspects of the skull. They are situated at the base of the skull, below the parietal bones and in front of the occipital bone. Each temporal bone is divided into several regions, including the squamous portion, the tympanic portion, and the petrous portion. The temporal bones are important because they house several structures such as the middle and inner ear, and they also articulate with the mandible (jaw bone) to form the temporomandibular joint.

135
Q

Facial Bones

A

The facial skeleton is composed of 14 bones, which include the mandible, vomer, maxillae, zygomatics, nasals, lacrimals, palatines, and inferior nasal conchae.

136
Q

Mandible

A

The U-shaped mandible, also known as the lower jawbone, is the largest and strongest bone of the face. It has a body that forms the chin and two upright rami. Each ramus meets the body posteriorly at a mandibular angle.

137
Q

Maxillary Bones

A

The maxillary bones, also called maxillae, are fused medially and form the upper jaw and the central portion of the facial skeleton. All facial bones except the mandible articulate with the maxillae.

138
Q

Zygomatic Bones

A

The zygomatic bones, commonly known as cheekbones, are irregularly shaped and form the prominences of the cheeks and part of the inferolateral margins of the orbits.

139
Q

Nasal Bones

A

The nasal bones are thin, basically rectangular bones that are fused medially and form the bridge of the nose.

140
Q

Lacrimal Bones

A

The lacrimal bones, which are delicate and fingernail-shaped, contribute to the medial walls of each orbit.

141
Q

Palatines

A

The palatines are paired bones that are located posterior to the palatine processes of the maxillae. They form the posterior third of the hard palate.

142
Q

Nasal Conchae

A

The inferior nasal conchae are paired bones that extend horizontally along the lateral walls of the nasal cavity.

143
Q

Keystone Bones

A

The maxillae are considered the keystone bones of the facial skeleton because they articulate with all facial bones except the mandible.

144
Q

Mandibular Foramina

A

The mandibular foramina are located on the medial surface of each ramus of the mandible. They allow the nerves responsible for tooth sensation to pass to the teeth in the lower jaw.

145
Q

Incisive Canal

A

The incisive canal is a midline foramen located just posterior to the teeth. It serves as a passageway for blood vessels and nerves.

146
Q

Mental Foramina

A

The mental foramina are openings on the lateral aspects of the mandibular body that allow blood vessels and nerves to pass to the skin of the chin and lower lip.

147
Q

Vertebral column

A

A flexible, curved structure consisting of 26 irregular bones that extends from the skull to the pelvis, transmits the weight of the trunk to the lower limbs, and protects the spinal cord.

148
Q

Cervical curvature

A

The concave curvature of the vertebral column consisting of seven vertebrae numbered C1-C7, located at the top of the column.

149
Q

Thoracic curvature

A

The convex curvature of the vertebral column consisting of 12 vertebrae numbered T1-T12, located below the cervical curvature.

150
Q

Lumbar curvature

A

The concave curvature of the vertebral column consisting of five vertebrae numbered L1-L5, located below the thoracic curvature.

151
Q

Sacral curvature

A

The convex curvature of the vertebral column consisting of five fused vertebrae which make up the sacrum, located below the lumbar curvature.

152
Q

Coccyx

A

The four fused vertebrae at the bottom of the vertebral column.

153
Q

Intervertebral discs

A

Fibrocartilage pads located between each vertebra that act as shock absorbers and allow for slight movement of adjacent vertebrae.

154
Q

Anterior longitudinal ligament

A

A strong ligament that runs down the front surface of the vertebrae from the neck to the sacrum, preventing hyperextension of the spine.

155
Q

Posterior longitudinal ligament

A

A narrow and relatively weak ligament that runs down the back surface of the vertebrae from the neck to the sacrum, resisting hyperflexion of the spine.

156
Q

Vertebral column

A

What is the vertebral column and what is its function?

157
Q

Cervical curvature

A

What is the concave curvature of the vertebral column consisting of seven vertebrae numbered C1-C7, located at the top of the column called?

158
Q

Thoracic curvature

A

What is the convex curvature of the vertebral column consisting of 12 vertebrae numbered T1-T12, located below the cervical curvature called

159
Q

Lumbar curvature

A

What is the concave curvature of the vertebral column consisting of five vertebrae numbered L1-L5, located below the thoracic curvature called?

160
Q

Sacral curvature

A

What is the convex curvature of the vertebral column consisting of five fused vertebrae which make up the sacrum, located below the lumbar curvature called?

161
Q

Coccyx

A

What is the name of the four fused vertebrae at the bottom of the vertebral column?

162
Q

What is the name of the four fused vertebrae at the bottom of the vertebral column?

A

What are fibrocartilage pads located between each vertebra that act as shock absorbers and allow for slight movement of adjacent vertebrae called?

163
Q

Anterior longitudinal ligament

A

What is the name of the strong ligament that runs down the front surface of the vertebrae from the neck to the sacrum, preventing hyperextension of the spine?

164
Q

Posterior longitudinal ligament

A

What is the name of the narrow and relatively weak ligament that runs down the back surface of the vertebrae from the neck to the sacrum, resisting hyperflexion of the spine?

165
Q

Scoliosis

A

An abnormal rotation of the spine that results in a lateral curvature, most often in the thoracic region. It is quite common during late childhood, particularly in girls.

166
Q

Kyphosis

A

A dorsally exaggerated thoracic curvature. It is particularly common in elderly people because of osteoporosis, but may also reflect tuberculosis of the spine, rickets, or osteomalacia.

167
Q

Lordosis

A

An accentuated lumbar curvature. It can result from spinal tuberculosis or osteomalacia. Temporary lordosis is common in those carrying a large load up front, such as men with “potbellies” and pregnant women.

168
Q

Vertebral Arch

A

A composite structure formed by two pedicles and two laminae that enclose an opening called the vertebral foramen.

169
Q

Intervertebral Foramina

A

Lateral openings between adjacent vertebrae formed by notches on the superior and inferior borders of the pedicles. The spinal nerves issuing from the spinal cord pass through these foramina.

170
Q

Spinous Process

A

A median posterior projection arising at the junction of the two laminae of the vertebral arch. It is an attachment site for muscles that move the vertebral column and for ligaments that stabilize it.

171
Q

Articular Facets

A

Smooth joint surfaces of the articular processes, covered with hyaline cartilage. The inferior articular processes of each vertebra form movable joints with the superior articular processes of the vertebra immediately below.

172
Q

Regional Characteristics of Vertebrae

A

Variations in vertebrae that allow different regions of the spine to perform slightly different functions and movements. These variations are summarized in Table 7.2 of the reading.

173
Q

What is the thoracic cage?

A

The bony structure of the chest which includes the thoracic vertebrae posteriorly, the ribs laterally, and the sternum and costal cartilages anteriorly.

174
Q

What is the function of the thoracic cage?

A

The thoracic cage protects the vital organs of the thoracic cavity, supports the shoulder girdles and upper limbs, and provides attachment points for many muscles of the neck, back, chest, and shoulders.

175
Q

What are the three parts of the sternum?

A

The manubrium, the body, and the xiphoid process.

176
Q

What are the three anatomical landmarks of the sternum?

A

The jugular notch, the sternal angle, and the xiphisternal joint.

177
Q

What is the function of the intercostal muscles?

A

The intercostal muscles lift and then depress the thorax during breathing.

178
Q

Name and describe the bones of the thoracic cage.

A

The thoracic cage includes the thoracic vertebrae posteriorly, the ribs laterally, and the sternum and costal cartilages anteriorly.

179
Q

Differentiate true from false ribs.

A

Ribs 1-7 are called true ribs because they attach to the sternum via their own costal cartilage. Ribs 8-12 are called false ribs because they either attach to the sternum indirectly or not at all. Ribs 11 and 12 are called floating ribs because they do not attach to the sternum at all.

180
Q

Pectoral girdle

A

Consists of the clavicle and scapula that attach the upper limbs to the axial skeleton and provide attachment points for upper limb muscles.

181
Q

Clavicle

A

A slender, S-shaped bone that anchors many muscles and transmits compression forces from the upper limbs to the axial skeleton.

182
Q

Scapula

A

A thin, triangular flat bone that lies on the dorsal surface of the rib cage and is named for its shape like a spade or shovel.

183
Q

Mobility

A

The degree of movement allowed by the pectoral girdle due to the scapula’s free movement across the thorax and the shallow, poorly reinforced socket of the shoulder joint.

184
Q

Stability

A

The degree of resistance to movement allowed by the pectoral girdle due to the shallow, poorly reinforced socket of the shoulder joint making shoulder dislocations fairly common.

185
Q

Bone markings

A

Important anatomical features of the pectoral girdle that serve as attachment points for ligaments and muscles, such as the trapezoid line and conoid tubercle on the clavicle and the supraspinous fossa and infraspinous fossa on the scapula.

186
Q

Fracture

A

A break in the clavicle, which is not very strong and is likely to break when someone uses outstretched arms to break a fall.

187
Q

How many bones form the bony framework of each upper limb?

A

Thirty separate bones.

188
Q

How may each of the bones of the upper limb be described?

A

Regionally, as a bone of the arm, forearm, or hand.

189
Q

Which part of the upper limb does anatomically “arm” refer to?

A

Between the shoulder and elbow.

190
Q

What are the bones of the appendicular skeleton in part 1?

A

Pectoral girdle and upper limb.

191
Q

What are the two bones that form the clavicle?

A

Acromial end and sternal end.

192
Q

Where is the scapula located?

A

In the posterior thorax.

193
Q

What are the important markings of the scapula?

A

Glenoid cavity, spine, acromion, coracoid process, infraspinous, supraspinous, and subscapular fossae.

194
Q

Which bone is the sole bone of the arm?

A

Humerus

195
Q

What are the important markings of the humerus?

A

Head, greater and lesser tubercles, intertubercular sulcus, radial groove, deltoid tuberosity, trochlea, capitulum, coronoid and olecranon fossae, epicondyles, and radial fossa.

196
Q

Which bone is the medial bone of the forearm?

A

Ulna

197
Q

Which bone articulates with the carpals to form part of the wrist joint?

A

Radius

198
Q

What are the bones that form the palm of the hand?

A

Metacarpals

199
Q

How many phalanges form the fingers?

A

3 in digits 2 to 5, 2 in digit 1, the thumb.

200
Q

What are the sites of attachment of the rotator cuff muscles?

A

The greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus.

201
Q

Which part of the humerus is the most frequently fractured?

A

The surgical neck.

202
Q

What is the shape of the ulnar head?

A

The ulnar head is knob-like in shape.

203
Q

What is the function of the ulnar head in hand movements?

A

The ulnar head plays little or no role in hand movements.

204
Q

What is the shape of the radius head?

A

The radius head is shaped somewhat like the head of a nail.

205
Q

What is the name of the muscle anchored by the radial tuberosity?

A

The biceps muscle is anchored by the radial tuberosity.

206
Q

What is the name of the ligament that runs from the ulnar styloid process to the wrist?

A

The ligament that runs from the ulnar styloid process to the wrist is separated from the wrist bones by a disc of fibrocartilage.

207
Q

Which bone contributes more heavily to the elbow joint, ulna, or radius?

A

The ulna contributes more heavily to the elbow joint, while the radius is the major forearm bone contributing to the wrist joint.

208
Q

Which bone is the major forearm bone contributing to the wrist joint, ulna, or radius?

A

Humerus

209
Q

What is a common fracture in the distal end of the radius called?

A

A common fracture in the distal end of the radius is called Colles’ fracture.

210
Q

What are the three parts of the metacarpals?

A

The three parts of the metacarpals are base, shaft, and head.

211
Q

What are the names of the bones in the proximal row of the carpus from lateral to medial?

A

The bones in the proximal row of the carpus from lateral to medial are scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform.

212
Q

How many rows of carpal bones are there?

A

There are two rows of carpal or wrist bones.

213
Q

What is the function of the ligament that roofs over the concavity of the carpus?

A

The ligament that roofs over the concavity of the carpus forms the carpal tunnel.

214
Q

What is the name of the syndrome caused by the compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel?

A

The syndrome caused by the compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is called carpal tunnel syndrome.

215
Q

What are the risk factors of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
216
Q

How many phalanges does the thumb have?

A

The risk factors of carpal tunnel syndrome include female gender, fluid retention, nerve-damaging conditions, and certain workplace activities.

217
Q

How many phalanges does the thumb have?

A

The thumb has two phalanges.

218
Q

What is the pelvic girdle?

A

The pelvic girdle is formed by the sacrum and a pair of hip bones, each also called an os coxae or coxal bone. It attaches the lower limbs to the axial skeleton, transmits the full weight of the upper body to the lower limbs, and supports the visceral organs of the pelvis.

219
Q

How are the hip bones attached to the axial skeleton?

A

The hip bones are attached to the axial skeleton by some of the strongest ligaments in the body. The ilia articulate with the sacrum with the sacroiliac joints posteriorly.

220
Q

What are the three separate bones that make up the hip bone in childhood?

A

The three separate bones that make up the hip bone in childhood are the ilium, ischium, and pubis.

221
Q

What is the acetabulum?

A

The acetabulum is a deep hemispherical socket formed by the fusion of the ilium, ischium, and pubis. It receives the head of the femur at the hip joint.

222
Q

What are the differences between the male and female pelves?

A

Female pelves have a wider subpubic angle, a larger pelvic inlet, a shallower pelvis, and a wider and more circular pelvic outlet than male pelves. These differences are related to functional differences, such as the passage of the fetus during childbirth.

223
Q

What are the three segments of the lower limb?

A

The three segments of the lower limb are the thigh, the leg, and the foot

224
Q

What are the names of the two bones that form the hip?

A

The two bones that form the hip are the ilium and the ischium, which are fused with the pubis.

225
Q

What is the largest bone in the body?

A

The femur is the largest bone in the body.

226
Q

What is the function of the femur?

A

The femur carries the weight of the body and is responsible for the body’s movements.

227
Q

What is the arrangement of the femur that allows for better balance?

A

The femur articulates with the hip bone and then courses medially as it descends toward the knee, which allows the knee joints to be closer to the body’s center of gravity and provides for better balance.

228
Q

What is the name of the bone that is formed within the tendon of the quadriceps?

A

The patella, or kneecap, is a sesamoid bone formed within the tendon of the quadriceps.

229
Q

What are the seven bones that form the proximal part of the foot?

A

The seven bones that form the proximal part of the foot are called tarsals.

230
Q

What is the name of the largest tarsal bone that forms the heel?

A

The calcaneus is the largest tarsal bone that forms the heel.

231
Q

What is the total number of bones in the foot?

A

The foot has 28 bones, including 7 tarsals, 5 metatarsals, and 14 phalanges.

232
Q

What is the function of the foot?

A

The foot has two functions: It supports our body weight and acts as a lever to propel the body forward when we walk and run.

233
Q

What are the bones that form the tarsus?

A

The tarsus is made up of seven bones called tarsals.

234
Q

Which bones form the posterior half of the foot?

A

The tarsus is made up of seven bones called tarsals that form the posterior half of the foot.

235
Q

Which are the largest, most posterior tarsals that carry the body weight?

A

The two largest, most posterior tarsals that carry the body weight are the talus and the calcaneus.

236
Q

What is the name of the Achilles tendon’s attachment point?

A

The thick calcaneal or Achilles tendon of the calf muscles attaches to the posterior surface of the calcaneus.

237
Q

What is the name of the injury that affects both the tibia and fibula’s distal ends?

A

A bimalleolar fracture is a break in the distal ends of both the tibia and fibula.

238
Q

Structural properties of fibrous joints:

A

Adjoining bones united by collagen fibers
Immobile (synarthrosis) in suture
Slightly movable (amphiarthrosis) and immobile in syndesmosis
Immobile in gomphosis

239
Q

Structural properties of cartilaginous joints:

A

Adjoining bones united by cartilage
Immobile (synarthrosis) in synchondrosis
Slightly movable in symphysis

240
Q

Structural properties of synovial joints:

A

Adjoining bones covered with articular cartilage
Separated by a joint cavity
Enclosed within an articular capsule lined with synovial membrane
Freely movable (diarthrosis; movements depend on design of joint)

241
Q

Localization of functional joint types:

A

Freely movable joints predominate in the appendicular skeleton (limbs)
Immovable and slightly movable joints are largely restricted to the axial skeleton
The less movable the joint, the more stable it is likely to be

ANP 1106 (11 decks)

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