6F XC Planning - AIM

Question 0

2. What is airport surveillance radar? (P/CG)

Answer 0

Airport surveillance radar (ASR) is approach control radar used to detect and display an aircraft’s position in the terminal area. ASR provides range and azimuth information but does not provide elevation data. Coverage of ASR can extend up to 60 miles.

Question 1

1. What is primary radar and secondary radar? (P/CG)

Answer 1

Primary radar—A radar system in which a minute portion of a radio pulse transmitted from a site is reflected by an object and then received back at that site for processing and display at an Air Traffic Control facility.
Secondary radar—A radar system in which the object to be detected is fitted with a transponder. Radar pulses transmitted from the searching transmitter/receiver (interrogator) site are received in the transponder and used to trigger a distinctive transmission from the transponder. The reply transmission, rather than the reflected signal, is then received back at the transmitter/receiver site for processing and display at an Air Traffic Control facility.

Question 2

3. Describe the various types of terminal radar services available for VFR aircraft. (AIM 4-1-18)

Answer 2

Basic radar service—Safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring (on a workload-permitting basis) and sequencing at locations where procedures have been established for this purpose and/or when covered by a letter of agreement.
TRSA service—Radar sequencing and separation service for participating VFR aircraft in a TRSA.
Class C service—This service provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation between IFR, and VFR aircraft, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport.
Class B service—Provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation of aircraft based on IFR, VFR, and/or weight, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport(s).

Question 3

4. What frequencies other than 121.5 are monitored by most FSS’s? (AIM 4-2-14)

Answer 3

Frequencies are listed in the Airport/Facility Directory. 122.0 MHz is assigned as the Enroute Flight Advisory Service frequency at selected FSS’s. Certain FSS’s provide Local Airport Advisory on 123.6 MHz. If in doubt as to what frequency to use, 122.2 MHz is assigned to the majority of FSS’s as a common enroute simplex frequency.

Question 4

5. If operations are not being conducted in airspace requiring a transponder, can an aircraft equipped with a transponder leave it off? (AIM 4-1-20)

Answer 4

In all cases, while in controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace) each pilot operating an aircraft equipped with an operable ATC transponder maintained in accordance with 14 CFR §91.413 shall operate the transponder, including Mode C if installed, on the appropriate code or as assigned by ATC. In Class G airspace (uncontrolled airspace), the transponder should be operating while airborne, unless otherwise requested by ATC.

Question 5

6. At what altitude would a pilot expect to encounter military aircraft when navigating through a military training route designated “VR1207”? (AIM 3-5-2)

Answer 5

Less than 1,500 AGL; Military training routes with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL shall be identified by four-digit characters; e.g., IR1206, VR1207. MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500 feet AGL shall be identified by three-digit characters; e.g., IR206, VR207.

Question 6

7. What is a composite flight plan? (AIM 5-1-7)

Answer 6

Flight plans which specify VFR operations for one portion of the flight and IFR for another portion will be accepted by the FSS at the point of departure. If VFR flight is conducted for the first portion and IFR for the last portion:

a. The pilot should report the departure time to the FSS with which he filed his VFR/IFR flight plan;
b. At the point of intended change, close the VFR portion;
c. Request ATC clearance from the FSS nearest the point at which the change from VFR to IFR is proposed; and
d. Remain in VFR weather conditions until operating in accordance with the IFR clearance.

Question 7

8. What is an “abbreviated” IFR flight plan? (P/CG)

Answer 7

An abbreviated IFR flight plan is an authorization by ATC requiring pilots to submit only that information needed for the purpose of ATC. It is frequently used by aircraft which are airborne and desire an instrument approach or by an aircraft on the ground which desires to climb to VFR-On-Top conditions.

Question 8

9. How long will a flight plan remain on file after the proposed departure time has passed? (AIM 5-1-13)

Answer 8

To prevent computer saturation in the en route environment, parameters have been established to delete proposed departure flight plans which have not been activated. Most centers have this parameter set so as to delete these flight plans a minimum of 1 hour after the proposed departure time.

Question 9

10. If you fail to report a change in arrival time or forget to close your flight plan, when will search and rescue procedures begin? (AIM 5-1-14)

Answer 9

If you fail to report or cancel your flight plan within 1⁄2 hour after your ETA, search and rescue procedures are started.

Question 10

11. What constitutes a change in flight plan? (AIM 5-1-12)

Answer 10

In addition to altitude or flight level, destination and/or route changes, increasing or decreasing the speed of the aircraft constitutes a change in flight plan. Therefore, anytime the average true airspeed at cruising altitude between reporting points varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by ±5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater, ATC should be advised.

Question 11

• DUPLICATE*

12. What is a DVFR flight plan? (AIM 5-1-6)

Answer 11

Defense VFR; VFR flights into a coastal or domestic ADIZ/DEWIZ are required to file DVFR flight plans for security purposes. The flight plan must be filed before departure.

Question 12

13. What is an ADIZ? (AIM 5-6-1)

Answer 12

In the interest of national security, all aircraft entering domestic U.S. airspace from points outside must provide for identification prior to entry. To facilitate early identification of all aircraft in the vicinity of U.S. and international airspace boundaries, Air Defense Identification Zones (ADIZs) have been established.

Question 13

14. Where are Air Defense Identification Zones normally located? (AIM Glossary)

Answer 13

Domestic ADIZ—located within the United States along an international boundary of the United States.
Coastal ADIZ—located over the coastal waters of the United States.
Distant Early Warning Identification Zone (DEWIZ)—located over the coastal waters of the State of Alaska.
Land-based ADIZ—located over U.S. metropolitan areas, which is activated and deactivated as needed, with dimensions, activation dates and other relevant information disseminated via NOTAM.

Question 14

15. What requirements must be satisfied prior to operations into, within or across an ADIZ? (AIM 5-6-1)

Answer 14

Operational requirements for aircraft operations associated with an ADIZ are as follows:
Flight plan—An IFR or DVFR flight plan must be filed with the appropriate aeronautical facility.
Two-way radio—An operating two-way radio is required.
Transponder—Aircraft must be equipped with an operable radar beacon transponder having altitude reporting (Mode C) capabilities. The transponder must be turned on and set to the assigned ATC code.
Position reports—For IFR flights, normal position reporting. For DVFR flights, an estimated time of ADIZ penetration must be filed at least 15 minutes prior to entry.
Aircraft position tolerances—Over land, a tolerance of ±5 minutes from the estimated time over a reporting point and within 10 NM from the centerline of an intended track over an estimated reporting point. Over water, a tolerance of ±5 minutes from the estimated time over a reporting point or point of penetration and within 20 NM from centerline of an intended track over an estimated reporting point.

Question 15

16. Briefly describe the six classes of U.S. airspace. (AIM 3-2-2 through 3-2-6, and 3-3-1)

Answer 15

Class A airspace—Generally, airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600, including airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska; and designated international airspace beyond 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic procedures are applied.
“Class B airspace—Generally, airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers, (some resemble upside-down wedding cakes), and is designated to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace. An ATC clearance is required for all aircraft to operate in the area, and all aircraft cleared as such receive separation services within the airspace. The visibility and cloud clearance requirement for VFR operations is 3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds.”
Class C airspace—Generally, airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. Although the configuration of each Class C airspace area is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation.”
“Class D airspace—Generally, airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will normally be designed to contain those procedures.
Class E (controlled) airspace—Generally, if the airspace is not Class A, B, C, or D, and it is controlled airspace, it is Class E airspace. Class E airspace extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. Examples include: Surface areas designated for an airport, extensions to a surface area, airspace used for transition, enroute domestic areas, Federal airways, offshore airspace areas.
Class G (uncontrolled) airspace—Class G airspace is that portion of the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace.”

Question 16

17. Define the following types of airspace. (AIM 3-4-2 through 3-4-8; 14 CFR Part 93)

Answer 16

Prohibited Area—For security or other reasons, aircraft flight is prohibited.
Restricted Area—Contains unusual, often invisible hazards to aircraft, flights must have permission from the controlling agency, if VFR. IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it.
Military Operations Area—Designed to separate military training from IFR traffic. Permission is not required, but VFR flights should exercise caution. IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it.”
“Warning Area—Same hazards as a restricted area, it is established beyond the 3-mile limit of International Airspace. Permission is not required, but a flight plan is advised.
Alert Area—Airspace containing a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity. No permission is required, but VFR flights should exercise caution. IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it.
Controlled Firing Areas—CFAs contain activities which, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to non-participating aircraft. The distinguishing feature of the CFA, as compared to other special use airspace, is that its activities are suspended immediately when spotter aircraft, radar or ground lookout positions indicate an aircraft might be approaching the area. CFAs are not charted.”
“National Security Areas—Airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through the depicted NSA. When it is necessary to provide a greater level of security and safety, flight in NSAs may be temporarily prohibited by regulation under the provisions of 14 CFR §99.7.
Special Flight Rules Area—An area of airspace within which Special Federal Aviation Regulations (SFARs) apply. Examples include the Washington D.C. SFRA and the Grand Canyon SFRA. Established operating requirements and procedures to operate within an SFRA can be found in 14 CFR Part 93 and on the specific chart legend for that area.
Note: Current and scheduled status information on special use airspace can be found on the FAA’s SUA website at sua.faa.gov.

Question 17

• DUPLICATE*

18. What is a TFR? (AC 91-63)

Answer 17

A temporary flight restriction (TFR) is a regulatory action issued via the U.S. NOTAM system to restrict certain aircraft from operating within a defined area, on a temporary basis, to protect persons or property in the air or on the ground. They may be issued due to a hazardous condition, a special event, or as a general warning for the entire FAA airspace. TFR information can be obtained from an FSS or on the internet at www.faa.gov.

Question 18

19. What is a TRSA? (P/CG)

Answer 18

A terminal radar service area (TRSA) consists of airspace surrounding designated airports wherein ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on a full time basis for all IFR and participating VFR aircraft. Pilot participation is urged but not mandatory.

Question 19

20. What procedures should be used in avoiding wake turbulence when landing? (AIM 7-3-6)

Answer 19

a. Landing behind a larger aircraft, on the same runway: stay at or above the larger aircraft’s final approach flight path. Note its touchdown point and land beyond it.
b. Landing behind a larger aircraft, on a parallel runway closer than 2,500 feet: consider possible drift to your runway. Stay at or above the larger aircraft’s final approach flight path and note its touchdown point.
c. Landing behind a larger aircraft on a crossing runway: cross above the larger aircraft’s flight path.
d. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft on the same runway: note the larger aircraft’s rotation point, and land well before the rotation point.
e. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft on a crossing runway: note the larger aircraft’s rotation point. If it is past the intersection, continue the approach, and land prior to the intersection “section. If the larger aircraft rotates prior to the intersection, avoid flight below the larger aircraft’s flight path. Abandon the approach unless a landing is ensured well before reaching the intersection.

Question 20

21. What procedures should be used in avoiding wake turbulence when departing a runway and while enroute VFR? (AIM 7-3-6)

Answer 20

a. Departing behind a larger aircraft: note the larger aircraft’s rotation point, rotate prior to larger aircraft’s rotation point. Continue climb above the larger aircraft’s climb path until turning clear of its wake.
b. Intersection takeoffs on the same runway: be alert to adjacent larger aircraft operations, particularly upwind of your runway. If intersection takeoff clearance is received, avoid a subsequent heading which will cross below the larger aircraft’s path.
c. Departing or landing after a larger aircraft executing a low approach, missed approach or touch-and-go landing: ensure that an interval of at least 2 minutes has elapsed before you take off or land. Because vortices settle and move laterally near the ground, the vortex hazard may continue to exist along the runway, particularly in light quartering wind situations.
d. Enroute VFR (thousand foot altitude plus 500 feet): avoid flight below and behind a large aircraft’s path. If a larger aircraft is observed above or on the same track (meeting or overtaking), adjust your position laterally, preferably upwind.

Question 21

22. Who is responsible for wake turbulence avoidance, the pilot or the air traffic controller? (AIM 7-3-8)

Answer 21

The pilot is responsible. Acceptance of instructions from ATC (traffic information, follow an aircraft, visual approach clearance), is acknowledgment that the pilot has accepted responsibility for his/her own wake turbulence separation.

Question 22

23. Define the term hydroplaning. (FAA-H-8083-3)

Answer 22

Hydroplaning occurs when the tires are lifted off a runway surface by the combination of aircraft speed and a thin film of water present on the runway.

Question 23

24. What are the three basic types of hydroplaning? (FAA-H-8083-3)

Answer 23

Dynamic—Occurs when there is standing water on the runway surface. Water about 0.1-inch deep acts to lift the tire off the runway. The minimum speed at which dynamic hydroplaning occurs has been determined to be about 8.6 times the square root of the tire pressure in pounds per square inch.
Viscous—Occurs as a result of the viscous properties of water. A very thin film of fluid cannot be penetrated by the tire and the tire consequently rolls on top of the film. Viscous hydroplaning can occur at much slower speeds than dynamic hydroplaning but requires a smooth acting surface.
Reverted Rubber Hydroplaning—Occurs when a pilot, during the landing roll, locks the brakes for an extended period of time while on a wet runway. The friction creates heat which, combined with water, creates a steam layer between the aircraft tire and runway surface.

Question 24

25. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? (FAA-H-8083-3)

Answer 24

Touchdown speed should be as slow as possible consistent with safety. After the nosewheel is lowered to the runway, moderate braking should be applied. If deceleration is not detected and hydroplaning is suspected, the nose should be raised and aerodynamic drag utilized to decelerate to a point where the brakes become effective.

Question 25

26. What are several types of illusions in flight which may lead to errors in judgment on landing? (AIM 8-1-5)

Answer 25

Runway width illusion—Narrower than usual runway creates illusion aircraft is higher than actual; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal.
Runway and terrain slope illusion—Upsloping runway/terrain creates illusion aircraft is higher than actual; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal. Downsloping runway/terrain has the opposite effect.
Featureless terrain illusion—An absence of ground features creates illusion that aircraft is higher than actual; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal.
Atmospheric illusions—Rain on windscreen creates illusion of greater height; atmospheric haze creates illusion of greater distance from runway; pilot tends to fly a lower approach than normal.

Question 26

27. What is the most effective method of scanning for other air traffic? (AIM 8-1-6)

Answer 26

Effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central vision field. Each movement should not exceed 10°, and each area should be observed for at least 1 second to enable de­tection. Although horizontal back and forth eye movements seem preferred by most pilots, each pilot should develop a comfortable scanning pattern and then adhere to it to ensure optimum scanning.

Question 27

28. Discuss recommended collision avoidance procedures and considerations in the following situations. (FAA-H-8083-25)

Answer 27

a. Before Takeoff—Before taxiing onto a runway or landing area in preparation for takeoff, scan the approach area for possible landing traffic, executing appropriate maneuvers to provide a clear view of the approach areas.
b. Climbs and Descents—During climbs and descents in flight conditions that permit visual detection of other traffic, make gentle banks left and right at a frequency that allows continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
c. Straight and Level—During sustained periods of straight-and-level flight, execute appropriate clearing procedures at periodic intervals.
d. Traffic Patterns—Entries into traffic patterns while descending should be avoided.
e. Traffic at VOR Sites—Due to converging traffic, maintain sustained vigilance in the vicinity of VORs and intersections.
f. Training Operations—Maintain vigilance and make clearing turns before a practice maneuver. During instruction, the pilot should be asked to verbalize the clearing procedures (call out clear “left, right, above, below”). High-wing and low-wing aircraft have their respective blind spots: For high-wing aircraft, momentarily raise the wing in the direction of the intended turn and look for traffic prior to commencing the turn; for low-wing aircraft, momentarily lower the wing.