6C XC Planning - Airport / Traffic Pattern Flashcards

0
Q
  1. What are the recommended traffic advisory practices at airports without an operating control tower? (AIM 4-1-9)
A

Pilots of inbound traffic should monitor and communicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from 10 miles to landing. Pilots of departing aircraft should monitor/communicate on the appropriate frequency from start-up, during taxi, and until 10 miles from the airport unless federal regulations or local procedures require otherwise.

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1
Q
  1. What recommended entry and departure procedures should be used at airports without an operating control tower? (AIM 4-3-3)
A

When entering a traffic pattern, enter the pattern in level flight, abeam the midpoint of the runway at pattern altitude. Maintain pattern altitude until abeam the approach end of the landing runway on the downwind leg. Complete the turn to final at least 1⁄4 mile from the runway. When departing a traffic pattern, continue straight out, or exit with a 45-degree turn (to the left when in a left-hand traffic pattern; to the right when in a right-hand traffic pattern) beyond the departure end of the runway, after reaching pattern altitude.

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2
Q
  1. A large or turbine-powered aircraft is required to enter Class D airspace at what altitude? (14 CFR 91.129)
A

A large or turbine-powered airplane shall, unless otherwise required by the applicable distance-from-clouds criteria, enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet above the elevation of the airport and maintain at least 1,500 feet until further descent is required for a safe landing.

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3
Q
  1. If operating into an airport without an operating control tower which is located within the Class D airspace of an airport with an operating control tower, is it always necessary to communicate with the tower? (14 CFR 91.129)
A

Yes, operations to or from an airport in Class D airspace (airport traffic area) require communication with the tower even when operating to/from a satellite airport.

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4
Q
  1. When conducting flight operations into an airport with an operating control tower, when should initial contact be established? (AIM 4-3-2)
A

When operating at an airport where traffic control is being exercised by a control tower, pilots are required to maintain two-way radio contact with the tower while operating within Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas unless the tower authorizes otherwise. Initial call-up should be made about 15 miles from the airport.

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5
Q
  1. When departing a Class D surface area, what communication procedures are recommended? (AIM 4-3-2)
A

Unless there is good reason to leave the tower frequency before exiting the Class B, Class C and Class D surface areas, it is good operating practice to remain on the tower frequency for the purpose of receiving traffic information. In the interest of reducing tower frequency congestion, pilots are reminded that it is not necessary to request permission to leave the tower frequency once outside of Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas.

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6
Q
  1. You discover that both the transmitter and receiver in your aircraft have become inoperative. What procedures should be used when attempting to enter a traffic pat­tern and land at a tower controlled airport? (AIM 4-2-13)
A

a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area.
b. Determine direction and flow of traffic.
c. Join the traffic pattern and wait for light gun signals.
d. Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights.

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7
Q
  1. When a control tower located at an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace? (AIM 3-2-5)
A

During the hours the tower is not in operation, Class E surface area rules or a combination of Class E rules down to 700 feet AGL and Class G rules to the surface will become applicable. Check the A/FD for specifics.

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8
Q
  1. If the rotating beacon is on at an airport during daylight hours, what significance does this have? (AIM 2-1-10)
A

In Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas, operation of the airport beacon during the hours of daylight often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. ATC clearance in accordance with Part 91 is required for landing, takeoff and flight in the traffic pattern. Pilots should not rely solely on the operation of the airport beacon to indicate if weather conditions are IFR or VFR. There is no regulatory requirement for daylight operation, and it is the pilot’s responsibility to comply with proper preflight planning as required by 14 CFR Part 91.

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9
Q
  1. What are the various types of runway markings (precision instrument runway) and what do they consist of? (AIM 2-3-3)
A

a. Runway designators—Runway number is the whole number nearest one-tenth the magnetic azimuth of the centerline of the runway, measured clockwise from the magnetic north.
b. Runway centerline marking—Identifies the center of the runway and provides alignment guidance during takeoff and landings; consists of a line of uniformly-spaced stripes and gaps.
c. Runway aiming point marking—Serves as a visual aiming point for a landing aircraft; two rectangular markings consist of a broad white stripe located on each side of the runway centerline and approximately 1,000 feet from the landing threshold.
d. Runway touchdown zone markers—Identify the touchdown zone for landing operations and are coded to provide distance information in 500 feet increments; groups of one, two, and three rectangular bars symmetrically arranged in pairs about the runway centerline.
e. Runway side stripe markings—Delineate the edges of the runway and provide a visual contrast between runway and the abutting terrain or shoulders; continuous white stripes located on each side of the runway.
f. Runway shoulder markings—May be used to supplement runway side stripes to identify pavement areas contiguous to the runway sides that are not intended for use by aircraft; painted yellow.
g. Runway threshold markings—Used to help identify the beginning of the runway that is available for landing. Two configurations: either eight longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline, or the number of stripes is related to the runway width.

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10
Q
  1. What are the various types of taxiway markings and what do they consist of? (AIM 2-3-4)
A

Markings for taxiways are yellow and consist of the following types:

a. Taxiway centerline—Single continuous yellow line; provides wingtip clearance when over center.
b. Taxiway edge—Used to define the edge of taxiway; two types, continuous and dashed.
c. Taxiway shoulder—Usually defined by taxiway edge markings; denotes pavement unusable for aircraft.
d. Surface painted taxiway direction—Yellow background with black inscription; supplements direction signs or when not possible to provide taxiway sign.
e. Surface painted location signs—Black background with yellow inscription; supplements location signs.
f. Geographic position markings—Located at points along low visibility taxi routes; used to identify aircraft during low visibility operations.

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11
Q
  1. What are the six types of signs installed on airports? (AIM 2-3-7 through 2-3-13)
A

a. Mandatory instruction signs—Red background/white inscription; denotes hazardous areas.
b. Location signs—Black background/yellow inscription; used to identify either a taxiway or runway on which an aircraft is located.
c. Direction signs—Yellow background/black inscription; identifies designation(s) of intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of intersection that pilot would expect to turn onto or hold short of.
d. Destination signs—Yellow background/black inscription; signs have arrow showing direction of taxi route to that destination.
e. Information signs—Yellow background/black inscription; provide pilot information on such things as areas that cannot be seen by control tower, radio frequencies, noise abatement procedures, etc.
f. Runway distance remaining signs—Black background with white numeral inscription; indicates distance (in thousands of feet) of landing runway remaining.

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12
Q
  1. The acronym LAHSO refers to what specific air traffic control procedure? (AIM 4-3-11)
A

“Land And Hold Short Operations.” At controlled airports, air traffic control may clear a pilot to land and hold short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on a runway other than an intersecting runway or taxiway. Pilots may accept such a clearance provided that the pilot-in-command determines that the aircraft can safely land and stop within the Available Landing Distance (ALD). Student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO should not participate in the program.

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13
Q
  1. Where can Available Landing Distance (ALD) data be found? (AIM 4-3-11)
A

ALD data are published in the special notices section of the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) and in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publications. Controllers will also provide ALD data upon request.

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14
Q
  1. Describe the visual aids that assist a pilot in determining where to hold short at an airport with LAHSO in effect. (AIM 4-3-11)
A

The visual aids consist of a three-part system of yellow hold-short markings, red and white signage and, in certain cases, in-pavement lighting. Pilots are cautioned that not all airports conducting LAHSO have installed any or all of the LAHSO markings, signage, or lighting.

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15
Q
  1. Describe runway hold-short markings and signs. (AIM 2-3-5)
A

Runway holding position markings—indicate where an aircraft is supposed to stop when approaching a runway. They consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, spaced six or twelve inches apart, and extending across the width of the taxiway or runway. The solid lines are always on the side where the aircraft is to hold.
Runway holding position sign—located at the holding position on taxiways that intersect a runway or on runways that intersect other runways. These signs have a red background with a white inscription and contain the designation of the intersecting runway.

16
Q
  1. Describe a displaced threshold. (AIM 2-3-3)
A

It is a threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. Displacement of the threshold reduces the length of the runway available for landings. The portion of the runway behind it is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings from the opposite direction. A ten-foot-wide white threshold bar is located across the width of the runway at the displaced threshold. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold. White arrowheads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar.

17
Q
  1. Describe a tri-color light VASI system. (AIM 2-1-2)
A

A tri-color visual approach slope indicator (VASI) normally consists of a single light unit projecting a three-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway. The visual glide path provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10 degrees of the extended runway centerline and to 4 NM from the runway threshold.
Red—Below glidepath
Amber—Above glidepath
Green—On glidepath

18
Q
  1. What is PAPI? (AIM 2-1-2)
A

The precision approach path indicator (PAPI) uses light units similar to the VASI but are installed in a single row of either two or four light units. These systems have an effective visual range of about 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles at night. The row of light units is normally installed on the left side of the runway.

19
Q
  1. What is PVASI? (AIM 2-1-2)
A

Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally consist of a single light unit projecting a two-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway upon which the indicator is installed. The useful range of the system is about four miles during the day and up to ten miles at night.
Pulsating white light—Above glidepath
Steady white light—On glidepath
Steady red light—Slightly below glidepath
Pulsating red light—Well below glidepath