69 - depression (ott) Flashcards

1
Q

Risk of Recurrence
1 episode: ___ - ___ %
2 episodes: ___ %
3 episodes: ___ %

A

50-60%
70%
90%

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2
Q

risk factors for depression

A
  • female sex
  • middle age
  • single
  • white
  • low economic status
  • unemployment
  • physical disability
  • lack of social support
  • stressful life events/adverse childhood experiences
  • prior episodes or suicide attempts
  • co-morbid medical disorders
  • co-morbid substance use disorder
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3
Q

disease course

occurs at any age, but commonly seen in early adulthood ___ - ___ s

symptoms develop over ___ to ___

usually see a response to treatment, but not aggressive enough to achieve ___

remission = a period of __ or more months with no symptoms or only __ - __ symptoms
- remission is possible and is the treatment goal

A
  • 20-30
  • days, weeks
  • remission
  • 2, 1-2
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4
Q
A
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5
Q

Recurrence

  • risk becomes lower overtime as duration of ___ increases
  • persistent mild symtpms during remission is a predictor of ___
  • function ___ during the episode and goes back to baseline upon remission
A
  • remission
  • recurrence
  • deteriorates
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6
Q

DSM-5 Diagnostic Criteria

at least one of the symptoms must be ___ mood or loss of ___ or pleasure in doing things
- symptoms must cause clinically significant impairment in functioning
- no history of ___
- not attributed to the psychological effects of a ___ or another condition

A
  • depressed
  • interest
  • mania
  • substance
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7
Q

DSM-5 Diagnostic Criteria Mnemonic

SIGE CAPS

A
  • sleep (insomnia/hypersomnia)
  • interest decreased
  • guilt/worthlessness
  • energy loss/fatigue
  • concentration difficulties
  • appetite change
  • psychomotor agitation/retardation
  • suicidal ideation
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8
Q

depression specifiers

with anxious distress
- higher ___ risk
- longer duration of illness
- ___ treatment response

with melancholic features
- anhedonia
- psychomotor ___ /agitation worse in the ___ , more likely in ___

with atypical features
- ___ mood
- weight ___
- hypersomnia, more likely in ___ patients

A
  • suicide
  • poor
  • retardation, elderly
  • reactive
  • gain
  • younger
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9
Q

depression specifiers

with psychosis
- hallucinations/delusions
- may or may not be congruent with ___

with catatonia
- stupor, blunt affect, extreme ___ , negativism, psychomotor ___ , posturing, echolalia

with peripartum onset
- occurs during pregnancy or ___ weeks following birth

with seasonal pattern
- symptoms have a relationship to the time of the year (fall/winter) and remit in the spring

A
  • mood
  • withdrawals, retardation
  • 4
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10
Q

self administered rating scales

  • depression: ___
  • depression (clinical trials): ___
  • bipolar: ___
A
  • (PHQ9) - patient health questionnaire
  • (QIDS-R-16) - quick inventory of depressive symptomatology self report
  • (MDQ) - mood disorder questionnaire
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11
Q

goals of treatment

1) reduced or eliminate s/s of depression
2) restore ___ and psychosocial functioning to baseline
3) reduce the risk of ___ and recurrence
4) reduce the risk of harmful consequences ( ___ ideation)

A
  • occupational
  • relapse
  • suicidal
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12
Q

phases of treatment

acute:
- __ - __ weeks or remission of symptoms
- Goal: induce ___

continuation:
- __ - __ additional months, recommended for all patients
- Goal: prevent ___

maintenance:
- patient-specific ___
- often indefinite treatment if ___ or greater major depressive episodes
- Goal: prevent ___

A
  • 6-12
  • remission
  • 4-9
  • relapse
  • duration
  • 3
  • recurrence
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13
Q

SSRIs

___ (Lexapro)

dose range: 5-10 mg/day

clinical pearls
- pure S enantiomer of citalopram
- substrate of ___

A

escitalopram
- 2C19

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14
Q

Risk of Suicidality

boxed warning for suicidaily in ___ antidepressant medications (for patients less than or equal to ___ years of age)
- decreased risk in those __ and onlder

closely monitor for increased ___ and changes in behavior during the first 1-2 months of therapy and after any dose changes

A
  • ALL, 24
  • 65
  • suicidality
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15
Q

SSRIs

___ (Celexa)

dose range: 10-40 mg/day
- > 60 years: do not exceed 20 mg

clinical pearls
- dose dependent ___ prolongation
- substrate of ___ and ___

A

citalopram
- QTc
- 2C19 and 3A4

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16
Q

SSRIs

___ (Prozac)

dosage range: 10-80 mg/day

clinical pearls:
- weekly DR oral formulation (90 mg/week)
- ___ t 1/2 (96-144 hrs)
- activating potential
- ___ and ___ inhibitor (norfluoxetine) - active

A

flucoxetine
long
CYP 2D6, 3A4

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17
Q

SSRIs

___ (Luvox)

dosage range: 50-300 mg/day

clinical pearls
- indicated for ___ treatment
- inhibitor of ___ and ___

A

fluvoxamine
- OCD
- 1A2, 2C19

not super common

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18
Q

SSRIs

___ (Paxil)

dosage range:
- 10-60 mg/day
- 12.5-75 mg/day

clinical pearls
- must ___ due to ___ effects
- weight ___, sedation
- ___ wall defect risk to fetus
- inhibits ___ and ____

A

paroxetine
- taper, anticholinergic
- gain
- septal
- 2D6, 2B6

Ott doesnt like this drug (hard to stop)

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19
Q

SSRIs

___ (Zoloft)

dosage range: 25-200 mg/day

clinical pearls
- more ___ upset than other antidepressants
- inhibitor of ___ , ___ , and ___

A

sertraline
- GI
- 2C19, 2D6, 3A4

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20
Q

SSRIs - Adverse Effects/Key Points

  • onset of action in __ - ___ weeks
  • full dose response in ___ - ___ weeks

AE
- variable sedation
- weight gain ( ___ )
- weight loss ( ___ )
- increased ___ risk ( ___ inhibition)
- hypo ___ (especially in elderly)
- ___ dysfunction
- anxiety/agitation (upon initiation)
- emotional blunting
- decreased ___ mineral density

A
  • 1-2
  • 4-6
  • paroxetine
  • fluoxetine
  • bleeding, platelet
  • hyponatremia
  • sexual
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21
Q

SNRIS

___ (Pristiq)

dose range: 50-400 mg/day

clinical pearls
- active metabolite of ___
- dose limiting SE: ___
- flate dose response curve for doses 50-400 mg/day
- no major ___ interactions

A

desvenlafaxine
- venlafaxine
- nausea
- CYP

Ott has never had a patient go above 100 mg/day

22
Q

SNRIs

___ (Cymbalta)

dose range: 30-120 mg/day
- doses > 60 mg do not increase the response

clinical pearls
- slow titration or divided dosing help with ___
- FDA warning for ___
- new dosage form: Drizalma Sprinkle
- inhibitor of ___

Otts favorite, can also help with pain

A

duloxetine
- nausea
- hepatotoxicity
- 2D6

23
Q

SNRIs

___ (Fetzima)

dosage range: 40-120 mg/day

clinical pearls
- must adjust in ___ impairment or strong ___ inhibitors
- rare - seizures/glaucoma
- substrate ___

A

levomilnacipran
- renal, 3A4
- 3A4

24
Q

SNRIs

___ (Savella)

dosage range: 12.5-200 mg/day

clinical pearls
- indicated for ___
- renal dosing adjustments

A

milnacipran
- fibromyalgia

25
Q

SNRIs

___ (Effexor)

dosage range: 75-327 mg/day

clinical pearls
- must be > ___ mg/day to have NE effects
- ___ inhibitor at higher doses
- substrate ___ and ___

A

venlafaxine
- 150
- 2D6
- 2D6, 3A4

26
Q

SNRIs - AE/Key Points

  • onset of action in __ - ___ weeks
  • full dose response in ___ - ___ weeks

useful in ___ syndrome, musculoskeletal pain, fibromyalgia, and ___ pain

duloxetine: obtain ___ at baseline and when symptomatic or every ___ months

A
  • 1-2
  • 4-6
  • pain, neuropathic
  • LFTs, 6
27
Q

SNRIs - AE/Key Points

  • ___ elevation
  • sweating
  • variable sedation
  • increased bleeding risk (platelet inhibition)
  • hyponatremia (especially in elderly)
  • sexual dysfunction
  • anxiety and agitation
  • ___
  • decreased bone mineral density
A
  • BP
  • nausea
28
Q

TCAs

blockade of reuptake transporter ( ___ , ___ , and ___ ) inhibits the reuptake of 5HT, NE, and DA

___ (Elavil) - ___ amine

dose range: 50-300 mg/day

Clinical pearls
- used to lower doses for neuropathic pain

A
  • SERT, NET, DAT

amitriptyline, tertiary

29
Q

TCAs - AE/key points

more often used for ___ ___ syndromes than depression
- amitriptyline or nortriptyline

side effects often limit higher doses
- ___ : sedation, reduced seizure threshold, confusion
- ___ : blurred vision, urinary retention, consipation
- cardiovascular: orthostatic hypotension, ___ cardia
- other: weight ___ , sexual dysfunction

Narrow therapeutic index
- fatal in overdose as low as 1000 mg (4-10 tablets) due to cardiac ___ or ___

A

neuropathic pain
- CNS
- anticholinergics
- tachycardia
- gain
- arrhythmias, seizures

30
Q

MAO Inhibitors

___ (Marplan)
- 20-60 mg/day

___ (Nardil)
- 45-90 mg/mL

___ (Ensam)
- patch: 6-12 mg/day

___ (Parnate)
- 20-60 mg/day

A
  • iscarboxazid
  • phenelzine
  • selegiline
  • tranylcypromaine
31
Q

MAO Inhibitors

Clinical pearls
- must have ___ week washout period before switching antidepressants ( 5 week washout period if switching from ___ )
- all require ___ diet, except ___
- caution due to HTN ___ and ___ syndrome
- 3rd-4th line option

A
  • 2, fluoxetine
  • tyramine, selegiline patch
  • ## crisis, serotonin
32
Q

Selegiline Patch (Ensam)

selective ___ inhibition at lower dose at lower doses
- must be used as monotherapy

administration
- rotate patch ___ to prevent irritation, do not cut or expose to direct heat

tyramine diet NOT required with the ___ mg patch
- required for 9 mg and 12 mg

adverse effects
- ___ tension, dry mouth ___ , headache, GI upset

A
  • MAO-B
  • daily
  • 6 mg
  • hypotension, insomnia
33
Q

MAOis CI

  • ____ - adrena tumor causing increased BP
  • ___ or ___ dysfunction
  • ___ diseases
  • excessive ___ use
  • elective surgery
  • concomitant ____
  • cardiovascular disease
  • use of other ___ medications
A
  • pheochromocytoma
  • hepatic, renal
  • cerebrovascular
  • caffeine
  • sympathomimetics
  • serotonergic
34
Q

MAOis - hypertensive crisis

___ diet is required with MAOis - when this builds up, caused increased BP

A

tyramine

35
Q

bupropion (Wellbutrin)

MOA: ___ and ___ reuptake inhibitor
- stimulating - ___ and ___ suppression
- some misuse potential, similar structure to cathinones/ ___

Dosing
- SR/ __ dosing: 150-450 mg/day
- if using SR, give second dose no later than __ pm

clinical pearls
- ___ inhibitor
- CI in active ___ and ___ disorders
- can be used in combination with ___ and ___

A
  • DA, NE
  • insomnia, appetite
  • bath salts
  • XL
  • 4 pm
  • 2D6
  • seizure, eating
  • SSRIs, SNRIs

Ott prefers XL (SR seizures) even for smoking cessation

36
Q

mirtazapine (Remeron)

Mechanism
- presynaptic ____ blockage as well as 5HT __ , 5HT __ , and ___ blockade

dosing - 7.5-45 mg/day
- sedation and increased appetite occur with doses less than or equal to ___ mg/day

clinical pearls
- substrate ___ , ___ , ___
- warnings: ___ increased ___
- can be used in combination with ___ and ___

A
  • a2, 5HT2, 5HT3, H2
  • 15
  • 1A2, 2D6, 3A4
  • agranulocytosis, cholesterol
  • SSRIs, SNRIs
37
Q

trazodone (Desyrel)

Mechanism
- selectively inhibits ___ reuptake and acts as antagonist at 5HT __ , 5HT2, H1, and a1

dosing: 150-600 mg/day
- ___ doses needed for depression
- off label for ___ : 50-150 mg at bedtime

drug interactions
- trazodone → (CYP ___ ) → m-CPP → (CYP ___ ) → inactive metabolites

SE
- orthostatic hypotension
- risk of ___ - medical emergency

A
  • 5HT, 5HT1
  • high
  • insomnia
  • 3A4, 2D6
  • priapism
38
Q

vilazodone (Viibryd)

mechanism
- primarily SSRI, may have some 5HT1a ___ which may provide anxiolytic effects
- do not use in combination with ___ and ___

dosing
- 10 mg once daily x7 days, 20 mg once daily x7 days for a target dose of 40 mg once daily

clinical pearls
- take with ___
- significant ___
- ___ increases bioavailability
- substrate ___
- reduce target dose to 20 mg with strong 3A4 inhibitors
- AE: insomnia, nausea, diarrhea, sexual dysfunction

A
  • agonism
  • SSRIs, SNRIs
  • food
  • nausea
  • food
  • 3A4
39
Q

vortioxetine (Trintellix)

mechanism
- SSRI + 5HT1A ___ + 5HT3 ___
- do not use in combination with ___ and ___

dosing
- 10 mg once daily with meals
- target dose of 20 mg once daily

clinical pearls
- possibly less ___ dysfunction
- substrate ___
- reduce target dose to 10 mg daily with strong inhibitors
- AE: ___ , vomiting, constipation

A
  • agonist, antagonist
  • SSRIs, SNRIs
  • sexual
  • 2D6
  • nausea
40
Q

serotonin sydrome

medical ___ due to excessive amounts of serotonin in the CNS

may be caused by:
- overdose
- combined use of serotonergic drugs
- drug inteactions

serotonergic agents
- Li
- serotonergic antidepressants
- buspirone
- linezolid
- amphetamines
- dextromethorphan
- triptans
- st john’s wort
- tramadol
- fentanyl
- cocaine
- LSD

A

emergency

41
Q

serotonin syndrome - treatment

___ the offending agent + supportive care

potentially could use serotonin blockers
- ___ (variable efficacy)

70% of patients recover within 24 hours

A

stop
cyproheptadine

42
Q

antidepressant withdrawal syndrome

  • occurs due to abrupt cessation of antidepressant
  • common with ALL antidepressants EXCEPT ___
  • risk can be minimized by slow dose taper over 1-2 weeks
  • antidepressants with ___ activity should be tapered no matter what
  • symptoms can mimic those of depresion (agitation, irritability, GI disturbance, “brain ___ “)
  • NOT ___ but extremely uncomfortable
A
  • fluoxetine
  • anticholinergic
  • zaps
  • life-threatening
43
Q

augmentation agents (8)

A
  • antipsychotics
  • Li
  • anticonvulsants
  • pindolol
  • triiodothyronine (T3)
  • BZDs
  • buspirone
  • atomoxetine
44
Q

augmentation - atypical antipsychotics

5HT2a ___ and partial 5HT1a ___
- indirect effects on NE transmission
- dosing is ___ for depression than with other disease states

FDA approved augmentation agents (4)
- ___ (Abilify) 2-15 mg/day
- ___ (Rexulti) 0.5-3 mg/day
- ___ (Vraylar) 1.5-3 mg/day
- ___ (Seroquel) 50-300 mg/day

additional agents
- ___ / fluoxetine (Symbyax) 6/25-25/50 mg/day
- ___ (Risperdl) 1-3 g/day

A
  • antagonism, agonism
  • lower
  • aripiprazole
  • brexpiprazole
  • cariprazine
  • quetiapine
  • olanzapine
  • risperidone

aripiprazole is Ott’s favorite

45
Q

antidepressants for specific purposes

post-partum depression - allosteric modulator of allopregnanolone
- ___ - IV only, __ hours infusion, excessive ___ boxed warning, REMS program
- ___ - oral dose, 14 day dosing, boxed warning for ___ driving (CNS depression)

treatment-resistant depression
- ___ nasal spray - NMDA receptor antagonist
- also use for MDD with suicidal ideation
- induction and maintenance phases, REMS program to give in clinic, stay in clinic for 2 hours post dose

A
  • brexanolone, 60, sedation
  • zuranolone, impaired
  • esketamine
46
Q

overall key counseling points

  • may take ___ - ___ weeks to see beneficial effects of antidepressant
  • must be taken as prescribed
  • need to continue medication for ___ - ___ months yo decrease risk of recurrence
  • abrupt d/c can lead to antidepressant ___ syndrome
  • possible increase in suicidal thinking during the first few ___ of therapay
A
  • 2-4
  • 6-9
  • withdrawal
  • weeks
47
Q

non-pharmacologic treatment

___ is most common

mild depression or episodes without psychosis may use psychotherapy without drug therapy if
- history of response
- patient preference
- medication CI
- pregnancy

A

psychotherapy

only paroxetine is teratogenic

48
Q

electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

unilateral or bilateral placement of ___
- 10-15 min procedure

administration
- 2-3 times weekly as induction
- usual course if 6-12 treatments
- continue until maximal response
- can use as maintenance

advantages
- efficacy in treatment ___
- can continue drug therapy
- age not a factor
- safe in pregnancy

disadvantages
- temporary memory loss
- stigma
- CI in recent ___ or hemorrhagic stroke or if loose teeth

A
  • electrodes
  • resistance
  • MI
49
Q

other non-pharmacologic optioins

  • ___ nerve stimulation
  • transcranial ___ stimulation
A
  • vagus
  • magnetic
50
Q

steps to manage depression

A