44 - Alzheimer's Flashcards

1
Q

AD is the major cause of demantia
- 50-80% of dementia cases
- ___ : ___ female:male
- ___ is major factor

A

2:1
age

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2
Q

AD symptoms

  • memory loss (especially ___ memories)
  • impaired ability to learn
  • impaired ability to carry out daily activities, confusion, untidiness
  • anxiet, suspicion, ___
  • ___ dysfunction can also occur in late stage
A

recent
hallucinations
motor

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3
Q

enviromental risk factors

  • age
  • low ___ level
  • reduced ___ and ___ activity in late life
  • risks for ___ disease
  • ___ injury
A

educational
mental, physical
vascular
head

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4
Q

AD neuropathology:
- loss of brain ___
- ___ plaques and ___ tangles
- ___ loss

spreads though ___ as disease progresses

A
  • volume
  • amyloid, neurofibrillary
  • synapse
  • cortex
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5
Q

amyloid plaques are located ___ and consist of ___ peptide

neurofibrillary tangles are located ___ and consist of hyperphosphorylated ___

A

extracellularly
amyloid-B

intracellularly
tau

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6
Q

neuropathology primarily affects areas of higher cognitive function
- ___ cortex and ___ (memory formation/consolidation)
- basal ___ cholinergic systems (learning)
- ___ (memory learning, cognition)
- nucleus basalis (memory, attention, arousal, perception)

A
  • entorhinal, hippocampus
  • forebrain
  • neocortex
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7
Q

amyloid plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, and synapse loss

  • neurons with tangles or close to plaques get their synapses destroyed
  • synapse loss results in reduced levels of neurotransmitters, especially ___ , but also serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine
  • dysregulated ___ = excess excitotoxicity and neurotoxicity
A

ACh
glutamate

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8
Q

which is the key pathogenic molecule? AB or tau?

genetic evidence suggests ___
- mutations in gene encoding precursor protein ___ are linked to early onset AD
- gene located in chromosome ___
- mutations in gene encoding presenilin proteins involved in cleaving ___ from ___ are linked to early onset

A

AB
- APP
- 21
- AB, APP

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9
Q

prooductions of AB peptide from APP

  • __ and __ secretases release AB from APP. AB __ forms fibrils better than AB40
  • __ secretase cuts the middle of the AB segment and releases a non-toxic fragment
  • mutations in APP gene favor ___ or ___ secretase resulting in more AB ___
  • mutations in the gene encoding presenilin 1 or 2 affect ___ secretase, resulting in more AB ___

hotdogs

A
  • beta, gamma
  • 42
  • alpha
  • beta, gamma, 42
  • gamma, 42
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10
Q

effects of AB aggregation on tau patho

AB aggregation is thought to promote tau ___, leading to neurofibrillary tangle formation, ___ anomalies, and disruption of axonal ___

A

hyperphosphorylation
cytoskeletal
trafficking

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11
Q

neurofibillary tangle formation results in cytoskeletal defects

in unhealthy areas where tangles have accumulated, the ___ tracks are disrupted and disorganized, resulting in defects in axonal ___ that lead to synaptic dysfunction

A

cytoskeletal
transport

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12
Q

effects of AB aggregation on microglial activation

AB is thought to induce neurotoxicity indirectly by triggering ___ activation
- activation leads to release of pro-inflammatory cytokines that cause ___
- also leads to release of reactive ___ and ___ species that cause ___ stress

A

microglial
- neuroinflammation
- nitrogen, oxygen, oxidative

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13
Q

impact of ApoE genetics on AD risk

ApoE - responsible for transporting ___ in brain
- altered function can affect AB aggregation/clearance

individuals with one or two ApoE ___ alleles have an increased risk of AD whereas inheritance of ApoE __ allele decreased AD risk

A

cholesterol
4
2

ApoE2 = protective
ApoE4 = increased risk

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14
Q

cholinesterase inhibitors

MOA: block breakdown of ___ and compensate for its loss resulting from degeneration of cholinergic nerve terminals in AD

donepezil ( ___ ) - specific reversible inhibitor of ___

rivastigmine - inhibits ___ and ___ (delivered PO or with a patch)

galantamine - selective, reversible inhibitor of ___ and enhances the action of ___ on nicotinic receptors (increases release from cholinergic neurons)

A

ACh
- Aricept, acetylcholinesterase
- acetylcholinesterase, butyrylcholinesterase
- acetylcholinesterase, ACh

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15
Q

anti-glutamatergic therapy

___ : NMDA antagonist that block glutamatergic neurotransmission via a ___ mechanism, reduces ___

combo drug: memantine ER + donepezil: ___

A

memantine
- noncompetitive, excitotoxicity

Namzaric

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16
Q

strategies for disease modifying therapy

1) AB generation ( __ and __ sectretase inhibitors)
2) AB aggregation (inositol, polyphenol, peptides)
3) AB clearance (vaccines, AB antibodies - ___, ___, and ___ )
4) tau kinase inhibitors (lithium, valproate)
5) glutamate mediated excitoxicity (troriluzole)
6) inflammation of oxidatives stress (NSAIDs, dietary antioxidants)

A

1) beta, gamma
2) aducanumab, lecanemab, donanemab

17
Q

imaging

___ (18F)
- radiolabeled agent that binds ___ visualized by PET scanning
- may help to clarify role of amyloid in pathophysiology and lead to improved treatments

radiolabled agent apecific for tau: 18F ___

A

Florbetapir
- B-amyloid
- Flortaucipir

18
Q

Non-AD dementias

vascular dementia
- impaired ___ or executive ___ is a more common initial symptom than the memory loss associated with AD
- occurs as a result of brain injury associated with vascular disease or ___
- nature of deficit determined by the ___ of the brain injury

A
  • judgement, function
  • stroke
  • location
19
Q

Non-AD dementias

dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB)
- combination of cognitive decline and ___ symptoms
- cognitive decline more prevalent at disease onset than for PD
- visual ___ are a core diagnostic feature
- neuropathology is characterized by the presence of ___ Lewy bodies

A

parkinsonian
hallucinations
cortical

20
Q

Non-AD Dementias

Frontotemporal dementia (FTD)
- Pick’s disease
- ___ behavior, poor ___ control, antisocial behavior
- disturbances in executive functioning
- neuropathology is characterized by presence of ___ accumulations (Pick’s bodies)

A
  • disinhibited, impulse
  • tau