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POPCORN > 601-700 > Flashcards

601-700 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the most characteristic finding in autoimmune hemolytic anemia:

A. Increased reticulocyte count
B. Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia
C. Peripheral spherocytosis
D. Positive direct antiglobulin test

A

D. Positive direct antiglobulin test

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2
Q

Which of the following is most closely associated with iron deficiency anemia?

A. Iron overload in tissue
B. Macrocytes
C. Basophilic stippling
D. Chronic blood loss

A

D. Chronic blood loss

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3
Q

Hemolysis in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is:

A. Temperature-dependent
B. Complement-independent
C. Antibody-mediated
D. Caused by a red cell membrane defect

A

D. Caused by a red cell membrane defect

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4
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of cellular changes as megakaryoblasts mature into megakaryocytes within the bone marrow?

A. Progressive decrease in overall cell size
B. Increasing basophilia of cytoplasm
C. Nuclear division without cytoplasmic maturation
D. Fusion of the nuclear lobes

A

C. Nuclear division without cytoplasmic maturation

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5
Q

Which of the following cytokines is most responsible for eosinophil di erentiation and release from the bone marrow?

A. IL-1
B. IL-2
C. IL-4
D. IL-5

A

D. IL-5

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6
Q

Which description best fits the Donath-Landsteiner antibody?

A. lgM cold agglutinin
B. Biphasic lgM hemolysin
C. lgG biphasic hemolysin
D. lgG warm agglutinin

A

C. lgG biphasic hemolysin

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7
Q

The majority of the iron in an adult is found as a constituent of:

A. Hemoglobin
B. Hemosiderin
C. Myoglobin
D. Transferrin

A

A. Hemoglobin

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8
Q

Effect of platelet clumping in automated cell counting:

A. Decrease platelets and WBCs
B. Decrease platelets, increase WBCs
C. Increase platelets and WBCs
D. Increase platelets, decrease WBCs

A

B. Decrease platelets, increase WBCs

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9
Q

Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin-A?

A. M,N
B. Le^a, Le^b
C. S, s
D. P, P1, Pk

A

A. M,N

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10
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?

A. Associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B. Found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis
C. Detected at lower temperatures in the serum of normal
individuals
D. Found only in the serum of group O individuals

A

B. Found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis

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11
Q

Which of the following antigens is most likely to be involved in hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?

A. Le^a
B. P1
C. M
D. K

A

D. K

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12
Q

Mixed field agglutination encountered in ABO forward typing with no history of transfusion would most likely be due to:

A. Bombay phenotype (Oh)
B. T activation
C. A3 red cells
D. Positive indirect antiglobulin test

A

C. A3 red cells

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13
Q

A patient’s serum sample is reactive with all cells except the auto control when tested by polyethylene glycol-antihuman globulin (PEG-AHG). The patient’s phenotype is confirmed as:

● C-E+c+e+
● K-k+, Kp(a-b+)
● Js(a-b+)
● Fy(a-b+)
● Jk(a-b-)
● M+N+S+s+

Phenotypically similar cells are tested and found to be
nonreactive. In what population of donors are we most likely to find a compatible donor for this patient?

A. African
B. Middle Eastern
C. South American
D. Polynesian

A

D. Polynesian

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14
Q

In an emergency situation, what type of blood should be given to a female patient of child-bearing age if the ABO group and Rh type are unknown?
A. Group 0, Whole Blood
B. Group 0, Rh-negative Red Blood Cells
C. Group 0, Rh-positive Red Blood Cells
D. Group 0, Washed Red Blood Cells

A

B. Group 0, Rh-negative Red Blood Cells

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15
Q

A patient admitted to the trauma unit requires emergency release of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP). Which of the following blood groups of FFP should be issued?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O

A

C. AB

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16
Q

Severe intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by antibodies of which blood group system?

A. ABO
B. Rh
C. KEL
D. FY

A

A. ABO

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17
Q

Which of the following blood group systems is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A. LE
B. JK
C. LU
D. I

A

B. JK

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18
Q

ISBT BEGINNING WITH 030:

A. ABO
B. Scianna
C. John Milton Hagen
D. Rh-associated glycoprotein (RHAG)

A

D. Rh-associated glycoprotein (RHAG)

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19
Q

What is the maximum volume of blood that can be collected from a 110-lb donor, including samples for processing?

A. 450 mL
B. 500 mL
C. 525 mL
D. 550 mL

A

C. 525 mL

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20
Q

When RBCs are stored, there is a “shift to the left.” This
means:

A. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases, owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG.
B. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG.
C. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG.
D. Hemoglobin

A

B. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG.

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21
Q

What are the possible ABO phenotypes of the offspring from the mating of a group A to a group B individual?

A. O, A, B
B. A, B
C. A, B, AB
D. O, A, B, AB

A

D. O, A, B, AB

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22
Q

An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions:
● Anti-A 4+
● Anti-B 4+
● Anti-A1 Neg
● A1 cells 2+
● B cells Neg
The reactions above may be seen in a patient who is:

A. A1 with acquired B
B. A2B with anti-A1
C. AB with increased concentrations of protein in the serum
D. AB with an autoantibody

A

B. A2B with anti-A1

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23
Q

Which of the following ABO blood groups contains the least amount of H substance?

A. A1B
B. A2
C. B
D. O

A

A. A1B

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24
Q

How are Rh antigens inherited?

A. Autosomal recessive alleles
B. Sex-linked genes
C. Codominant alleles
D. X-linked

A

C. Codominant alleles

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25
Q

Biochemically speaking, what type of molecules are Rh
antigens?

A. Glycophorins
B. Simple sugars
C. Proteins
D. Lipids

A

C. Proteins

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26
Q

Anti-LW will not react with which of the following?

A. Rh-positive RBCs
B. Rh-negative RBCs
C. Rh null RBCs
D. Rh:33 RBCs

A

C. Rh null RBCs

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27
Q

Which of the following most commonly causes an individual to type RhD positive yet possess anti-D?

A. Genetic weak D
B. Partial D
C. C in trans to RHD
D. D epitopes on RhCE protein

A

B. Partial D

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28
Q

The antibody to this high-prevalence antigen demonstrates mixed-field agglutination that appears shiny and refractile under the microscope:

A. Vel
B. JMH
C. Jr^a
D. Sd^a

A

D. Sd^a

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29
Q

Which of the following is the most common antibody seen in the blood bank after ABO and Rh antibodies?

A. Anti-Fy^a
B. Anti-k
C. Anti-Js^a
D. Anti-K

A

D. Anti-K

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30
Q

Anti-Sd^a has been identified in patient ALF. What
substance would neutralize this antibody and allow detection of other alloantibodies?

A. Saliva
B. Hydatid cyst fluid
C. Urine
D. Human breast milk

A

C. Urine

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31
Q

Which of the following is a method for determining
approximate volume of fetal-maternal bleed?

A. Kleihauer-Betke test
B. Eluate testing
C. Nucleic acid amplification testing
D. Antibody screening

A

A. Kleihauer-Betke test

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32
Q

Which genotype(s) will give rise to the Bombay phenotype

A. HH only
B. HH and Hh
C. Hh and hh
D. hh only

A

D. hh only

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33
Q

A cell that is not actively dividing is said to be in:

A. Interphase
B. Prophase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase

A

A. Interphase

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34
Q

Which of the following enhancement mediums decreases the zeta potential, allowing antibody and antigen to come closer together?

A. LISS
B. Polyethylene glycol
C. Polybrene
D. ZZAP

A

A. LISS

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35
Q

What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are positive?

A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb theserum at 4°C
B. Retype the sample using a different lot numberof reagents
C. Use polyclonal typing reagents
D. Report the sample as group AB

A

A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb theserum at 4°C

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36
Q

Which donor unit is selected for a recipient with anti-c?

A. r ́r
B. R0R1
C. R2r ́
D. r ́ry

A

D. r ́ry

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37
Q

Which genotype usually shows the strongest reaction with anti-D?

A. DCE/DCE
B. Dce/dCe
C. D–/D–
D. -CE/-ce

A

C. D–/D–

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38
Q

What corrective action should be taken when rouleaux causes positive test results?

A. Perform a saline replacement technique
B. Perform an auto absorption
C. Run a panel
D. Perform an elution

A

A. Perform a saline replacement technique

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39
Q

A patient types as AB positive. Two units of blood have been ordered by the physician. Currently, the inventory shows:
No AB units
● 10 A-positive units
● 1 A-negative unit
● 5 B-positive units
● 20 O-positive units

Which should be set up for the major crossmatch?

A. A-positive units
B. O-positive units
C. B-positive units
D. Call another blood supplier for type-specific blood

A

A. A-positive units

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40
Q

A Kleihauer–Betke acid elution test identifies 40 fetal cells in 2,000 maternal red cells. How many full doses of RhIg are indicated?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

D. 4

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41
Q

A donor who has just donated 2 units of Apheresis Red
Blood Cells will be deferred from further blood donation for a minimum of how many weeks?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24

A

C. 16

42
Q

The transport temperature for Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced is:

A. 1-6°C
B. 1-10°C
C. 18-20°C
D. 20-24°C

A

B. 1-10°C

43
Q

A unit of Red Blood Cells expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small aliquots using a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in:

A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 5 days
D. 35 days

A

D. 35 days

44
Q

Upon inspection, a unit of Apheresis Platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal. The technologist should:

A. Issue without concern
B. Filter to remove the clots
C. Centrifuge to express off the clots
D. Quarantine for Gram stain and culture

A

D. Quarantine for Gram stain and culture

45
Q

Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced must be prepared by a method known to reduce the leukocyte count to:

A. <8.3 X 10^5
B. <5.0 x 10^6
C. <5.5 X 10^10
D. < 3.0 x 10^11

A

B. <5.0 x 10^6

46
Q

Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing units of FFP in 37°C water baths because they prevent:

A. The FFP bag from cracking when it contacts the warm water
B. Water from slowly dialyzing across the bag membrane
C. The entry ports from becoming contaminated with water
D. The label from peeling off as the water circulates in the bath

A

C. The entry ports from becoming contaminated with water

47
Q

Quality control of Apheresis Granulocytes must demonstrate which of the following granulocyte counts in 75% of units tested:

A. 1.0 X 10^10
B. 2.0 X 10^ 10
C. 3.0 X 10^10
D. 4.0 x 10^10

A

A. 1.0 X 10^10

48
Q

An important determinant of platelet viability during
storage is:

A. Plasma potassium concentration
B. Plasma pH
C. Prothrombin time
D. Activated partial thromboplastin time

A

B. Plasma pH

49
Q

What percentage of red blood cells must be retained when preparing Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced?

A. 50%
B. 70%
C. 85%
D. 100%

A

C. 85%

50
Q

In a quality assurance program, Cryoprecipitated AHF
must contain a minimum of how many international units of Factor VIII:

A. 60
B. 70
C. 80
D. 90

A

C. 80

51
Q

Transfusion of which of the following is needed to help correct hypofibrinogenemia due to DIC?

A. Whole Blood
B. Fresh Frozen Plasma
C. Cryoprecipitated AHF
D. Platelets

A

C. Cryoprecipitated AHF

52
Q

Which of the following transfusion reactions is
characterized by high fever, shock, hemoglobinuria, DIC and renal failure?

A. Bacterial contamination
B. Circulatory overload
C. Febrile
D. Anaphylactic

A

A. Bacterial contamination

53
Q

Hemoglobinuria, hypotension and generalized bleeding are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?

A. Allergic
B. Circulatory overload
C. Hemolytic
D. Anaphylactic

A

C. Hemolytic

54
Q

Which of the following transfusion reactions occurs after infusion of only a few milliliters of blood and gives no history of fever?

A. Febrile
B. Circulatory overload
C. Anaphylactic
D. Hemolytic

A

C. Anaphylactic

55
Q

Hives and itching are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?

A. Febrile
B. Allergic
C. Circulatory overload
D. Bacterial

A

B. Allergic

56
Q

Symptoms of dyspnea, hypoxemia, and pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion is most likely which type of reaction?

A. Anaphylactic
B. Hemolytic
C. Febrile
D. TRALI

A

D. TRALI

57
Q

Congestive heart failure, severe headache and/or peripheral edema occurring soon after transfusion is indicative of which type of transfusion reaction?

A. Hemolytic
B. Febrile
C. Anaphylactic
D. TACO

A

D. TACO

58
Q

RBCs that have been leukoreduced must contain less than______ and retain at least ______ of original RBCs.

A. 8 × 10^6 / 85%
B. 8 × 10^6 / 90%
C. 5 × 10^6 / 85%
D. 5 × 10^6 / 80%

A

C. 5 × 10^6 / 85%

59
Q

Which of the following can be given to an apheresis donor to increase the number of circulating granulocytes?

A. DDAVP
B. Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)
C. Immune globulin
D. G-CSF

A

D. G-CSF

60
Q

What component is most frequently involved with
transfusion-associated sepsis?

A. Plasma
B. Packed red blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Whole blood

A

C. Platelets

61
Q

The HLA genes are located on which chromosome?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

A

C. 6

62
Q

The majority of HLA antibodies belongs to what
immunoglobulin class?

A. IgD
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM

A

C. IgG

63
Q

Of the following diseases, which one has the highest relative risk in association with an HLA antigen?

A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Juvenile diabetes
C. Narcolepsy
D. Rheumatoid arthritis

A

A. Ankylosing spondylitis

64
Q

Cold AIHA is sometimes associated with infection by:

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Group A Streptococcus

A

B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

65
Q

The blood group involved in the autoantibody specificity in PCH is:

A. P
B. ABO
C. Rh
D. Lewis

A

A. P

66
Q

Which of the following blood groups reacts best with
an anti-H or anti-IH?

A. O
B. B
C. A2
D. A1

A

A. O

67
Q

The first retrovirus to be associated with human disease was:

A. HCV
B. HIV
C. HTLV-I
D. WNV

A

C. HTLV-I

68
Q

Individuals exposed to EBV maintain an asymptomatic
latent infection in:

A. B cells
B. T cells
C. All lymphocytes
D. Monocytes

A

A. B cells

69
Q

Aldosterone is involved in the reabsorption of:

A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Bicarbonate
D. Hydrogen ion

A

B. Sodium

70
Q

Testing specimens that contain high levels of ascorbate may effect the reading of all of these EXCEPT:

A. Bilirubin
B. Glucose
C. Nitrite
D. Urobilinogen

A

D. Urobilinogen

71
Q

Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:

A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite

A

B. Ketone and leukocytes

72
Q

Which of the following diseases results in the production and excretion of large amounts of homogentisic acid?

A. Melanuria
B. Tyrosyluria
C. Alkaptonuria
D. Maple syrup urine disease

A

C. Alkaptonuria

73
Q

A ∆A450 value that falls into zone I indicates:

A. A normal finding without significant hemolysis
B. Moderate hemolysis
C. Severe hemolysis
D. high fetal risk

A

A. A normal finding without significant hemolysis

74
Q

Which of the following practices has been useful in
reducing the incidence of transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)?

A. Use of Fresh Frozen Plasma from male donors
B. Use of Fresh Frozen Plasma from female donors
C. Pathogen reduction treatment of Fresh Frozen Plasma
D. Leukocyte-reduced Fresh Frozen Plasma

A

A. Use of Fresh Frozen Plasma from male donors

75
Q

Antimicrobial susceptibility testing of anaerobes is done by which of the following methods?

A. Broth disk elution
B. Disk agar diffusion
C. Microtube broth dilution
D. β-Lactamase testing

A

C. Microtube broth dilution

76
Q

Antimicrobial susceptibility testing of Bacteroides and
Clostridium sp. anaerobes are done by which of the following methods?

A. Broth microdilution
B. Agar dilution
C. E-test
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

77
Q

Increased risk of thrombosis:
1. Young-old
2. Old-old
3. Very old

A. 3 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

D. 1, 2 and 3

78
Q

In manual wedge technique, the PUSHER SLIDE is held
securely in the dominant hand at about:

A. 15 to 20 degree angle
B. 30 to 45 degree angle
C. 45 to 50 degree angle
D. 50 to 75 degree angle

A

B. 30 to 45 degree angle

79
Q

When the hematocrit is higher than normal (60%), as is found in patients with polycythemia or in newborns, the angle should be:

A. 15
B. 25
C. 35
D. 50

A

B. 25

80
Q

Uneven or dirty edge of spreader slide:

A. Ridges or waves in smear
B. Holes in smear
C. Artifacts or unusual cell appearance
D. Smear too thin

A

B. Holes in smear

81
Q

Uneven pressure on spreader slide:

A. Smear too short
B. Smear too long
C. Ridges or waves in smear
D. Artifacts or unusual cell appearance

A

C. Ridges or waves in smear

82
Q

RBC with membrane folded over:

A. Aplastic anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Hemoglobin C, hemoglobin SC disease
D. Sickle cell anemia, thalassemia

A

C. Hemoglobin C, hemoglobin SC disease

83
Q

Inadequate fibrinolysis:

a. Bleeding, incomplete wound healing
b. Bleeding and thrombosis
c. Clot extension and thrombosis
d. Clot extension and thrombosis, incomplete wound healing

A

c. Clot extension and thrombosis

84
Q

ADAMTS-13 deficiency is responsible for thrombocytopenia found in:’

A. TTP
B. DIC
C. HUS
D. ITP

A

A. TTP

85
Q

Which of the following is the preferred specimen for the initial compatibility testing in exchange transfusion therapy?

A. Maternal serum
B. Eluate prepared from infant’s red blood cells
C. Paternal serum
D. Infant’s post-exchange serum

A

A. Maternal serum

86
Q

The K (KEL1) antigen is:

A. Absent from the red cells of neonates
B. Strongly immunogenic
C. Destroyed by enzymes
D. Has a frequency of 50% in the random population

A

B. Strongly immunogenic

87
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?

A. Often associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn
B. Reacts best at room temperature or 4°C
C. Reacts best at 37°C
D. Is usually lgG

A

B. Reacts best at room temperature or 4°C

88
Q

What antigens would be found in the saliva of an individual with the genotype Sese Lele AO HH?

A. A, H
B. Le^b, A, H
C. Le^a, Le^b, A, H
D. Le^a

A

C. Le^a, Le^b, A, H

89
Q

Why does vaccination against hepatitis B virus (HBV) also prevent hepatitis D virus (HDV) infections?
A. An immunogen from HBV in the vaccine is also associated with HDV.
B. The HBV vaccine induces formation of heterophile antibodies that cross react with HDV.
C. The HBV vaccine stimulates liver cells to produce antiviral molecules active against all hepatitis viruses.
D. HDV requires the host to be concurrently infected with HBV.

A

D. HDV requires the host to be concurrently infected with HBV.

90
Q

The reason that group O individuals have the most amount of H antigen on their red cells compared to other ABO phenotypes is:
A. Group O individuals produce more precursor type I chain
B. Group A, B and AB individuals are heterozygous for the H gene
C. The O gene produces more transferase enzyme, which produces more H antigen
D. H antigen is left unchanged by the absence of A and/or B transferase enzymes

A

D. H antigen is left unchanged by the absence of A and/or B transferase enzymes

91
Q

The red cells of a nonsecretor (se/se) will most likely type as:

A. Le (a-b-)
B. Le (a+b+)
C. Le (a+b-)
D. Le (a-b+)

A

C. Le (a+b-)

92
Q

This diagnostic stage of Strongyloides stercoralis is best seen in stool using fecal concentration techniques:

A. Eggs
B. Rhabditiform larvae
C. Filariform larvae
D. Adult worms

A

B. Rhabditiform larvae

93
Q

Which of the following Mycobacterium is most noted for being associated with patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?

A. M. avium-intracellulare complex
B. M. marinum
C. M. kansasii
D. M. bovis

A

A. M. avium-intracellulare complex

94
Q

Nonmotile, non-spore-forming, obligate aerobe, acid-fast bacillus that often appears beaded or unstained using Gram stain; it is distinguished by its ability to form stable mycolate complexes with arylmethane dyes (carbolfuchsin, auramine, and rhodamine):

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Hemophilus influenzae
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

95
Q

A complete deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine
phosphoribosyltransferase results in which disease?

A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
B. Modification of diet in renal disease
C. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Reye’s syndrome
E. Megaloblastic anemia

A

A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

96
Q

RTE cell from the proximal convoluted tubules:

A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these

A

A. Columnar or convoluted

97
Q

RTE cell from the distal convoluted tubules:

A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these

A

C. Round or oval

98
Q

RTE cells from the collecting duct:

A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these

A

B. Cuboidal

99
Q

Which of the following aids in differentiating a spherical transitional cell from a round renal tubular cell?

A. Spherical transitional cell is larger
B. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the renal tubular cell
C. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the spherical transitional cell
D. Round renal tubular cell is larger

A

B. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the renal tubular cell

100
Q

The IQ 200 system uses Auto Particle Recognition (APR)
software that preclassifies urine particles in the photographs based on size, shape, texture and contrast into ____ categories.

A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15

A

POPCORN (7 decks)

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