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201-300 Flashcards

1
Q

When drawing a blood alcohol specimen, it is acceptable to clean the arm with:

A. Benzalkonium chloride
B. Isopropyl alcohol
C. Methanol prep
D. Tincture of iodine

A

A. Benzalkonium chloride

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2
Q

Antigenic groups identified by different sets of antibodies reacting in a similar manner to certain standard cell lines best describes:

A. Cytokines
B. Clusters of differentiation (CD)
C. Neutrophilic granules
D. Opsonins

A

B. Clusters of differentiation (CD)

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3
Q

Stem cells are present in the first few hours after an ovum is fertilized; most versatile type of stem cell:

A. Multipotential stem cells
B. Pluripotential stem cells
C. Totipotential stem cells
D. Any of these

A

C. Totipotential stem cells

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4
Q

Nantucket Island is an endemic area for:

A. P.vivax
B. P.falciparum
C. Babesiosis
D. All of the above

A

C. Babesiosis

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5
Q

Which of the following would be considered a significant finding in Graves disease?

A. Increased TSH levels
B. Antibody to TSHR
C. Decreased T3 and T4
D. Antithyroglobulin antibody

A

B. Antibody to TSHR

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6
Q

Which specimen is the sample of choice for lead screening

A. Whole blood
B. Hair
C. Serum
D. Urine

A

A. Whole blood

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7
Q

Mannose-binding protein in the lectin pathway is most similar to which classical pathway component?

A. C3
B. C1rs
C. C1q
D. C4

A

C. C1q

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8
Q

Each of the following markers is correctly paired with a disease in which it can be used for patient monitoring except:

A. CEA/choriocarcinoma
B. CA 15-3/breast adenocarcinoma
C. CA 125/ovarian adenocarcinoma
D. CA 19-9/pancreatic adenocarcinoma

A

A. CEA/choriocarcinoma

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9
Q

In lipoprotein electrophoresis, the dense band that doesn’t migrate from the origin is:

A. Chylomicrons
B. LDL
C. Beta lipoproteins
D. Cholesterol
E. Phospholipids

A

A. Chylomicrons

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10
Q

Acute, uncompensated DIC

  1. Prolonged PT, PTT and TT
  2. Normal fibrinogen
  3. Increased FDPs

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

C. 1 and 3

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11
Q

Why might a colony stimulating factor be given to a cancer patient?

A. Stimulate activity of NK cells
B. Increase production of certain types of leukocytes
C. Decrease the production of TNF
D. Increase production of mast cells

A

B. Increase production of certain types of leukocytes

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12
Q

NEW TYPES OF THROMBOPLASTINS for measuring the PT are mixtures of phospholipids and recombinantly derived from:

A. Rabbit tissue factor
B. Human tissue factor
C. Horse tissue factor
D. Sheep tissue factor

A

B. Human tissue factor

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13
Q

Which substance is used in the CK assay to activate the enzyme?

A. Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)
B. Imidazole
C. N-acetylcysteine
D. Pyridoxyl-5 ́-phosphate

A

C. N-acetylcysteine

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14
Q

All of the following characteristics are consistent with the appearance of normal cerebrospinal fluid except:

A. Crystal clear
B. CSF protein of 20 mg/dL
C. IgG index of 0.70 or less
D. WBC count greater than 100/uL

A

D. WBC count greater than 100/uL

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a colligative property of solutions?

A. pH
B. Freezing point
C. Osmotic pressure
D. Vapor pressure

A

A. pH

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16
Q

PT prolonged APTT prolonged
● APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
● APTT + adsorbed plasma = not corrected
● APTT + aged serum = not corrected
Most likely coagulation factor deficient:

A. Factor I
B. Factor V
C. Factor X
D. Factor II

A

D. Factor II

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17
Q

Patient with severe bleeding
PT normal
APTT prolonged
● APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
● APTT + adsorbed plasma = corrected
● APTT + aged serum = corrected
Most likely coagulation factor deficient:

A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor XI
D. Factor XII

A

C. Factor XI

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18
Q

Patient with no bleeding tendency
PT normal
APTT prolonged
● APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
● APTT + adsorbed plasma = corrected
● APTT + aged serum = corrected
Most likely coagulation factor deficient:

A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor XI
D. Factor XII

A

D. Factor XII

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19
Q

Which of the following is a marker used in immunohistochemical staining to identify tumors of epithelial origin?

A. Cytokeratins
B. Vimentin
C. CD45
D. CD10

A

A. Cytokeratins

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20
Q

What is the correct order for removing protective clothing?

A. Gloves, gown, mask
B. Gown, gloves, mask
C. Gown, mask, gloves
D. Mask, gown, gloves

A

A. Gloves, gown, mask

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21
Q

The presence of waxy casts in a microscopic examination of urine is consistent with a diagnosis of:

A. Strenuous exercise
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Chronic renal failure

A

D. Chronic renal failure

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22
Q

Which of the following proteins migrates in the beta region at pH 8.6?

A. Haptoglobin
B. Orosomucoprotein
C. Antichymotrypsin
D. Transferrin

A

D. Transferrin

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23
Q

Antibodies to which of the following viral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection?

A. gp120
B. gp160
C. gp41
D. p24

A

D. p24

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24
Q

Acanthocytes are found in association with:

A. Abetalipoproteinemia
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Rh deficiency syndrome
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

A. Abetalipoproteinemia

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25
Q

EDTA is used in concentrations of __ of blood.

A. 0.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood
B. 1.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood
C. 2.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood
D. 3.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood

A

B. 1.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood

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26
Q

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with antibody specificity toward which of the following?

A. KEL system antigens
B. FY system antigens
C. P antigen
D. I antigen

A

C. P antigen

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27
Q

AMBULATORY - NOT CONFINED IN BED, ABLE TO WALK
If an ambulatory, adult patient is suspected of having a urinary tract infection, which of the following collection methods would be most appropriate to obtain a urine sample?

A. Random
B. Catheterization
C. Suprapubic aspiration
D. Clean-catch midstream

A

D. Clean-catch midstream

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28
Q

Which of the following enzymes is considered most tissue specific?

A. Creatine kinase (CK)
B. Amylase
C. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
D. Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)

A

D. Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)

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29
Q

Slope = proportional SE = 1 (perfect correlation)
Y-intercept = constant SE = 0 (perfect correlation)
You validate a new assay using linear regression to compare assay calibrator results with the distributor’s published calibrator results. The slope is 0.99 and the y-intercept is +10%.
What type of error is present?

A. No error
B. Random error
C. Constant systematic error
D. Proportional systematic error

A

C. Constant systematic error

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30
Q

The greatest portion of operational body iron is normally contained in what compound?

A. Hemoglobin
B. Ferritin
C. Cytochromes
D. Myoglobin

A

A. Hemoglobin

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31
Q

The antigenic component of the hepatitis B vaccine di ers from those of many of the conventional vaccines in that it consists of a:

A. Live, attenuated virus.
B. Inactivated virus.
C. Cryptic antigen.
D. Recombinant antigen.

A

D. Recombinant antigen.

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32
Q

Variants demonstrate a wide variety of cellular interactions, including roles in cell adhesion, tissue di erentiation, growth, and wound healing:

A. Adiponectin
B. Fibronectin
C. Crosslinked C-telopeptide
D β-trace protein

A

B. Fibronectin

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33
Q

Which assay using 24-hour urine is considered the best single screening test for pheochromocytoma?

A. Total urinary catecholamines
B. VMA
C. Homovanillic acid (HVA)
D. Metanephrines

A

D. Metanephrines

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34
Q

The venipuncture needle should be inserted into the arm with the bevel facing:

A. Down and an angle of insertion between 15 and 30 degrees
B. Up and an angle of insertion less than 30 degrees
C. Down and an angle of insertion greater than 45 degrees
D. Up and an angle of insertion between 30 and 45 degrees

A

B. Up and an angle of insertion less than 30 degrees

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35
Q

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least _____ Todd units in an adult.

A. 200 Todd units
B. 240 Todd units
C. 320 Todd units
D. 340 Todd units

A

B. 240 Todd units

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36
Q

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least _____ Todd units in a child.

A. 200 Todd units
B. 240 Todd units
C. 320 Todd units
D. 340 Todd units

A

C. 320 Todd units

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37
Q

Stimulation of erythropoietin is caused by:

A. Tissue hypoxia
B. Hypervolemia
C. Inflammation
D. Infection

A

A. Tissue hypoxia

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38
Q

Which of the following pairings of crystals and causes is not correct?

A. Calcium oxalate crystals and antifreeze ingestion
B. Uric acid crystals and patients receiving chemotherapy
C. Cystine crystals and not clinically significant
D. Amorphous phosphate crystals and not clinically significant

A

C. Cystine crystals and not clinically significant

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39
Q

What test is used to monitor heparin therapy?

A. INR
B. APTT
C. TT
D. PT

A

B. APTT

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40
Q

POCT/BEDSIDE
Which of the following is the preferred method to monitor heparin therapy at the point of care during cardiac surgery?

A. APTT
B. Activated clotting time test (ACT)
C. PT
D. TT

A

B. Activated clotting time test (ACT)

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41
Q

The sample of choice for measuring blood osmolality is:

A. Serum
B. Plasma
C. Whole blood
D. Serum or plasma may be used

A

A. Serum

42
Q

Of the following therapeutic agents, those considered to be anti-platelet medications are:

A. Aspirin and Plavix
B. Coumadin and heparin
C. Heparin and protamine sulfate
D. Tissue plasminogen activator and streptokinase

A

A. Aspirin and Plavix

43
Q

PT normal
APTT prolonged
● APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
● APTT + adsorbed plasma = corrected
● APTT + aged serum = not corrected
Most likely coagulation factor deficient:

A. Factor I
B. Factor VII
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor IX

A

C. Factor VIII

44
Q

PT normal
APTT prolonged
● APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
● APTT + adsorbed plasma = not corrected
● APTT + aged serum = corrected

A. Factor I
B. Factor VII
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor IX

A

C. Factor VIII

45
Q

Which of the following enzymes is used to detect the presence of H.pyloriinfections?

A. DNase
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Urease
D. Peptidase

A

C. Urease

46
Q

Which of the following is a disinfectant?

A. Benzalkonium chloride
B. Chlorhexidine gluconate
C. Household bleach
D. Hydrogen peroxide

A

C. Household bleach

47
Q

Identify the cell with these characteristics:

Prominent primary granules that are rich in myeloperoxidase and chloroacetate esterase and have a diameter of 14 to 20 um.

A. Myeloblast
B. Promyelocyte
C. Myelocyte
D. Promonocyte

A

B. Promyelocyte

48
Q

Expression of one amount relative to another amount:
A. Concentration
B. Dilution
C. Ratio

A

C. Ratio

49
Q

The amount of one substance relative to the amounts of other substances in the solution:
A. Concentration
B. Dilution
C. Ratio

A

A. Concentration

50
Q

RELATIVE CONCENTRATIONS of the components of a mixture:

A. Concentration
B. Dilution
C. Ratio

A

B. Dilution

51
Q

Smallest platelets seen:

A. Alport syndrome
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. May-Hegglin anomaly
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

52
Q

Largest platelets seen:

A. Alport syndrome
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. May-Hegglin anomaly D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

53
Q

Factor VII deficiency:

A. Normal PT, Prolonged APTT, Normal TCT
B. Prolonged PT, Normal APTT, Normal TCT
C. Prolonged PT and APTT, Normal TCT
D. Prolonged PT, APTT and TCT

A

B. Prolonged PT, Normal APTT, Normal TCT

54
Q

Hemophilia A:

A. Normal PT, Prolonged APTT, Normal TCT
B. Prolonged PT, Normal APTT, Normal TCT
C. Prolonged PT and APTT, Normal TCT
D. Prolonged PT, APTT and TCT

A

A. Normal PT, Prolonged APTT, Normal TCT

55
Q

Factor X deficiency:

A. Normal PT, Prolonged APTT, Normal TCT
B. Prolonged PT, Normal APTT, Normal TCT
C. Prolonged PT and APTT, Normal TCT
D. Prolonged PT, APTT and TCT

A

C. Prolonged PT and APTT, Normal TCT

56
Q

Fibrinogen deficiency:

A. Normal PT, Prolonged APTT, Normal TCT
B. Prolonged PT, Normal APTT, Normal TCT
C. Prolonged PT and APTT, Normal TCT
D. Prolonged PT, APTT and TCT

A

D. Prolonged PT, APTT and TCT

57
Q

Maintains cellular energy by generating ATP:

A. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
B. Hexose monophosphate shunt
C. Luebering-Rapaport pathway
D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

A

D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

58
Q

Regulates oxygen a nity of hemoglobin:
A. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
B. Hexose monophosphate shunt
C. Luebering-Rapaport pathway
D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

A

C. Luebering-Rapaport pathway

59
Q

Prevents oxidation of heme iron:

A. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
B. Hexose monophosphate shunt
C. Luebering-Rapaport pathway
D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

A

A. Methemoglobin reductase pathway

60
Q

Prevents denaturation of globin of the hemoglobin molecule:

A. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
B. Hexose monophosphate shunt
C. Luebering-Rapaport pathway
D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

A

B. Hexose monophosphate shunt

61
Q

A 40-year-old male who is a smoker develops symp- toms of premature emphysema. The symptoms may be caused by a deficiency of which of the following acute-phase reactants

A. Haptoglobin
B. Alpha1-antitrypsin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Ceruloplasmin

A

B. Alpha1-antitrypsin

62
Q

Sodium citrate in the concentration of a _____ solution has been adopted as the appropriate concentration by the ICSH and the International Society for Thrombosis and Hemostasis for coagulation studies.

A. 1.5%
B. 15%
C. 3.2%
D. 3.8%

A

C. 3.2%

63
Q

Which WBC is capable of further differentiation in tissues?

A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Basophil
D. Monocyte

A

D. Monocyte

64
Q
  1. Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes bind HLA class II + peptide complexes with the help of which accessory molecule?

A. CD2
B. CD3
C. CD4
D. CD8

A

C. CD4

65
Q

Suppose a 30-year-old man was found to be a suitable donor for a kidney transplant to his younger sister. This transplant would be an example of a(an):

A. Autograft
B. Allograft
C. Isograft
D. Xenograft

A

B. Allograft

66
Q

An inpatient vehemently refuses to allow you to collect a blood specimen. What should you do?

A. Convince the patient to cooperate and collect the sample anyway.
B. Have the nurse physically restrain the patient and draw the specimen.
C. Notify the patient’s nurse and document the patient’s refusal.
D. Return to the lab, cancel the test request, and inform the physician.

A

C. Notify the patient’s nurse and document the patient’s refusal.

67
Q
  1. A prolonged thrombin time is indicative of which of the following antithrombotic therapies?
    A. Prasugrel
    B. Clopidogrel
    C. Aspirin
    D. Heparin
A

D. Heparin

68
Q

Which of the following items is unnecessary when performing a routine venipuncture?
A. Evacuated tubes
B. Safety needle
C. Skin disinfectant
D. Tourniquet

A

C. Skin disinfectant

69
Q

Which of the following describes the role of properdin in the alternative pathway?

A. Stabilization of C3/C5 convertase
B. Conversion of B to Bb
C. Inhibition of C3 convertase formation
D. Binding and cleavage of Factor B

A

A. Stabilization of C3/C5 convertase

70
Q

Which clinical or specimen condition will produce an increase reticulocyte count test result?

A. Splenectomy
B. Rouleaux formation
C. Polycythemia
D. Hemolytic anemia crisis

A

D. Hemolytic anemia crisis

71
Q

Cardiovascular complications of phlebotomy:

  1. Cardiac arrest
  2. Hypotension
  3. Syncope
  4. Shock

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

72
Q

Which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-B cell?

A. μ chains in the cytoplasm
B. Complete IgM on the surface
C. Presence of CD21 antigen
D. Presence of CD25 antigen

A

A. μ chains in the cytoplasm

73
Q

Which of the following are all anticoagulants that remove calcium from the specimen by forming insoluble calcium salts and therefore preventing coagulation?

A. EDTA, lithium heparin, citrate
B. NaF, sodium heparin, EDTA
C. Oxalate, SPS, sodium heparin
D. Sodium citrate, EDTA, oxalate

A

D. Sodium citrate, EDTA, oxalate

74
Q

The hemorrhagic problems associated with scurvy are due to a deficiency of ______, which is a cofactor required for collagen synthesis.

A. Vitamin C
B. Prothrombin
C. Vitamin K
D. Protein C

A

A. Vitamin C

75
Q

A gram-positive coccus recovered from a wound ulcer from a 31-year-old diabetic patient showed pale yellow, creamy, β-hemolytic colonies on blood agar. Given the following test results, what is the most likely identification?

● Catalase = +
● Glucose OF: positive open tube, negative sealed tube
● Mannitol salt = Neg
● Slide coagulase = Neg

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Micrococcus spp.
D. Streptococcus spp.

A

C. Micrococcus spp.

76
Q

Rheumatic fever, which is manifested by fever, endocarditis (inflammation of heart muscle), subcutaneous nodules, and
polyarthritis, usually follows respiratory tract infections and is thought to be mediated by antibodies produced against S. pyogenes M protein that cross-react with human heart tissue.

A
77
Q

Acute glomerulonephritis, characterized by edema, hypertension, hematuria, and proteinuria, can follow respiratory or cutaneous infections and is mediated by antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in glomeruli, where they initiate damage.
Select the appropriate cell type involved in the following disorders.

A
78
Q

Gaucher disease:

A. Monocyte-macrophage series
B. Neutrophilic series
C. Lymphocytic series
D. Erythrocytic series

A

A. Monocyte-macrophage series

79
Q

Niemann-Pick disease:

A. Monocyte-macrophage series
B. Neutrophilic series
C. Lymphocytic series
D. Erythrocytic series

A

A. Monocyte-macrophage series

80
Q

Chédiak-Higashi syndrome:

A. Monocyte-macrophage series
B. Neutrophilic series
C. Lymphocytic series
D. Erythrocytic series

A

B. Neutrophilic series

81
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease:

A. Monocyte-macrophage series
B. Neutrophilic series
C. Lymphocytic series
D. Erythrocytic series

A

B. Neutrophilic series

82
Q

Lazy leukocyte syndrome:

A. Monocyte-macrophage series
B. Neutrophilic series
C. Lymphocytic series
D. Erythrocytic series

A

B. Neutrophilic series

83
Q

Acute leukemia:

A. Of short duration with many mature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood
B. Of short duration with many immature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood
C. Of short duration with little alteration of the leukocytes of the peripheral blood
D. Of long duration with many mature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood

A

B. Of short duration with many immature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood

84
Q

In IDA, the erythrocytic indices are typically:

A. MCV increased, MCH decreased, and MCHC decreased
B. MCV decreased, MCH decreased, and MCHC decreased
C. MCV decreased, MCH increased, and MCHC decreased
D. MCV decreased, MCH decreased, and MCHC normal

A

B. MCV decreased, MCH decreased, and MCHC decreased

85
Q

The average adult has _____ g of total iron.

A. 0.2 to 1.4
B. 1.5 to 3.4
C. 3.5 to 5.0
D. 5.1 to 10.0

A

C. 3.5 to 5.0

86
Q

The average diameter of a normal erythrocyte is _____ um.

A. 5.2
B. 6.4
C. 7.2
D. 8.4

A

C. 7.2

87
Q

The number of heme groups in a hemoglobin molecule is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

D. 4

88
Q

A normal PDW is:

A. Less than 5%
B. Less than 10%
C. Less than 15%
D. Less than 20%

A

D. Less than 20%

89
Q

Hereditary platelet dysfunction can be caused by:

A. Aspirin
B. von Willebrand’s disease
C. Uremia
D. Factor V deficiency

A

B. von Willebrand’s disease

90
Q

The earliest granulocytic maturational stage in which secondary or specific granules appear:

A. Myeloblast
B. Monoblast
C. Promyelocyte
D. Myelocyte

A

D. Myelocyte

91
Q

An erythrocyte remains in the reticulocyte stage in the circulating blood for:

A. 1 day
B. 2.5 days
C. 3 days
D. 120 days

A

A. 1 day

92
Q

TYPES OF HUMAN STEM CELLS
Functionally, three types of human stem cells exist:

  1. Totipotential stem cells
    ● These cells are present in the first few hours after an ovum is fertilized.
    ● Totipotential stem cells, the most versatile type of stem cell, can develop into any human cell type, including development from embryo into fetus.
  2. Pluripotential stem cells
    ● These cells are present several days after fertilization.
    ● Pluripotent stem cells can develop into any cell type, except they cannot develop into a fetus.
  3. Multipotential stem cells
    ● These cells are derived from pluripotent stem cells.
    ● They can be found in adults, but they are limited to specific types of cells to form tissues.
    ● For example, bone marrow stem cells can produce all types of blood cells, bone cartilage, and adipose (fat) cells.
A
93
Q

If a pediatric preoperative patient has a family history of bleeding but has never had a bleeding episode herself, what test should be included in a coagulation profile in addition to the PT, APTT and platelet count?

A. Lee and White clotting time
B. Clot retraction
C. Bleeding time
D. Fibrin split products

A

C. Bleeding time

94
Q

Symbolic designation for thrombin is:
A. III
B. XII
C. VIII
D. IIa

A

D. IIa

95
Q

Neither the APTT nor the PT detects a deficiency of:

A. Platelet factor 3
B. Factor VII
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor IX

A

A. Platelet factor 3

96
Q

Aspirin ingestion has the following hemostatic effect in a normal person:

A. Prolongs bleeding time
B. Prolongs the clotting time
C. Inhibits factor VIII
D. Has no effect

A

A. Prolongs bleeding time

97
Q

May-Hegglin anomaly is characyerized by:

A. Giant platelets
B. Smallest platelets seen
C. Large platelets
D. Absence of platelets

A

C. Large platelets

98
Q

Bernard-Soulier syndrome is characterize by:

A. Giant platelets
B. Smallest platelets seen
C. Large platelets
D. Absence of platelets

A

A. Giant platelets

99
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is characterize by:
A. Giant platelets
B. Smallest platelets seen
C. Large platelets
D. Absence of platelets

A

B. Smallest platelets seen

100
Q

Warfarin is a vitamin ___ antagonist.
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. K

A

D. K

101
Q

Unique characteristic associated with a deficiency of factor XII deficiency is:

A. Frequent nosebleeds
B. No history of bleeding
C. A common factor deficiency
D. Decreased risk of foming blood clots

A

B. No history of bleeding

POPCORN (7 decks)

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