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1-100 Flashcards

1
Q

An unknown fluid can be positively identified as CSF by determining the:

A. Lactate concentration.
B. Albumin concentration.
C. Presence of oligoclonal banding on electrophoresis.
D. Presence of carbohydrate-deficient transferrin on electrophoresis.

A

D. Presence of carbohydrate-deficient transferrin on electrophoresis.

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2
Q

A hospital worker is found to be positive for hepatitis B surface antigen. Subsequent tests reveal the presence of HBeAg as well.
Which of the following best describes the worker?

A. Has a biologic false-positive test for hepatitis
B. Is highly contagious
C. Is less contagious
D. Is not contagious
E. Has resolved hepatitis B

A

B. Is highly contagious

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3
Q
  1. When measuring K+ with an ion-selective electrode by means of a liquid ion-exchange membrane, what antibiotic will be incorporated into the membrane?

A. Monactin
B. Nonactin
C. Streptomycin
D. Valinomycin

A

D. Valinomycin

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4
Q
  1. Stones may become large, forming casts of the kidney pelvis and showing STAGHORNS:

A. Calcium phosphate (apatite)
B. Monohydrate calcium oxalate (whewellite)
C. Dihydrate calcium oxalate (weddelite)
D. Triple phosphate (struvite)

A

D. Triple phosphate (struvite)

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5
Q
  1. Anaerobic gram-negative rods were recovered from the blood of a patient after gallbladder surgery. The bacteria grew well on agar containing 20% bile, but were resistant to kanamycin and vancomycin.
    What is the most likely identification?

A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Bacteroides fragilis group
C. Prevotella spp.
D. Porphyromona sspp.

A

B. Bacteroides fragilis group

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6
Q
  1. The ETHANOL SHOCK procedure is used to di erentiate:

A. Actinomyces and Bifidobacteriumspp.
B. Prevotella and Porphyromonasspp.
C. Clostridium and Bacteroidesspp.
D. Bacteroides and Actinomycesspp.

A

C. Clostridium and Bacteroidesspp.

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7
Q
  1. Hydrogen ion concentration (pH) in blood is usually determined by means of which of the following electrodes?

A. Silver
B. Glass
C. Platinum
D. Platinum-lactate

A

B. Glass

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8
Q
  1. A patient presents with vague abdominal pains and a microcytic hypochromic anemia. A possible causative parasite is:

A. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Brugia malayi
D. Trichinella spiralis

A

B. Ancylostoma duodenale

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9
Q
  1. A gram-positive bacillus was isolated from a wound specimen and had the following characteristics: double zone of β hemolysis, lecithinase positive, lipase negative, spot indole negative. What is the most likely identification of this organism?

A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Clostridium ramosum
C. Clostridium septicum
D. Clostridium tetani

A

A. Clostridium perfringens

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10
Q
  1. What substance is detected by the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) and Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) tests for syphilis?

A. Cardiolipin
B. Anticardiolipin antibody
C. Anti-T.pallidumantibody
D. Treponemapallidum

A

B. Anticardiolipin antibody

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11
Q
  1. What type of antigen is used in the RPR card test?

A. Live treponemal organisms
B. Killed suspension of treponemal organisms
C. Cardiolipin
D. Tanned sheep cells

A

C. Cardiolipin

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12
Q
  1. When skin contact occurs, the best first aid is to flush the area with large amounts of water for at least __ minutes, then seek medical attention.

A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes

A

C. 15 minutes

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13
Q
  1. Which monochromator specification is required in order to measure the true absorbance of a compound having a natural absorption bandwidth of 30 nm?

A. 50-nm bandpass
B. 25-nm bandpass
C. 15-nm bandpass
D. 5-nm bandpass

A

D. 5-nm bandpass

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14
Q
  1. The presence of dysmorphic red blood cells in the urine sediment is indicative of which of the following?

A. A coagulation disorder
B. Menstrual contamination
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Glomerular bleeding

A

D. Glomerular bleeding

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15
Q
  1. The prothrombin time will detect deficiencies in the pathway(s) when calcium and a tissue factor source such as rabbit brain are added to plasma.

A. Extrinsic
B. Extrinsic and common
C. Intrinsic
D. Intrinsic and common

A

B. Extrinsic and common

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis?

A. Late stage of salicylate poisoning
B. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
C. Renal failure
D. Excessive vomiting

A

D. Excessive vomiting

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17
Q
  1. Severe diarrhea causes:

A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

A

A. Metabolic acidosis

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18
Q
  1. Most automated blood gas analyzers directly measure:

A. pH, HCO3 and % O2 saturation
B. pH, pCO2 and pO2
C. HCO3, pCO2 and pO2
D. pH, PO2 and %O2 saturation

A

B. pH, pCO2 and pO2

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19
Q
  1. Living sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:

A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background

A

A. Unstained, bluish-white

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20
Q
  1. Dead sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:

A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background

A

D. Red on a purple background

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21
Q
  1. Feather-edged colonies usually surrounded by zone of green discoloration; produces a highly characteristic, fruity odor resembling apples or strawberries:

A. Achromobacter denitrificans
B. Pseudomonas alcaligenes
C. Pseudomonas pseudoalcaligenes
D. Alcaligenes faecalis

A

D. Alcaligenes faecalis

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22
Q
  1. It is considered to be as the best vital dye.
    A. Janus green
    B. Neutral red
    C. Nile blue
    D. Toluidine blue
A

B. Neutral red

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23
Q
  1. It is used for demonstrating mitochondria during vital staining:

A. Janus green
B. Neutral red
C. Nile blue
D. Toluidine blue

A

A. Janus green

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24
Q
  1. The symptom of di use, watery diarrhea that produces a relatively clear stool containing mucus flecks is suggestive of an infection caused by:

A. Enterohemorrhagic Escherichiacoli
B. Shigelladysenteriae
C. Vibriocholerae
D. Yersiniaenterocolitica

A

C. Vibriocholerae

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25
Q
  1. A suspension of the test organism for use in broth dilution and disk di usion testing is adjusted to match the turbidity of a:

A. #0.5 McFarland standard
B. #1.0 McFarland standard
C. #2.0 McFarland standard
D. #3.0 McFarland standard

A

A. #0.5 McFarland standard

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26
Q
  1. A stool specimen is submitted for culture. The results are: betahemolytic on blood agar, NLF on MacConkey, oxidase positive, bull’s-eye appearance on CIN agar. This organism is most likely:

A. A.hydrophilia
B. Y.enterocolitica
C. C.violaceum
D. G.hollisae

A

A. A.hydrophilia

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27
Q
  1. Unique portion of HCG:
    A. Glycoprotein portion of alpha subunit
    B. Glycoprotein portion of beta subunit
    C. Amino acid portion of alpha subunit
    D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit
A

D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit

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28
Q
  1. A complete deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase results in which disease?

A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
B. Modification of diet in renal disease
C. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Reye’s syndrome
E. Megaloblastic anemia

A

A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

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29
Q
  1. A light yellow colony from a skin lesion grew aerobically and tested as catalase positive and coagulase negative. The organism gram stained as positive cocci in clusters. The organism was modified oxidase positive, bacitracin susceptible and resistant to lysostaphin. What is the identification of this organism?

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Micrococcus luteus
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

A

B. Micrococcus luteus

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30
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a test to evaluate the surfactants present in the fetal pulmonary system?

A. ΔA450
B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
C. Phosphatidylglycerol detection
D. Foam stability index

A

A. ΔA450

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31
Q
  1. Beta cell destruction, usually leading to absolute insulin deficiency:

A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes

A

A. Type 1 diabetes

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32
Q
  1. May range from predominantly insulin resistance with relative insulin deficiency to a predominantly secretory defect with insulin resistance:

A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes

A

B. Type 2 diabetes

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33
Q
  1. Diabetics are younger (<18 years old when diagnosed) and thinner:

A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes

A

A. Type 1 diabetes

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34
Q
  1. Usually older (>40 years old when diagnosed) and more likely to be obese:

A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes

A

B. Type 2 diabetes

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35
Q
  1. The two species of flies responsible for the transmission are Glossinapalpalisand Glossinatachinoides:

A. Leishmania donovani
B. Leishmania tropica
C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
D. Trypanosoma bruceir hodesiense

A

C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

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36
Q
  1. The two primary species of fly vectors responsible for transmitting are Glossinamorsitansand Glossinapallidipes:

A. Leishmania donovani
B. Leishmania tropica
C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

A

D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

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37
Q
  1. OXIDASE NEG, LAVENDER GREEN PIGMENT, LDC +
    A. sputum culture from a 13-year-old cystic fibrosis patient grew a predominance of short, gram-negative rods that tested oxidase negative. On MacConkey, chocolate, and blood agar plates, the organism appeared to have a lavender-green pigment. Further testing showed:

Motility = +
Glucose = + (oxidative)
Lysine decarboxylase = +
DNase = +
Maltose = + (oxidative) Esculin
hydrolysis = +
What is the most likely identification?

A. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
B. Acinetobacter baumannii
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Burkholderia (P.)cepacia

A

A. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

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38
Q
  1. Fixatives that give the best results with metachromatic staining and are the routine fixatives of choice for preservation of detail for photography:

A. Formalin fixatives
B. Mercurial fixatives
C. Lead fixatives
D. Chromate fixatives

A

B. Mercurial fixatives

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39
Q
  1. All are components of CLINITEST, except:

A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose

A

D. Lactose

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40
Q
  1. Which of the following is a component of ACETEST?

A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose

A

D. Lactose

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41
Q
  1. A 38-year-old female weighing 153 lbs, who received the rubella vaccine 2 months previously, presents to donate whole blood. She also received 2 units of packed cells after the delivery of her eighth child 8 weeks ago. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor?

A. Accept the donor
B. TD because of the packed cells 8 weeks ago
C. PD because of receiving blood products
D. TD because of the rubella vaccine

A

B. TD because of the packed cells 8 weeks ago

42
Q
  1. Hepatocellular damage may be best assessed by which of the following parameters?

A. Serum AST and ALT levels
B. GGT and ALP
C. Bilirubin, GGT, and ALP
D. Ammonia and urea

A

A. Serum AST and ALT levels

43
Q
  1. Which of the following analytes is the best indicator of hepatobiliary damage?

A. AST
B. ALT
C. ALP
D. Bilirubin

A

C. ALP

44
Q
  1. Which of the following enzymes is found bound to HDL and LDL in blood plasma and acts to convert free cholesterol into cholesteryl esters?

A. Cholesterol esterase
B. Cholesterol oxidase
C. Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase
D. Lipase

A

C. Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase

45
Q
  1. As little as 0.1 mL of CSF combined with one drop of _______ produces an adequate cell yield when processed with the cytocentrifuge.

A. 10% formalin
B. 40% formalin
C. 10% albumin
D. 30% albumin

A

D. 30% albumin

46
Q
    1. A DAILY CONTROL SLIDE FOR BACTERIA IN CSF:

A. 95% ethanol
B. 30% albumin
C. 0.2 mL saline and 2 drops 95% ethanol
D. 0.2 mL saline and 2 drops 30% albumin

A

D. 0.2 mL saline and 2 drops 30% albumin

47
Q
  1. During the summer break, several middle-aged elementary school teachers from the same school district attended a 3-day seminar in Chicago. Upon returning home, three female teachers from the group were hospitalized with pneumonia, flulike symptoms, and a nonproductive cough. Routine testing of sputum samples revealed normal flora. Further testing using bu ered CYE agar with L-cysteine and α-ketoglutarate in 5% CO2 produced growth of opaque colonies that stained faintly, showing thin gram-negative rods. What is the most likely identification?

A. Legionella pneumophila
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Eikenella corrodens
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

A. Legionella pneumophila

48
Q
  1. In the United States, the NGSP, with the Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) _____ method, is used as a PRIMARY REFERENCE METHOD for measuring HbA1c.

A. Immunoassay
B. Electrophoresis
C. A nity chromatography
D. HPLC

A

D. HPLC

49
Q
  1. PREFERRED METHOD of measuring HbA1c:

A. Immunoassay
B. Electrophoresis
C. Anity chromatography
D. HPLC

A

C. Anity chromatography

50
Q
  1. A sputum culture from an alcoholic seen in the ER grows gray, mucoid, stringy colonies on sheep blood agar. The isolate grows readily on MacConkey agar and forms mucoid, dark pink colonies.
    The colonies yield the following test results:

ONPG +
Indole Glucose +
Oxidase -
Citrate +
VP +

The organism is most likely:

A. Edwardsiella tarda
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Proteus vulgaris

A

B. Klebsiella pneumoniae

51
Q
  1. Small, gray, glistening; colonies tend to dip down in the center and RESEMBLE A DOUGHNUT (umbilicated) as they age; if organism has a polysaccharide capsule, colony may be mucoid; ALPHA-HEMOLYTIC:

A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Staphylococcus aureus

A

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

52
Q
  1. The physician is concerned that a pregnant patient may be at risk for delivering prematurely. What would be the best biochemical marker to measure to assess the situation?

A. Inhibin A
B. Alpha1-Fetoprotein
C. Fetal fibronectin
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin

A

C. Fetal fibronectin

53
Q
  1. The physician is concerned that a pregnant patient may be at risk for delivering prematurely. What would be the best biochemical marker to measure to assess the situation?

A. Inhibin A
B. Alpha1-Fetoprotein
C. Fetal fibronectin
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin

A

C. Fetal fibronectin

54
Q

Beer-Lambert law (Beer’s law)
Mathematically establishes the relationship between concentration and absorbance in many photometric determinations
Beer’s law is expressed as A= abc

  1. A (capital A) in Beer’s law is:
    A. Absorbance
    B. Absorptivity constant
    C. Concentration
    D. Length of light path
A

A. Absorbance

55
Q

Beer-Lambert law (Beer’s law)
Mathematically establishes the relationship between concentration and absorbance in many photometric determinations
Beer’s law is expressed as A= abc

  1. a (small a) in Beer’s law is:
    A. Absorbance
    B. Absorptivity constant
    C. Concentration
    D. Length of light path
A

B. Absorptivity constant

56
Q

Beer-Lambert law (Beer’s law)
Mathematically establishes the relationship between concentration and absorbance in many photometric determinations
Beer’s law is expressed as A= abc

  1. b (small b) in Beer’s law is:
    A. Absorbance
    B. Absorptivity constant
    C. Concentration
    D. Length of light path
A

D. Length of light path

57
Q

Beer-Lambert law (Beer’s law)
Mathematically establishes the relationship between concentration and absorbance in many photometric determinations
Beer’s law is expressed as A= abc

  1. c (small c) in Beer’s law is:
    A. Absorbance
    B. Absorptivity constant
    C. Concentration
    D. Length of light path
A

C. Concentration

58
Q
  1. Aspects of this principle:

● Providing benefits
● Balancing benefits and risks/harms

Thisprinciplesupportsthefollowingmoralrulesorobligations:

● Protect and defend the rights of others
● Prevent harm from occurring to others
● Remove conditions that will cause harm
● Help persons with disabilities
● Rescue persons in danger

A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Non-maleficence
D. Justice

A

B. Beneficence

59
Q

This principle holds that there is an obligation not to inflict harm on others. It is closely associated with the maximprimumnon nocere (first do no harm). This principle supports the following rules:
● Do not kill
● Do not cause pain or suffering
● Do not incapacitate
● Do not cause offense

A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Non-maleficence
D. Justice

A

C. Non-maleficence

60
Q
  1. According to RA 9165, a person who knowingly and willfully consents to the unlawful acts and uses his/her influence, power or position in shielding, harboring, screening or facilitating the escape of any person he/she knows, or has reasonable grounds to believe on or suspects:

A. Practitioner
B. Pusher
C. Protector/coddler
D. Donor

A

C. Protector/coddler

61
Q
  1. Which of the following is a marker for bone resorption?

A. β-trace protein
B. Adiponectin
C. Fibronectin
D. Crosslinked C-telopeptide

A

D. Crosslinked C-telopeptide

62
Q
  1. Which of the following is a marker for bone formation?

A. Osteocalcin
B. Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)
C. Urinary pyridinoline and deoxypyridinoline
D. Urinary C-telopeptide and N-telopeptide crosslinks (CTx and NTx)

A

A. Osteocalcin

63
Q
  1. Factor VII deficiency:

A. Normal PT, Prolonged APTT, Normal TCT
B. Prolonged PT, Normal APTT, Normal TCT
C. Prolonged PT and APTT, Normal TCT
D. Prolonged PT, APTT and TCT

A

B. Prolonged PT, Normal APTT, Normal TCT

64
Q
  1. Hemophilia A:

A. Normal PT, Prolonged APTT, Normal TCT
B. Prolonged PT, Normal APTT, Normal TCT
C. Prolonged PT and APTT, Normal TCT
D. Prolonged PT, APTT and TCT

A

A. Normal PT, Prolonged APTT, Normal TCT

65
Q
  1. Factor X deficiency:

A. Normal PT, Prolonged APTT, Normal TCT
B. Prolonged PT, Normal APTT, Normal TCT
C. Prolonged PT and APTT, Normal TCT
D. Prolonged PT, APTT and TCT

A

C. Prolonged PT and APTT, Normal TCT

66
Q
  1. Fibrinogen deficiency:

A. Normal PT, Prolonged APTT, Normal TCT
B. Prolonged PT, Normal APTT, Normal TCT
C. Prolonged PT and APTT, Normal TCT
D. Prolonged PT, APTT and TCT

A

D. Prolonged PT, APTT and TCT

67
Q
  1. An elevated anion gap may be caused by all of the following except:

A. Uremia/renal failure
B. Ketoacidosis in case of starvation or diabetes
C. Alcohol or salicylate poisoning
D. Hypoalbuminemia

A

D. Hypoalbuminemia

68
Q
  1. Which Brucella species may require CO2 for growth, is urea positive in 2 hours, and is inhibited by thionine dye?

A. Brucella abortus
B. Brucella melitensis
C. Brucella suis
D. Brucella canis

A

A. Brucella abortus

69
Q
  1. Brucella isolate that does not produce H2S, does not require CO2, and is not inhibited by thionine and basic fuchsin is probably which species of Brucella?

A. Brucella canis
B. Brucella abortus
C. Brucella suis
D. Brucella melitensis

A

D. Brucella melitensis

69
Q
  1. To determine if a 24-hour urine collection is complete, which of the following determinations may be helpful?

A. Creatinine
B. BUN
C. Uric acid
D. Protein
E. Osmolality

A

A. Creatinine

70
Q
  1. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a progressive, disabling, and deadly brain disorder related to ______ infection.

A. Chickenpox (varicella)
B. Smallpox (variola major)
C. German measles (rubella)
D. Measles (rubeola)

A

D. Measles (rubeola)

71
Q
  1. A patient complains to his dentist about a draining lesion in his mouth. A Gram stain of the pus shows a few gram-positive cocci, leukocytes, and many-branched gram-positive rods. Branched yellow sulfur granules are observed by a microscope.
    Which of the following is the most likely cause of the disease?

A. Actinomycesisraelii
B. Actinomycesviscosus
C. Corynebacteriumdiphtheriae
D. Propionibacteriumacnes
E. Staphylococcusaureus

A

A. Actinomycesisraelii

72
Q
  1. A gram-positive coccus that is catalase positive, nonmotile, lysostaphin resistant, and modified oxidase positive is best identified as a member of the genus:

A. Micrococcus
B. Lactococcus
C. Pediococcus
D. Staphylococcus

A

A. Micrococcus

73
Q
  1. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) begins with mild changes in personality, behavior and memory, and seizures. The process is progressive and ends with dementia and death.
    Infection with which virus precedes SSPE?

A. Epstein–Barr virus
B. HIV
C. JC polyomavirus
D. Measles virus
E. Mumps virus

A

D. Measles virus

74
Q
  1. Bence Jones protein precipitates at temperatures between ___, and redissolves at near ___ ° C.

A. Precipitates at 100-120C, and redissolves at 60C
B. Precipitates at 10 to 20C, and redissolves at 100C
C. Precipitates at 80-100C, and redissolves at 60C
D. Precipitates at 40 to 60C, and redissolves at 100C

A

D. Precipitates at 40 to 60C, and redissolves at 100C

75
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is characterized by primary HYPERaldosteronism caused by adrenal adenoma, carcinoma, or hyperplasia?

A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Addison’s disease
C. Conn’s syndrome
D. Pheochromocytoma

A

C. Conn’s syndrome

76
Q
  1. A 78-year-old man presents to the local emergency department with a severe headache and sti neck. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimen is cloudy. Analysis reveals 400 white blood cells per cubic millimeter (95% PMNs), a protein concentration of 75 mg/dL, and a glucose concentration of 20 mg/dL. While in the ER, a resident does a Gram stain of the CSF but mistakenly forgets the iodine treatment step. If the meningitis is caused by Streptococcuspneumoniae, how will the bacteria seen on the resident’s slide appear?

A. All the cells will be blue
B. All the cells will be decolorized
C. All the cells will be purple
D. All the cells will be red
E. All the cells will lyse; thus, no Gram stain results will be obtained
F. Half of the cells will be red and the other half will be blue

A

D. All the cells will be red

77
Q
  1. An 80-year-old male patient was admitted to the hospital with a fever of 102°F. A sputum culture revealed many gram-negative rods on MacConkey agar and blood agar. The patient was diagnosed with pneumonia. The following biochemical results were obtained from the culture:

H2S = Neg
Citrate = + (check)
Motility = Negative Lactose = +
Indole = + (check)
Resistance to ampicillin and carbenicillin
Urease = +
VP = + (check)
What is the most likely identification?

A. Klebsiella oxytoca
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Escherichia coli
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

A. Klebsiella oxytoca

78
Q
  1. McFarland turbidity standard is prepared by mixing _________ to obtain a solution with a specific optical density.

A. 1% hydrochloric acid and 1.175% barium chloride
B. 2% hydrochoric acid and 2.175% barium chloride
C. 1% sulfuric acid and 1.175% barium chloride
D. 2% sulfuric acid and 2.175% barium chloride

A

C. 1% sulfuric acid and 1.175% barium chloride

79
Q
  1. In analyzing cardiac markers, which marker increases first?

A. Myoglobin
B. CK-MB fraction
C. Troponin T
D. Troponin I

A

A. Myoglobin

80
Q
  1. Which cardiac marker persists at the highest concentration for the longest length of time?

A. Myoglobin
B. CK-MB fraction
C. Troponin T
D. Troponin I

A

C. Troponin T

81
Q
  1. Fluorophore-labeled thyroxine competes with patient thyroxine for antibody in homogeneous system. Antibody-bound labeled thyroxine rotates slowly, emitting lower energy light.

A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
B. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay
C. Chemiluminescence
D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

A

A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)

82
Q
  1. Fluorogenic substrate–labeled TSH is competing with patient TSH for antibody in this homogeneous assay. Only unbound (leftover) labeled TSH reacts with the enzyme to form fluorescent product. There is a direct relationship between fluorescence and the amount of TSH present in the test sample.

A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
B. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay
C. Chemiluminescence
D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

A

B. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay

83
Q
  1. Peroxidase-labeled antibody binds with patient hormone (antigen) to form complex (similar to ELISA). Addition of luminol or acridium esters substrate forms an oxidized product that emits light for short time.

A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
B. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay
C. Chemiluminescence
D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

A

C. Chemiluminescence

84
Q
  1. Similar to ELISA in that there is a double-antibody system that forms a “sandwich” with the hormone:

A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
B. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay
C. Chemiluminescence
D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

A

D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

85
Q
  1. What is the stain that binds to the nucleic acid of organisms but does not discriminate between gram-positive or gram-negative organisms called?

A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
B. Auramine-rhodamine stain
C. Gram stain
D. Acridine orange stain

A

D. Acridine orange stain

86
Q
  1. Convex, smooth, gray, nonhemolytic; rough and mucoid variants can occur; may have a musty or mushroom odor:

A. Pseudomonasaeruginosa
B. Clostridiumdi cile
C. Pasteurellamultocida
D. Chromobacteriumviolaceum

A

C. Pasteurellamultocida

87
Q
  1. Chylomicron retention disease presents in childhood with fat malabsorption and low levels of plasma lipids. This syndrome is distinct from abetalipoproteinemia, as only apoB-48 appears to be a ected:

A. Tangier disease
B. Anderson’s disease
C. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
D. Sitosterolemia

A

B. Anderson’s disease

88
Q
  1. A patient is hospitalized after an automobile accident. The wounds become infected, and the patient is treated with tobramycin, carbenicillin, and clindamycin. Five days after antibiotic therapy was initiated, the patient develops severe diarrhea and pseudomembranous enterocolitis. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea and the more serious pseudomembranous enterocolitis can be caused by which of the following organisms?

A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium sordellii
E. Staphylococcus aureus

A

B. Clostridium difficile

89
Q
  1. Small, gray, glistening; colonies tend to dip down in the center and RESEMBLE A DOUGHNUT (umbilicated) as they age; if organism has a polysaccharide capsule, colony may be mucoid; ALPHA-HEMOLYTIC:

A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Staphylococcus aureus

A

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

90
Q
  1. The most appropriate method for collecting a urine specimen from a patient with an indwelling catheter is:

A. Remove the catheter, cut the tip, and submit it for culture
B. Disconnect the catheter from the bag, and aseptically collect urine from the terminal end ofthe catheter
C. Aseptically collect urine directly from the drainage bag
D. Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing

A

D. Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing

91
Q
  1. What is used to zero the spectrophotometer before reading the test sample?

A. Calibrator
B. Sample blank
C. Reagent blank
D. Standard

A

C. Reagent blank

92
Q
  1. This is used to zero an instrument during a test procedure:

A. Calibrator
B. Sample blank
C. Reagent blank
D. Standard

A

B. Sample blank

93
Q
  1. Twenty patients on a surgical ward develop urinary tract infections after catheterization. In each instance, the isolated organism grows on sheep BAP as large, gray colony, and on MacConkey agar as a large, flat and pink colony. The oxidase-negative rod produces the same biotype and is resistant only to tetracycline. Additional biochemical results are as follows:

Phenylalanine deaminase (PAD): negative
Urease: negative
Hydrogen sulfide (H2S): negative
Lysine decarboxylase: negative
Ornithine decarboxylase: positive
Indole: positive
Citrate: negative
The most probable identity of this organism is:

A. Escherichia coli
B. Enterobacter cloacae
C. Enterobacter aerogenes
D. Proteus vulgaris

A

A. Escherichia coli

94
Q
  1. Formalin pigment may be removed from tissue by:

A. Running water
B. Alcoholic picric acid
C. Alcoholic iodine
D. Potassium permanganate

A

B. Alcoholic picric acid

95
Q
  1. Precipitate left in tissues that have been fixed in solutions containing mercuric chloride may be removed by immersion in:

A. Running water
B. Weak ammonia water
C. Sodium thiosulfate
D. Iodine

A

D. Iodine

96
Q
  1. Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5 or 1.0 pH unit with gastric stimulation:

A. Achlorhydria
B. Hypochlorhydria
C. Anacidity

A

A. Achlorhydria

97
Q
  1. Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5, although it decreases 1.0 pH unit or more upon gastric stimulation:

A. Achlorhydria
B. Hypochlorhydria
C. Anacidity

A

B. Hypochlorhydria

98
Q
  1. Failure of the stomach acidity to fall lower than 6.0 in a stimulation test:

A. Achlorhydria
B. Hypochlorhydria
C. Anacidity

A

C. Anacidity

99
Q
  1. Organisms that should be considered in a waterborne outbreak of diarrheal disease include:

A. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium spp.
B. Endolimax nana and Entamoeba histolytica
C. Blastocystis hominis and Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Toxoplasma gondii and Schistosoma mansoni

A

A. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium spp.

POPCORN (7 decks)

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