Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

POPCORN > 301-400 > Flashcards

301-400 Flashcards

1
Q

The most common form of vWD is:

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. All have about the same incidence

A

A. Type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Platelet aggregation studies in cases of classic von
Willebrand’s disease should reveal:

A. Normal platelet aggregation when factors such as ristocetin are used for testing
B. Absence of aggregation when actors such as epinephrine are used for testing
C. Decrease aggregation when factors such as ristocetin are used for testing
D. Decreased ADP activity when tested

A

C. Decrease aggregation when factors such as ristocetin are used for testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following parameters can be abnormal in classic von Willebrand’s disease type I?

A. Bleeding time
B. PT
C. Platelet count
D. All of the above

A

A. Bleeding time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When encountering a patient with a fistula, the phlebotomist should:

A. Apply the tourniquet below the fistula
B. Use the other arm
C. Collect the blood from the fistula
D. Attach a syringe to the T-tube connector

A

B. Use the other arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a child ingested rat poison, which of the following tests should be performed to test the effect of the poison on the child’s coagulation mechanism?

A. APTT
B. PT
C. Fibrinogen assay
D. Thrombin time

A

B. PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A patient on therapeutic warfarin will most likely have a(n)

A. Normal PT/INR, increased APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count
B. Increased PT/INR, increased APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count
C. Normal PT/INR, normal APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count
D. Increased PT/INR, normal APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count

A

B. Increased PT/INR, increased APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What coagulation plasma protein should be assayed when platelets fail to aggregate properly?

A. Factor VIII
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Factor X

A

B. Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The only abnormal test result in CHRONIC DIC:

A. PT
B. APTT
C. Thrombin time
D. D-dimer

A

D. D-dimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia?

A. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation
B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
D. Acute monocytic leukemia

A

B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Your patient is not wearing an ID band. You see that the ID band is taped to the nightstand. The information matches your requisition. What do you do?

A. Ask the patient to state her name; if it matches the requisition, continue.
B. Ask the patient’s nurse to attach an ID band and proceed when it is attached.
C. Go to the nurses’ station, get an ID bracelet, attach it, and then proceed.
D. Tell the nurse that you will not collect the specimen and return to the lab.

A

B. Ask the patient’s nurse to attach an ID band and proceed when it is attached.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The size threshold range used by electrical impedance methods to count particles as platelets is:

A. 0 to 10 fL
B. 2 to 20 fL
C. 15 to 40 fL
D. 35 to 90 fL

A

B. 2 to 20 fL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This term describes the balanced or “steady state” condition normally maintained by the body.

A. Anabolism
B. Catabolism
C. Hemostasis
D. Homeostasis

A

D. Homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A woman with breast cancer is treated with a monoclonal antibody to HER2. This is an example of:

A. Cancer vaccine
B. An immunotoxin
C. Passive immunotherapy
D. Active immunotherapy

A

C. Passive immunotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Forward-angle light scatter is an indicator of cell:

A. Granularity.
B. Density.
C. Size.
D. Number.

A

C. Size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated proteins) is specifically associated with which autoimmune disease?

A. RA
B. MG
C. Autoimmune hepatitis
D. Goodpasture’s syndrome

A

A. RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following would be considered an organ-specific autoimmune disease?

A. SLE
B. RA
C. GPA
D. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

D. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the immune phenomenon associated with the Arthus reaction?

A. Tissue destruction by cytotoxic T cells
B. Removal of antibody-coated RBCs
C. Deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels
D. Release of histamine from mast cells

A

C. Deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Reactions involving IgG may need to be enhanced for which reason?

A. It is only active at 25°C.
B. It may be too small to produce lattice formation.
C. It has only one antigen-binding site.
D. It is only able to produce visible precipitationreactions.

A

B. It may be too small to produce lattice formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which technique represents a single-di usion reaction?

A. Radial immunodi usion
B. Ouchterlony di usion
C. Immunoelectrophoresis
D. Immunofixation electrophoresis

A

A. Radial immunodi usion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When combining acid and water:

A. Acid is added to water.
B. Water is added to acid.
C. Water is slowly added to acid.
D. Both solutions are combined simultaneously.

A

A. Acid is added to water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The only biological waste that does not have to be discarded in a container with a biohazard symbol is:

A. Urine.
B. Serum.
C. Feces.
D. Serum tubes.

A

A. Urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The subclasses of IgG differ mainly in:

A. The type of L chain
B. The arrangement of disulfide bonds
C. The ability to act as opsonins
D. Molecular weight

A

B. The arrangement of disulfide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material and enzymatic granules within the phagocytic cell is called a:

A. Phagosome
B. Lysosome
C. Vacuole
D. Phagolysosome

A

D. Phagolysosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HLA molecules A, B, and C belong to which MHC class?

A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV

A

A. Class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which best describes an epitope?

A. A peptide that must be at least 10,000 MW
B. An area of an immunogen recognized only by T cells
C. A segment of sequential amino acids only
D. A key portion of the immunogen

A

D. A key portion of the immunogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

CSF TUBE 1
If glucose testing cannot be performed immediately, CSF should be stored:

A. At room temperature
B. In a refrigerator
C. In a freezer
D. In an incubator

A

C. In a freezer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Normal CSF contains all of the following proteins except:

A. Transferrin
B. Transthyretin
C. Albumin
D. Fibrinogen

A

D. Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A green-colored amniotic fluid is received in the laboratory for testing. The color of this specimen indicates the presence of:

A. Blood
B. Bilirubin
C. Meconium
D. Hemoglobin

A

C. Meconium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following contaminants has a dimpled center and can appear as a Maltese cross under polarized light?

A. Oil droplets
B. Air bubbles
C. Glass shards
D. Starch crystals

A

D. Starch crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A urine specimen with an elevated urobilinogen concentration but a negative bilirubin result may indicate the patient has:

A. Gallstones
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Liver cirrhosis

A

C. Hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following substances would most likely be found in the urine of a patient with anorexia nervosa?

A. Protein
B. Ketones
C. Glucose
D. Bilirubin

A

B. Ketones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Patients that take high doses of vitamin C may have a false-negative result for which of the following urine reagent test strip analytes?

A. pH
B. Ketones
C. Bilirubin
D. Specific gravity

A

C. Bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

After receiving a timed urine for quantitative analysis, the laboratorian must first:

A. Subculture the urine for bacteria
B. Add the appropriate preservative
C. Screen for albumin using a dipstick
D. Measure and record the total volume

A

D. Measure and record the total volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A urine sample collected from a 5-day-old baby has a noticeably sweet odor reminiscent of caramel or burnt sugar.
This odor is most commonly associated with:

A. Cystinuria
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Maple syrup urine disease

A

D. Maple syrup urine disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following collection methods would account for diurnal variation when quantitatively measuring urinary analytes?

A. Random
B. First morning
C. 24-hour timed
D. Two-hour timed

A

C. 24-hour timed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

AFTER A MEAL, WHAT IS THE URINE PH? Alkaline. A random urine specimen collected shortly after the patient ate lunch appeared cloudy. Results of the reagent test strip were normal. The most likely cause of the sample’s turbidity is the presence of:

A. Bacteria
B. White blood cells
C. Amorphous urates
D. Amorphous phosphates

A

D. Amorphous phosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Following a severe crush injury, a patient is transported to the emergency room where a blood sample and a urine sample are collected. The patient’s urine sample appears reddish-brown, which may be due to the presence of:

A. Stercobilin
B. Porphyrins
C. Myoglobin
D. Fresh blood

A

C. Myoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The clarity of a urine sample should be determined after:

A. The sample has been centrifuged
B. Thorough mixing of the specimen
C. The addition of 3% sulfosalicylic acid
D. The specimen is heated to body temperature

A

B. Thorough mixing of the specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following collection methods would yield the most sterile urine sample?

A. Random
B. Catheterization
C. Suprapubic aspiration
D. Clean-catch midstream

A

C. Suprapubic aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

An ammonia-like odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients with:

A. Phenylketonuria
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Bacterial infection
D. Yeast infection

A

C. Bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Low ionic strength saline (LISS) acts as an enhancement medium and facilitates antibody uptake by:

A. Activating complement
B. Increasing flexibility in hinge region
C. Removing water molecules
D. Reducing zeta potential

A

D. Reducing zeta potential

41
Q

Appropriate antigen-antibody ratios are important to avoid an excess of unbound antibody, which is known as:

A. Dosage effect
B. pH effect
C. Postzone effect
D. Prozone effect

A

D. Prozone effect

42
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins is most e causing direct hemagglutination?

A. lgG
B. lgM
C. lgA
D. lgE

A

B. lgM

43
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins is most e activating complement via the classical pathway?

A. lgG2
B. lgG4
C. lgM
D. lgA

A

C. lgM

44
Q

Which of the following genes is not in the MHC class I region?

A. HLA-A
B. HLA-8
C. HLA-C
D. HLA-DR

A

D. HLA-DR

45
Q

Antibodies from which of the following blood group systems are notorious for causing delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A. Rh
B. KEL
C. FY
D. JK

A

D. JK

46
Q

Which of the following red cell typings are most commonly found in the African American donor population?
A. Lu(a-b-)
B. Jk(a-b-)
C. Fy(a-b-)
D. K-k-

A

C. Fy(a-b-)

47
Q

Most blood group system genes and their resulting genetic traits display what type of inheritance?
A. Sex-linked dominant
B. Sex-linked recessive
C. Autosomal recessive
D. Autosomal codominant

A

Autosomal codominant

48
Q

A Kleihauer–Betke acid elution test identifies 40 fetal cells in 2,000 maternal red cells. How many full doses of RhIg are indicated?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

D. 4

49
Q

Which technique is used to detect DNA containing a specific base sequence by applying a labeled probe to DNA bands immobilized onto nitrocellulose paper following electrophoresis?

A. Southern blot
B. Northern blot
C. Dot blot
D. Western blot

A

A. Southern blot

50
Q

Which technique involves PROBE amplification rather than target amplification?

A. Southern blot
B. PCR
C. Transcription-mediated amplification
D. Ligase chain reaction

A

D. Ligase chain reaction

51
Q

Signal amplification di ers from target amplification when designing protocols for identification of nucleic acids. Which of the following is an example of a signal amplification technique?

A. Branched-chain DNA detection
B. Ligase chain reaction
C. Polymerase chain reaction
D. Reverse-transcriptase PCR

A

A. Branched-chain DNA detection

52
Q

Current recommendations include the combined detection of mannan and anti-mannan antibodies for the specific identification of _____ species in serum samples:

A. Bordetella
B. Candida
C. Cryptococcus
D. Mycobacterium

A

B. Candida

53
Q

It serves as the pivotal point for all three complement pathways:

A. C1
B. C2
C. C3
D. C5

A

C. C3

54
Q

Individuals with a _________ are prone to developing severe, recurrent life-threatening infections with encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcuspneumoniaeand may also be subject to immune complex diseases; such complexes can lodge in the kidney and result in glomerulonephritis:

A. C1 deficiency
B. C2 deficiency
C. C3 deficiency
D. C5 deficiency

A

C. C3 deficiency

55
Q

All of the following statements are true for IgE, except:

A. Most heat-stable of all immunoglobulins
B. Activate mast cells and basophils
C. Least abundant immunoglobulin in the serum
D. Serve a protective role by triggering an acute inflammatory reaction that recruits neutrophils and eosinophils to the area

A

A. Most heat-stable of all immunoglobulins

56
Q

Which immunoglobulin class(es) has (have) a J chain?

A. IgM
B. IgE and IgD
C. IgM and sIgA
D. IgG3 and IgA

A

C. IgM and sIgA

57
Q

Father of Immunology: (Stevens, Turgeon)

A. Edward Jenner
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Ellie Metchniko
D. Susumu Tonegawa

A

B. Louis Pasteur

58
Q

Discovery of genetic principles underlying the generation of antibodies with di erent specificities:

A. Gerald Edelman
B. Cesar Milstein
C. Susumu Tonegawa
D. Louis Pasteur

A

C. Susumu Tonegawa

59
Q

Within 5 hours of returning home from lunch at your most favorite fast food restaurant you feel very sick and are vomiting. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Escherichia coli

A

A. Staphylococcus aureus

60
Q

The bacterial species that can be described as:
● Susceptible to penicillin and bacitracin
● Beta-hemolytic
● A major cause of bacterial pharyngitis
● Often carrying an antiphagocytic M protein

A. Enterococcus faecalis
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Streptococcus agalactiae
D. Viridans streptococci

A

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

61
Q

Which of the following tests is important as a part of the genus identification or as part of a preliminary identification but is not used as a confirmatory identification of Bacillus anthracis?

A. Demonstration of a capsule
B. Demonstration of spore formation
C. Positive PCR test
D. Lysis of the strain by specific bacteriophages

A

B. Demonstration of spore formation

62
Q

Profuse watery diarrhea (“rice water stools”), leading to dramatic fluid loss, severe dehydration, and hypotension that frequently leads to death, is the hallmark of which toxin activity?

A. Cholera toxin
B. Enteric endotoxin
C. Shiga toxin
D. Toxin A

A

A. Cholera toxin

63
Q

The Runyon system of classification is based on which of the following?

A. Colony and microscopic morphology
B. Biochemical characteristics
C. Growth rate and colonial pigmentation
D. All of the above are correct

A

C. Growth rate and colonial pigmentation

64
Q

In the test for urease production, the presence of the enzyme hydrolyzes urea to which of the following?

A. Ammonia and CO2
B. Putrescine
C. Amines and CO2
D. Amines and water

A

A. Ammonia and CO2

65
Q

The bacterial isolate on XLD agar shown in the image was isolated from a routine stool culture. Which of the following genera and species is the most likely identification for this organism?

A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Salmonella enteritidis
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Serratia marcescens

A

B. Salmonella enteritidis

66
Q

A small portion of a colony of a gram-negative bacilli was smeared onto a filter paper test system. One percent tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride was added. At 10 seconds, a dark purple color developed where the colony was added to the paper.
Which of the following statements best describes the test results?

A. Positive indole test
B. Positive oxidase test
C. Positive urea test
D. Positive esculin test

A

B. Positive oxidase test

67
Q

In a quality control (QC) procedure on a new batch of Mueller-Hinton plates using a standard QC stock strain of
Staphylococcusaureus, the disk inhibition zone sizes for three of the drugs tested were too small and fell below the expected QC range.

Which of the following is the most likely reason for this observation?

A. These three antibiotic disks were outdated and had lost potency
B. These three disks were faulty in that the antibiotic content was too high
C. Bacterial suspension of Staphylococcus was probably contaminated with another organism
D. The plates received insu cient incubation time

A

A. These three antibiotic disks were outdated and had lost potency

68
Q

Routine culture media for use with a specimen of cerebrospinal fluid should include which of the following sets of media?

A. 5% sheep blood agar, Lowenstein Jensen agar, 7H9 agar
B. 5% sheep blood agar, thioglycolate broth
C. 5% sheep blood agar, MacConkey agar, Sabourad dextrose agar
D. 5% sheep blood agar, chocolate agar, thioglycolate broth

A

D. 5% sheep blood agar, chocolate agar, thioglycolate broth

69
Q

A college student is examined at the emergency department; he is disoriented with a fever, intense headache, sti neck, vomiting, and sensitivity to light. His friends say that he has been sick for about 2 days and that his condition worsened over the last 3 hours. The physician does a complete blood count (CBC) and electrolytes. The electrolytes are normal, but the patient’s white blood count (WBC) is 12,000 cells/L.
What test should the doctor order next?

A. Urine culture
B. Stool culture
C. Cerebrospinal fluid Gram stain and culture
D. Blood culture

A

C. Cerebrospinal fluid Gram stain and culture

70
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe an increase of lymphocytes and other mononuclear cells (pleocytosis) in the cerebrospinal fluid and negative bacterial and fungal cultures?

A. Meningoencephalitis
B. Aseptic meningitis
C. Encephalitis
D. Meningitis

A

B. Aseptic meningitis

71
Q

Which of the following statements best defines “infectious substances”?

A. Articles or substances capable of posing a risk to safety
B. Substances known or reasonably expected to contain pathogens
C. Patient samples containing bacteria
D. Samples with class 3 pathogens

A

B. Substances known or reasonably expected to contain pathogens

72
Q

Which of the following is an example of an inappropriate specimen or condition that would warrant rejection for microbiology culture?

A. A nonsterile container for a stool culture
B. A swab of a skin and soft tissue infection
C. A tissue sample for anaerobic culture
D. A 24-hour urine sample for bacteriology culture

A

D. A 24-hour urine sample for bacteriology culture

73
Q

The culture of which sample routinely uses quantitation or the counting of bacterial cells present to assist in the interpretation?

A. Blood
B. Sputum
C. Urine (cfu/mL)
D. Abscess

A

C. Urine (cfu/mL)

74
Q

The organism most commonly associated with otitis media infections is associated with which of the following positive test results?

A. Coagulase
B. VP
C. Optochin
D. Bacitracin

A

C. Optochin

75
Q

In a clinical specimen, the presence of sulfur granules strongly indicates the presence of which anaerobic bacterium?

A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Actinomyces spp.
C. Fusobacterium nucleatum
D. Clostridium tetani

A

B. Actinomyces spp.

76
Q

Lecithinase production, double zone hemolysis onsheep blood agar, and gram-stained morphology are all useful criteria in the identification of which of the following?

A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Clostridium tetani

A

A. Clostridium perfringens

77
Q

The gram-stained smear shows an organism isolated from a blood culture after bowel surgery. Under anaerobic incubation conditions, it grew as smooth, white, nonhemolytic colonies. The organism was not inhibited by colistin, kanamycin, or vancomycin and hydrolyzed esculin. The most likely identification of this isolate is which of the following?

A. Fusobacterium nucleatum
B. Fusobacterium varium
C. Bacteroides fragilis
D. Prevotella melaninogenica

A

C. Bacteroides fragilis

78
Q

Which of the following is the most sensitive method for the diagnosis of Chlamydiatrachomatis?

A. Cytology
B. Culture
C. Nucleic acid amplification
D. Serologic testing

A

C. Nucleic acid amplification

79
Q

Differentiation of Stenotrophomonas maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by which of the following tests?

A. Oxidase test
B. Maltose and glucose medium
C. Tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar
D. Growth at 42C

A

A. Oxidase test

80
Q

Which of the following specimens would be best for identifying Bacilluscereusas the cause of an outbreak of food poisoning?

A. Blood
B. Rectal swabs
C. Stool samples
D. Food

A

D. Food

81
Q

Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus cereus can be di erentiated in the laboratory by a variety of di erent test results. Which of the following sets of tests best differentiate these two species?

A. Catalase and glucose fermentation
B. Motility and lecithinase production
C. Oxidase and beta-hemolysis on 5% sheep blood agar
D. Motility and beta-hemolysis on 5% sheep blood agar

A

D. Motility and beta-hemolysis on 5% sheep blood agar

82
Q

The toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 is an important virulence factor in staphylococcal disease. This toxin is classified into which of the following groups of toxins?

A. Cytolytic toxin
B. Leukocidin
C. Phospholipase
D. Enterotoxin

A

D. Enterotoxin

83
Q

Which of the following bacteria should be considered important pathogens when reading gram-stained smears of soft tissue abscess?

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Staphylococcus aureus

A

D. Staphylococcus aureus

84
Q

Fermentation end-products are often used to aid in the identification of bacteria. Fermentation results in which of the following?

A. Conversion of glucose to pyruvate
B. Lactic acid, mixed acids, alcohols, CO2 production
C. CO2 and water
D. Specific teichoic acids

A

B. Lactic acid, mixed acids, alcohols, CO2 production

85
Q

Which of the following methods for quantitation of bacteria can be used to measure the total number of viable cells?

A. Turbidimetric determination
B. Microscopic chamber count
C. Total amount of nitrogen
D. Plate count

A

D. Plate count

86
Q

When using anaerobic jar, it is important to include reliable indicator of anaerobiasis like:

A. Eosin
B. Methyl red
C. Methylene blue
D. Palladium chloride

A

C. Methylene blue

87
Q

Which of the following chromosome abnormalities is associated with CML?

A. t(15;17)
B. t(8;14)
C. t(9;22)
D. Monosomy 7

A

C. t(9;22)

88
Q

Which of the following lysosomal storage diseases is characterized by macrophages with striated cytoplasm and storage of glucocerebroside?

A. Sanfilippo syndrome
B. Gaucher disease
C. Fabry disease
D. Niemann-Pick disease

A

B. Gaucher disease

89
Q

A Group A Rh-negative mother gave birth to a Group O
Rh-positive baby. The baby is at risk for HDFN if:

A. This was the mother’s first pregnancy
B. The mother has IgG ABO antibodies
C. The mother was previously immunized to the D antigen
D. The mother received Rh immune globulin prior to delivery

A

C. The mother was previously immunized to the D antigen

90
Q

Which of the following species of Plasmodium produce hypnozoites that can remain dormant in the liver and cause a relapse months or years later?

A. P.falciparum
B. P.vivax
C. P.knowlesi
D. P.malariae

A

B. P.vivax

91
Q

The primary pathophysiologic mechanism of anemia associated with chronic kidney disease is:

A. Inadequate production of erythropoietin
B. Excessive hemolysis
C. Hematopoietic stem cell mutation
D. Toxic destruction of stem cells

A

A. Inadequate production of erythropoietin

92
Q

Folate and vitamin B12 work together in the production of:

A. Amino acids
B. RNA
C. Phospholipids
D. DNA

A

D. DNA

93
Q

Which of the following molecules is stored in platelet dense granules?

A. Serotonin
B. Fibrinogen
C. PF4
D. Platelet-derived growth factor

A

A. Serotonin

94
Q

What plasma protein is essential to platelet adhesion?

A. VWF
B. Factor VIII
C. Fibrinogen
D. P-selectin

A

A. VWF

95
Q

What is the normal distribution of hemoglobins in healthy adults?

A. 80% to 90% Hb A, 5% to 10% Hb A2, 1% to 5% Hb F
B. 80% to 90% Hb A2, 5% to 10% Hb A, 1% to 5% Hb F
C. >95% Hb A, .5% Hb A2, 1% to 2% Hb F
D. >90% Hb A, 5% Hb F, <5% Hb A

A

C. >95% Hb A, .5% Hb A2, 1% to 2% Hb F

96
Q

Which organ is the site of sequestration of platelets?

A. Liver
B. Thymus
C. Spleen
D. Bone marrow

A

C. Spleen

97
Q

Physiologic programmed cell death is termed:

A. Angiogenesis
B. Apoptosis
C. Aneurysm
D. Apohematics

A

B. Apoptosis

98
Q

During the second trimester of fetal development, the primary site of blood cell production is the:

A. Bone marrow
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Liver

A

D. Liver

99
Q

The energy source for cells is the:

A. Golgi apparatus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Nucleolus
D. Mitochondrion

A

D. Mitochondrion

POPCORN (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions