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101-200 Flashcards

1
Q

Acid-fast staining of a smear prepared from digested sputum showed slender, slightly curved, beaded, red mycobacterial rods. Growth on Middlebrook 7H10 slants produced buff-colored microcolonies with a SERPENTINE PATTERN after
14 days at 37°C. NIACIN AND NITRATE REDUCTION TESTS WERE POSITIVE. What is the most probable presumptive identification?

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium ulcerans
C. Mycobacterium kansasii
D. Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare complex

A

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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2
Q

An isolate of Staphylococcusaureuswas cultured from an ulcer obtained from the leg of a diabetic 79-year-old female patient. The organism showed resistance to methicillin. Additionally, this isolate should be tested for resistance or susceptibility to:

A. Erythromycin
B. Gentamicin
C. Vancomycin
D. Kanamycin

A

C. Vancomycin

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3
Q

A commercial fisherman with red sores on his hands was seen by his physician. Biopsy and culture of one of the lesions grew an organism with the characteristics listed below:

Nonhemolytic on SBA
Gram-positive bacilli, no spores observed
Catalase negative
Hydrogen sulfide production positive
Growth in gelatin resembled a test-tube brush

What is the most likely identification?

A. Rhodococcus equi
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Lactobacillus acidophilus
D. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

D. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

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4
Q
  1. A discharge from an infected ear grows a colorless colony type on MacConkey agar that swarms on sheep BAP. This oxidase-negative, gram-negative rod is resistant to tetracycline and colistin on a routine Kirby-Bauer antimicrobial susceptibility test and gives the following biochemical reactions:

Phenylalanine deaminase (PAD): positive
Hydrogen sulfide (H2S): positive
Urease: positive
Lysine: negative
Ornithine: positive
Indole: negative Citrate: positive

The organism described is:

A. Citrobacter freundii
B. Morganella morganii
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Proteus vulgaris

A

C. Proteus mirabilis

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5
Q
  1. Most common type of microscopy performed in the urinalysis laboratory:

A. Bright-field microscopy
B. Phase-contrast microscopy
C. Polarizing microscopy
D. Interference-contrast microscope

A

A. Bright-field microscopy

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6
Q

106.Enhances visualization of elements with low refractive indices, such as hyaline casts, mixed cellular casts, mucous threads, and Trichomonas:

A. Bright-field microscopy
B. Phase-contrast microscopy
C. Polarizing microscopy
D. Interference-contrast microscope

A

B. Phase-contrast microscopy

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7
Q
  1. A 1-week-old newborn develops meningitis. Short, gram-positive rods are isolated. History reveals that the mother had eaten unpasteurized cheese from Mexico during pregnancy, and she recalled having a flu-like illness. Which of the following is the most likely etiologic microorganism?

A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Group B streptococci
D. Listeria monocytogenes
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

D. Listeria monocytogenes

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8
Q
  1. Metabolism of glucose molecule to pyruvate or lactate for production of energy

A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Glycolysis

A

D. Glycolysis

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9
Q

Formation of glucose-6-phosphate from noncarbohydrate sources

A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Glycolysis

A

A. Gluconeogenesis

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10
Q

Breakdown of glycogen to glucose for use as energy

A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Glycolysis

A

B. Glycogenolysis

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11
Q
  1. Conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage

A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Glycolysis

A

C. Glycogenesis

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12
Q
  1. Which set of results is consistent with uncompensated respiratory alkalosis?

A. pH 7.70 HCO3- 30 mmol/L pCO2 25 mm Hg
B. pH 7.66 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 20 mm Hg
C. pH 7.46 HCO3- 38 mmol/L pCO2 55 mm Hg D. pH 7.36 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 38 mm Hg

A

B. pH 7.66 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 20 mm Hg

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13
Q

TIPS FOR EVALUATING ACID-BASE DISORDERS

  1. Look at the pH: determine if acidosis or alkalosis
  2. Compare pCO2 and HCO3 pCO2 going opposite to pH – RESPIRATORY
    Abnormal pCO2 respiratory
    [↓pH ↑pCO2 respiratory acidosis]
    [↑pH ↓pCO2 respiratory alkalosis]
    HCO3- going same direction as pH - METABOLIC
    Abnormal HCO3- metabolic
    [↓pH ↓HCO3- metabolic acidosis]
    [↑ pH ↑ HCO3- metabolic alkalosis]
  3. If pH is normal, full compensation occurred
  4. If main compensatory mechanism kicked in, but pH still out of normal range, partial compensation has occurred
A
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14
Q
  1. When semi-automated urine chemistry analyzers are used, the color that develops on the reaction pads is measured by:

A. Spectrophotometry.
B. Reflectance photometry.
C. Fluorescence photometry.
D. Comparing reaction pads with a color chart.

A

B. Reflectance photometry.

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15
Q

A 17-year-old female with cystic fibrosis is diagnosed with pneumonia. A sputum sample grew gram-negative bacilli with yellow (check) , smooth colonies that have the following biochemical reactions:

Oxidase: positive (check)
TSI: alk/alk
Glucose: oxidized
Fluorescence: negative
Lysine decarboxylase: positive

The most likely organism is:

A. Burkholderia cepacia
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Shewanella putrefaciens
D. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

A

A. Burkholderia cepacia

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16
Q
  1. The most important practice in preventing the spread of disease is:

A. Wearing masks during patient contact
B. Proper hand washing
C. Wearing disposable laboratory coats
D. Identifying specimens from known or suspected HIV-and HBV-infected patients with a red label

A

B. Proper hand washing

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17
Q
  1. Identify the enzyme deficiency responsible for type 1 glycogen storage disease (von Gierke’s disease).

A. Glucose-6-phosphatase
B. Glycogen phosphorylase
C. Glycogen synthetase
D. β-Glucosidase

A

A. Glucose-6-phosphatase

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following abnormal laboratory results is found in von Gierke’s disease?

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Increased glucose response to epinephrine administration
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Hyperlipidemia

A

D. Hyperlipidemia

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19
Q

ANSWER & IDENTIFY THE ORGANISM

A wound (skin lesion) specimen obtained from a newborn grew predominantly β-hemolytic colonies of gram-positive cocci on 5% sheep blood agar. The newborn infant was covered with small skin eruptions that gave the appearance of a “scalding of the skin.” The gram-positive cocci proved to be catalase positive. Which tests should follow for the appropriate identification?

A. Optochin, bile solubility, PYR
B. Coagulase, glucose fermentation, DNase (S. aureus)
C. Bacitracin, PYR, 6.5% salt broth
D. CAMP, bile-esculin, 6.5% salt broth

A

B. Coagulase, glucose fermentation, DNase (S. aureus)

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20
Q

The following results were obtained from a pure culture of gram-negative rods recovered from the pulmonary secretions of a 10-year-old cystic fibrosis patient with pneumonia:
Oxidase = +
Motility = +
Glucose OF (open) = +
Gelatin hydrolysis = +
Growth at 42°C = +
Flagella = + (polar, monotrichous)

Which is the most likely organism?

A. Burkholderia pseudomallei
B. Pseudomonas stutzeri
C. Burkholderia cepacia
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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21
Q

Which of the following aids in di erentiating a spherical transitional cell from a round renal tubular cell?

A. Spherical transitional cell is larger
B. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the renal tubular cell
C. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the spherical transitional cell
D. Round renal tubular cell is larger

A

B. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the renal tubular cell

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22
Q

A scraping from a painful, inflamed wound is found to contain numerous gram-negative bacteria. Upon questioning, the feverish patient states that he was bitten by a cat while trying to rescue it from a storm drain earlier in the day. Given these observations, which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of infection?

A. Aeromonas species
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Pasteurella multocida
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Yersinia enterocolitica

A

C. Pasteurella multocida

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23
Q

A teenaged boy su ered a foot laceration while swimming in a polluted water area in a river. He did not seek medical treatment, and the wound developed a foul-smelling exudate. One of the bacteria isolated from the abscess exudate was missing superoxide dismutase, catalase, and a peroxidase. Which of the following statements best describes this microorganism?
A. It is a capnophile
B. It is a facultative anaerobe
C. It is a microaerophile
D. It is an anaerobe
E. It is an obligate aerobe

A

D. It is an anaerobe

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24
Q

Seventy (70) percent recirculated to the cabinet work area through HEPA; 30% balance can be exhausted through HEPA back into the room or to outside through a canopy unit:

A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2

A

B. BSC Class II, A1

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25
Q

Thirty (30) percent recirculated, 70% exhausted. Exhaust cabinet air must pass through a dedicated duct to the outside through a HEPA filter.

A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2

A

C. BSC Class II, B1

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26
Q

No recirculation; total exhaust to the outside through a HEPA filter.

A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2

A

D. BSC Class II, B2

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27
Q

Production of exotoxin A, which kills host cells by inhibiting protein synthesis and production of several proteolytic enzymes and hemolysins that destroy cells and tissue are factors that contribute to pathogenicity of which of the following organisms?

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Burkholderia cepacia
C. Ralstonia pickettii
D. Burkholderia mallei

A

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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28
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with normal urine color but produces red fluorescence when urine is examined with an ultraviolet (Wood’s) lamp?

A. Acute intermittent porphyria
B. Lead poisoning
C. Erythropoietic porphyria
D. Porphyria cutanea tarda

A

B. Lead poisoning

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29
Q

Black belts dedicate _______ of their time to quality improvement projects, proactively addressing process and quality problems.

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 70%
D. 100%

A

D. 100%

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30
Q

Green belts contribute ______ of their time to improvement projects while delivering their normal job functions.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 70%
D. 100%

A

C. 70%

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31
Q

Which set of results is consistent with uncompensated metabolic acidosis?

A. pH 7.25 HCO3- 15 mmol/L pCO2 37 mm Hg
B. pH 7.30 HCO3- 16 mmol/L pCO2 28 mm Hg
C. pH 7.45 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 40 mm Hg
D. pH 7.40 HCO3- 25 mmol/L pCO2 40 mm Hg

A

A. pH 7.25 HCO3- 15 mmol/L pCO2 37 mm Hg

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32
Q

The minimum concentration of antimicrobial agent needed to prevent visually discernible growth of a bacterial or fungal suspension.
A. Minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC)
B. Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
C. Both of these
D. None of these

A

B. Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

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33
Q

The minimum concentration of antimicrobial agent needed to yield a 99.9% reduction in viable colony-forming units of a bacterial or fungal suspension.

A. Minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC)
B. Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
C. Both of these
D. None of these

A

A. Minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC)

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34
Q

Bacterial, viral, and protozoan infections produce increased secretion of water and electrolytes, which override the reabsorptive ability of the large intestine, leading to:

A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these

A

B. Secretory diarrhea

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35
Q

Secretory diarrhea is caused by:

A. Antibiotic administration
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Celiac sprue
D. Vibrio cholerae

A

D. Vibrio cholerae

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36
Q

Maldigestion (impaired food digestion) and malabsorption (impaired nutrient absorption by the intestine) contribute to:

A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these

A

A. Osmotic diarrhea

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37
Q

In the fall of 2001, a series of letters containing spores of Bacillusanthraciswere mailed to members of the media and to U.S. Senate o ces. The result was 22 cases of anthrax, with five deaths. The heat resistance of bacterial spores, such as those of Bacillusanthracis, is partly attributable to their dehydrated state and partly to the presence of large amounts of

A. Diaminopimelic acid
B. d-Glutamic acid
C. Calcium dipicolinate
D. Sulfhydryl-containingproteins
E. Lipid A

A

C. Calcium dipicolinate

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38
Q

Low to absent fructose level in the semen:

A. Low sperm concentration
B. Low sperm motility
C. Low sperm viability
D. Presence of antisperm antibodies

A

A. Low sperm concentration

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39
Q

Specimens for fructose levels should be tested within 2 hours of collection or _______ to prevent fructolysis.

A. Refrigerated
B. Frozen
C. Incubated at 37C
D. Maintained at room temperature

A

B. Frozen

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40
Q

Specimens can be screened for the presence of fructose using the resorcinol test that produces an _______color when fructose is present.

A. Blue
B. Black
C. Green
D. Orange

A

D. Orange

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41
Q

Oxidase positive, urease negative:

A. B. pertussis
B. B. parapertussis
C. B. bronchiseptica
D. None of these

A

A. B. pertussis

42
Q

Oxidase and urease positive:

A. B.pertussis
B. B.parapertussis
C. B.bronchiseptica
D. None of these

A

C. B.bronchiseptica

43
Q

Oxidase negative, urease positive:

A. B.pertussis
B. B.parapertussis
C. B.bronchiseptica
D. None of these

A

B. B.parapertussis

44
Q

Sodium citrate in the concentration of a _____ solution has been adopted as the appropriate concentration by the ICSH and the International Society for Thrombosis and Hemostasis for coagulation studies.

A. 1.5%
B. 15%
C. 3.2%
D. 3.8%

A

C. 3.2%

45
Q

In the United States, the NGSP, with the Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) _____ method, is used as a PRIMARY REFERENCE METHOD for measuring HbA1c.

A. Immunoassay
B. Electrophoresis
C. Affnity chromatography
D. HPLC

A

D. HPLC

46
Q
  1. PREFERRED METHOD of measuring HbA1c:

A. Immunoassay
B. Electrophoresis
C. Affinity chromatography
D. HPLC

A

C. Affinity chromatography

47
Q
  1. What clotting factors (cofactors) are inhibited by protein S?

A. V and X
B. Va and VIIIa
C. VIII and IX
D. VIII and X

A

B. Va and VIIIa

48
Q

Which of the following disorders is NOT associated with an elevated blood ammonia level?

A. Reye syndrome
B. Renal failure
C. Chronic liver failure
D. Diabetes mellitus

A

D. Diabetes mellitus

49
Q

Quadrate scolex with 4 suckers; no rostellum or hooklets:

A. D. latum
B. T. saginata
C. T. solium
D. H. diminuta

A

B. T. saginata

50
Q

Quadrate scolex with 4 suckers; has rostellum and hooklets:

A. D. latum
B. T. saginata
C. T. solium
D. H. diminuta

A

C. T. solium

51
Q

In patients with developing subclinical hypothyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ______, and fT4 will likely be ______.

A. Decreased, increased
B. Increased, decreased
C. Decreased, normal
D. Increased, normal

A

D. Increased, normal

52
Q

Which of the following tests provides a good indication of accelerated erythropoiesis?

A. Urine urobilinogen level
B. Hemosiderin level
C. Reticulocyte count
D. Glycated hemoglobin level

A

C. Reticulocyte count

53
Q

INR range recommended for most indications (e.g., treatment or prophylaxis of deep venous thrombosis [DVT], or prevention of further clotting in patients who have had a myocardial infarction):

A. 1.0 to 1.5
B. 1.5 to 2.0
C. 2.0 to 3.0
D. 2.5 to 3.5

A

C. 2.0 to 3.0

54
Q

INR recommended for patients with prosthetic heart valves:

A. 1.0 to 1.5
B. 1.5 to 2.0
C. 2.0 to 3.0
D. 2.5 to 3.5

A

D. 2.5 to 3.5

55
Q

The target INR for pulmonary embolism (PE) treatment is ____ for the duration of anticoagulation.

A. 1.0
B. 2.0
C. 2.5
D. 3.0

A

D. 3.0

56
Q

In the ultraviolet enzymatic method for BUN, the urease reaction is coupled to a second enzymatic reaction using:

A. AST
B. Glutamate dehydrogenase
C. Glutamine synthetase
D. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

A

B. Glutamate dehydrogenase

57
Q

A characteristic of the Bence Jones protein that is used to distinguish it from other urinary proteins is its solubility:

A. In ammonium sulfate
B. In sulfuric acid
C. At 40 to 60 °C
D. At 100 °C

A

D. At 100 °C

58
Q

Differentiation of Stenotrophomonas maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by which of the following tests?

A. Oxidase test
B. Maltose and glucose medium
C. Tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar
D. Growth at 42C

A

A. Oxidase test

59
Q

Most common complication encountered in obtaining a blood specimen:

A. Ecchymosis (bruise)
B. Hematoma
C. Hemoconcentration
D. None of these

A

A. Ecchymosis (bruise)

60
Q

It is caused by leakage of a SMALL AMOUNT OF BLOOD in the tissue around the puncture site:

A. Ecchymosis (bruise)
B. Hematoma
C. Hemoconcentration
D. None of these

A

A. Ecchymosis (bruise)

61
Q

Leakage of a LARGE AMOUNT OF BLOOD around the puncture site causes the area to rapidly swell:

A. Ecchymosis (bruise)
B. Hematoma
C. Hemoconcentration
D. None of these

A

B. Hematoma

62
Q

Destruction of the myelin sheath of axons caused by the presence of antibody is characteristic of which disease?

A. MS
B. MG
C. Graves disease
D. Goodpasture’s syndrome

A

A. MS

63
Q

A lack of C1-INH might result in which of the following conditions?

A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
B. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
C. Hereditary angioedema
D. Increased bacterial infections

A

C. Hereditary angioedema

64
Q

Which term describes a congenital disorder that is characterized by a split in the albumin band when serum is subjected to electrophoresis?

A. Analbuminemia
B. Anodic albuminemia
C. Prealbuminemia
D. Bisalbuminemia

A

D. Bisalbuminemia

65
Q

Bisalbuminemia:

A. Acquired disorder
B. Congenital disorder

A

B. Congenital disorder

66
Q

Given the following results:
● ALP: marked increased
● AST: slight increased
● ALT: slight increased
● GGT: marked increased
This is most consistent with:

A. Acute hepatitis
B. Osteitis fibrosa
C. Chronic hepatitis
D. Obstructive jaundice

A

D. Obstructive jaundice

67
Q

A physician orders several laboratory tests on a 55-year-old male patient who is complaining of pain, sti ness, fatigue and headaches. Based on the following serum test results, what is the most likely diagnosis?

● ALP: significantly increased
● GGT: normal

A. Biliary obstruction
B. Cirrhosis
C. Hepatitis
D. Osteitis deformans (Paget disease)

A

D. Osteitis deformans (Paget disease)

68
Q

Which enzyme deficiency is most commonly associated with familial hypertriglyceridemia associated with fasting plasma cholomicrons (formerly type I hyperlipoproteinemia)?

A. β Glucocerebrosidase deficiency
B. Post–heparin-activated lipoprotein lipasedeficiency
C. Apo-B deficiency
D. Apo-C-III deficiency

A

B. Post–heparin-activated lipoprotein lipasedeficiency

69
Q

When measuring K+ with an ion-selective electrode by means of a liquid ion-exchange membrane, what antibiotic will be incorporated into the membrane?

A. Monactin
B. Nonactin
C. Streptomycin
D. Valinomycin

A

D. Valinomycin

70
Q

Which of the following normally accounts for the largest fraction of CSF total proteins?

A. Albumin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Haptoglobin
D. Transthyretin

A

A. Albumin

71
Q

Phlebotomy complications including diaphoresis, seizure, pain, and nerve damage:
A. Cardiovascular complications
B. Vascular complications
C. Neurological complications
D. Infections

A

C. Neurological complications

72
Q
  1. Which of the following cells is most commonly associated with a non-clean-catch specimen and/or vaginal contamination?

A. White blood cells
B. Renal epithelial cells
C. Squamous epithelial cells
D. Transitional epithelial cells

A

C. Squamous epithelial cells

73
Q
  1. You receive a blood gas sample on a patient who is in the emergency room for assessment of unexplained vomiting for the past 4 days and abnormal respirations. Which of the following interpretations best describes the patient’s blood gas results?

pH: 7.50
pO2: 85 mm Hg pCO2: 55 mm Hg
HCO3-: 35 mmol/L

A. Partially compensated metabolic acidosis
B. Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis
C. Compensated metabolic alkalosis
D. Compensated metabolic acidosis

A

B. Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis

74
Q
  1. Which of the following is a proper way to clean up a small blood spill that has dried on a countertop?

A. Moisten it with a disinfectant and carefully absorb it with a paper towel
B. Rub it with an alcohol pad, then wipe the area with a clean alcohol pad
C. Scrape it into a biohazard bag and wash the surface with soap and water
D. Use a disinfectant wipe and scrub it in ever increasing
concentric circles

A

A. Moisten it with a disinfectant and carefully absorb it with a paper towel

75
Q

MINIMUM precentrifugation time for specimens drawn in serum separator tubes is:

A. 10 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 30 minutes

A

D. 30 minutes

76
Q

According to CLSI, the MAXIMUM time limit for separating serum or plasma from cells is:

A. 15 minutes from the time of collection
B. 30 minutes from the time of collection
C. 1 hour from the time of collection
D. 2 hours from the time of collection

A

D. 2 hours from the time of collection

77
Q

Which of the following plots is best for detecting all types of QC errors?

A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Linear regression

A

A. Levy–Jennings

78
Q

Which of the following plots is best for comparison of precision and accuracy among laboratories?

A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Linear regression

A

B. Tonks–Youden

79
Q

Which plot will give the earliest indication of a shift or trend?

A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Histogram

A

C. Cusum

80
Q

Which of the following best describes a hapten?

A. Cannot react with antibody
B. Antigenic only when coupled to a carrier
C. Has multiple determinant sites
D. A large chemically complex molecule

A

B. Antigenic only when coupled to a carrier

81
Q

What is the primary goal of TQM?

A. Precise test results
B. Increased laboratory productivity
C. Improved patient outcomes
D. Reproducible test results

A

C. Improved patient outcomes

82
Q

Which is normally the most abundant corticosteroid hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex?

A. Cortisol
B. Dehydroepiandrosterone
C. Aldosterone
D. Corticosterone

A

A. Cortisol

83
Q

Neutrophil in the maturation-storage phase:

A. 7 to 10 hours
B. 7 to 10 days
C. 8.5 hours
D. 12 hours

A

B. 7 to 10 days

84
Q

Basophil in the maturation-storage phase:

A. 7 to 10 hours
B. 7 to 10 days
C. 8.5 hours
D. 12 hours

A

D. 12 hours

85
Q

Eosinophil in the maturation-storage phase:

A. 2.5 days
B. 3.5 days
C. 8.5 hours
D. 12 hours

A

D. 12 hours

86
Q

Average lifespan of neutrophils in circulating blood:

A. 7 to 10 hours
B. 7 to 10 days
C. 8.5 hours
D. 12 hours

A

A. 7 to 10 hours

87
Q
  1. Average lifespan of basophils in circulating blood:

A. 7 to 10 hours
B. 7 to 10 days
C. 8.5 hours
D. 12 hours

A

C. 8.5 hours

88
Q
  1. On a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear, stress or shift reticulocytes are:

A. Smaller than normal reticulocytes
B. About the same size as normal reticulocytes
C. Larger than normal reticulocytes
D. Noticeable because of a decreased blue tint

A

C. Larger than normal reticulocytes

89
Q

In salicylate overdose, what is the first acid-base disturbance present?

A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

A

D. Respiratory alkalosis

90
Q

A decrease in serum haptoglobin accompanies which of the following?

A. Extravascular hemolysis
B. Intravascular hemolysis
C. Extramedullary hematopoiesis
D. Suppressed erythropoiesis

A

B. Intravascular hemolysis

91
Q

The recommended type of microscopy for the performance of manual platelet counts is:
A. Electron
B. Darkfield
C. Light
D. Phase contrast

A

D. Phase contrast

92
Q

Primumnonnocere comes from the Hippocratic Oath and means:

A. Do first things first
B. First do no harm
C. Quality is foremost
D. Ready to serve

A

B. First do no harm

93
Q

Which of the following mechanisms accounts for the elevated plasma level of β lipoproteins seen in familial hypercholesterolemia (formerly type II hyperlipoproteinemia)?

A. Hyperinsulinemia
B. ApoB-100 receptor defect
C. ApoC-II activated lipase deficiency
D. ApoE3 deficiency

A

B. ApoB-100 receptor defect

94
Q

Which of the following protein methods has the highest analytical sensitivity?

A. Refractometry
B. Folin–Lowry
C. Turbidimetry
D. Direct ultraviolet absorption

A

B. Folin–Lowry

95
Q

It is increased in hemolytic anemias:

A. B1
B. B2
C. Both fractions
D. None of these

A

A. B1

96
Q

It is increased in bile duct obstruction:

A. B1
B. B2
C. Both fractions
D. None of these

A

B. B2

97
Q

Increased in hepatitis:

A. B1
B. B2
C. Both fractions
D. None of these

A

C. Both fractions

98
Q

All of the following are true of IgE exceptthat it:

A. Fails to fix complement.
B. Is heat stable.
C. Attaches to tissue mast cells.
D. Is found in the serum of allergic persons

A

B. Is heat stable.

99
Q

Which substrate is used in the Bowers–McComb method for ALP?

A. p-Nitrophenyl phosphate
B. β-Glycerophosphate
C. Phenylphosphate
D. α-Naphthylphosphate

A

A. p-Nitrophenyl phosphate

100
Q

A solution used to clean the site before routine venipuncture is:

A. 5.25% sodium hypochlorite.
B. 70% isopropyl alcohol.
C. 70% methanol.
D. Povidone–iodine.

A

B. 70% isopropyl alcohol.

101
Q

This antiseptic has been traditionally used to obtain the high degree of skin antisepsis required when BLOOD CULTURES are being collected:

A. 70% Ethyl alcohol
B. 70% Isopropanol
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Povidone–iodine

A

D. Povidone–iodine

POPCORN (7 decks)

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