Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

POPCORN > 401-500 > Flashcards

401-500 Flashcards

1
Q

Protein synthesis occurs in the:

A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Ribosomes
D. Golgi apparatus

A

C. Ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The “control center” of the cell is the:

A. Nucleus
B. Cytoplasm
C. Membrane
D. Microtubular system

A

A. Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which is a statistical test comparing means?

A. Bland-Altman
B. Student’s t-test
C. ANOVA
D. Pearson

A

B. Student’s t-test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The recommended cleaner for removing oil from objectives is:

A. 70% alcohol or lens cleaner
B. Xylene
C. Water
D. Benzene

A

A. 70% alcohol or lens cleaner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following gathers, organizes, and directs light through the specimen?

A. Eyepiece
B. Objective lens
C. Condenser
D. Optical tub

A

C. Condenser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The most important step in phlebotomy is:

A. Cleansing the site
B. Identifying the patient
C. Selecting the proper needle length
D. Using the correct evacuated tube

A

B. Identifying the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Select the needle most commonly used in standard venipuncture in an adult:

A. One inch, 18 gauge
B. One inch, 21 gauge
C. One-half inch, 23 gauge
D. One-half inch, 25 gauge

A

B. One inch, 21 gauge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where should alcohol and other flammable chemicals be stored?

A. In an approved safety can or storage cabinet away from heat sources
B. Under a hood and arranged alphabetically for ease of
identification in an emergency
C. In a refrigerator at 28C to 88C to reduce volatilization
D. On a low shelf in an area protected from light

A

A. In an approved safety can or storage cabinet away from heat sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The appropriate dilution of bleach to be used in laboratory disinfection is:

A. 1:2
B. 1:5
C. 1:10
D. 1:100

A

C. 1:10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

According to the WHO classification of MDS, what percentage of blasts would constitute transformation to an acute leukemia?

A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 30%

A

C. 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following sets of results most closely indicates an exudate?

A. Clear, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.8, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.7, WBC count of 1000/uL
B. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.4, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.5, WBC count of 800/uL
C. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.8, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.7, WBC count of 2500/uL
D. Clear, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.45, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.40, WBC count of 800/uL

A

C. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.8, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.7, WBC count of 2500/uL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In patients with developing subclinical hypothyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ______, and fT4 will likely be ______.
A. Decreased, increased
B. Increased, decreased
C. Decreased, normal
D. Increased, normal

A

D. Increased, normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

All of the following characteristics are consistent with the appearance of normal cerebrospinal fluid except:

A. Crystal clear
B. CSF protein of 20 mg/dL
C. IgG index of 0.70 or less
D. WBC count greater than 100/uL

A

D. WBC count greater than 100/uL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The L-pyrolidonyl-b-naphthylamide (PYR) hydrolysis test is a presumptive test for which of the following streptococci?

A. Groups A and B
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae and group C
C. Group A and Enterococcus
D. Group A and Streptococcus bovis

A

C. Group A and Enterococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The biochemical tests performed on a gram-positive bacillus were consistent with those of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The MLS should now:

A. Perform a spore stain of the colonies
B. Determine if the isolate is toxigenic by performing an Elek test
C. Perform an agglutination test to confirm the organism’s
identity
D. Subculture the organism to Hektoen enteric medium and examine for black colonies

A

B. Determine if the isolate is toxigenic by performing an Elek test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Organs that affect calcium levels:

A. Heart, lungs and liver
B. Heart, lungs and kidney
C. Bone, intestines and heart
D. Bone, intestines and kidney

A

D. Bone, intestines and kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What percentage of serum calcium is in the ionized form?

A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 80%

A

B. 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A patient presents with Addison disease. Serum sodium and potassium analyses are performed. What would the results reveal?

A. Normal sodium, low potassium levels
B. Low sodium, low potassium levels
C. Low sodium, high potassium levels
D. High sodium, low potassium levels

A

C. Low sodium, high potassium levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Of the total serum osmolality, sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate ions normally contribute approximately what percent?

A. 8
B. 45
C. 75
D. 92

A

D. 92

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following enzyme activities can be determined by using a dilute olive oil emulsion substrate, whose hydrolyzed product is monitored as a decrease in turbidity or light scatter?

A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Amylase
C. Lipase
D. Trypsin

A

C. Lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following proteins is normally produced by the fetus but is found in increased amounts in the amniotic fluid in cases of spina bifida?

A. Alpha1-antitrypsin
B. Alpha1-acid glycoprotein
C. Alpha1-fetoprotein
D. Alpha2-macroglobulin

A

C. Alpha1-fetoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following reagents can be used to measure protein in cerebrospinal fluid?

A. Biuret
B. Coomassie brilliant blue
C. Ponceau S
D. Bromcresol green

A

B. Coomassie brilliant blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

To calibrate the pH electrode in a pH/ blood gas analyzer, it is necessary that:

A. The barometric pressure be known and used for adjustments
B. Calibrating gases of known high and low concentrations be used
C. The calibration be performed at room temperature
D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be used

A

D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When measuring K+ with an ion-selective electrode by means of a liquid ion-exchange membrane, what antibiotic will be incorporated into the membrane?

A. Monactin
B. Nonactin
C. Streptomycin
D. Valinomycin

A

D. Valinomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The most common light source for fluorometry is:

A. Hydrogen lamp
B. Mercury lamp
C. Tungsten lamp
D. Xenon lamp

A

D. Xenon lamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, the numerator denotes _____ functions.

A. Brain
B. Pituitary
C. Lung
D. Kidney

A

D. Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, the denominator denotes _____ functions.

A. Brain
B. Pituitary
C. Lung
D. Kidney

A

C. Lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following blood gas disorders is most commonly associated with an abnormal anion gap?

A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

A

A. Metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following conditions will cause an increased anion gap?

A. Diarrhea
B. Hypoaldosteronism
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Renal failure

A

D. Renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In ketoacidosis, the anion gap would most likely to be affected in what way?

A. Unchanged from normal
B. Increased
C. Decreased
D. Balanced

A

B. Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Reversal (low) albumin and globulin (A/G) ratio:

A. Liver cirrhosis
B. Liver cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome
C. Liver cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome and multiple myeloma
D. Nephrotic syndrome and multiple myeloma

A

C. Liver cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome and multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Urea is only a rough estimate of renal function and will not show any significant level of increased concentration until the GLOMERULAR FILTRATION RATE IS DECREASED BY AT LEAST ____.

A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 80

A

B. 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Glucose measurements can be ____ mg/dL erroneously higher by reducing methods than by more accurate enzymatic methods.

A. 1 to 5 mg/dL
B. 5 to 15 mg/dL
C. 20 to 25 mg/dL
D. 30 to 35 mg/dL

A

B. 5 to 15 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A method for the estimation of glucose in body fluids; glucose in the protein-free filtrate reduces cupric ion to cuprous ion. The cuprous ion then reduces PHOSPHOMOLYBDIC ACID to molybdenum blue which can be estimated colorimetrically.

A. Dubowski method
B. Folin-Wu
C. Nelson-Somogyi
D. Neocuproine

A

B. Folin-Wu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Copper reduction method for glucose that uses arsenomolybdic acid:

A. Folin-Wu
B. Nelson-Somogyi
C. Neocuproine
D. All of these

A

B. Nelson-Somogyi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In the United States, the NGSP, with the Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) _____ method, is used as a PRIMARY REFERENCE METHOD for measuring HbA1c.

A. Immunoassay
B. Electrophoresis
C. Affinity chromatography
D. HPLC

A

D. HPLC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

PREFERRED METHOD of measuring HbA1c:

A. Immunoassay
B. Electrophoresis
C. Affinity chromatography
D. HPLC

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Single best hormone to determine whether ovulation has occurred; THERMOGENIC EFFECT, in which basal body temperature rises after ovulation. This effect is of clinical use in marking the occurrence of ovulation.

A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Testosterone
D. Thyroxine

A

B. Progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The protein present in vaginal secretions that can identify patients who are at risk for preterm delivery is:

A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Estrogen
C. PAMG-1
D. Fetal fibronectin

A

D. Fetal fibronectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Recently, it was established as an accurate marker of CSF leakage:

A. Fibronectin
B. Cystatin C
C. Troponin
D. β-Trace Protein

A

D. β-Trace Protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following can cause cardiac arrest in the absence of warning symptoms or signs?

A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia

A

C. Hyperkalemia

42
Q

The “gold standard” in the diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome (ACS):

A. Fibronectin
B. Cystatin C
C. Troponin
D. β-Trace Protein

A

C. Troponin

43
Q

As a cardiac biomarker, ________ has been used in conjunction with troponin to help diagnose or rule out a heart attack.

A. BNP
B. Myoglobin
C. Troponin
D. Adiponectin

A

B. Myoglobin

44
Q

Which test is used as an indicator of congestive heart failure?

A. CRP
B. BNP
C. Cholesterol
D. Troponin
E. Haptoglobin

A

B. BNP

45
Q

Which of the following is a marker for bone resorption?

A. β-trace protein
B. Adiponectin
C. Fibronectin
D. Crosslinked C-telopeptide

A

D. Crosslinked C-telopeptide

46
Q

Which of the following is a marker for bone formation?

A. Osteocalcin
B. Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)
C. Urinary pyridinoline and deoxypyridinoline
D. Urinary C-telopeptide and N-telopeptide crosslinks (CTx and NTx)

A

A. Osteocalcin

47
Q

Hepatocellular damage may be best assessed by which of the following parameters?

A. Serum AST and ALT levels
B. GGT and ALP
C. Bilirubin, GGT, and ALP
D. Ammonia and urea

A

A. Serum AST and ALT levels

48
Q

Which of the following analytes is the best indicator of hepatobiliary damage?

A. AST
B. ALT
C. ALP
D. Bilirubin

A

C. ALP

49
Q

A 3-year-old child is evaluated for abdominal pain and anorexia by a physician. A CBC reveals a hemoglobin of 9.8 g/dl (98 g/L) and basophilic stippling of the RBCs. The doctor should order further tests to check for poisoning from:

A. Arsenic
B. Iron
C. Mercury
D. Lead

A

D. Lead

50
Q

The reason carbon monoxide is so toxic is because it:

A. Is a protoplasmic poison
B. Combines with cytochrome oxidase
C. Has 200 times the affinity of oxygen for hemoglobin binding sites
D. Sensitizes the myocardium

A

C. Has 200 times the affinity of oxygen for hemoglobin binding sites

51
Q

A carbonate salt used to control manic-depressive disorders is:

A. Digoxin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Lithium
D. Phenytoin

A

C. Lithium

52
Q

During pregnancy, the form of estrogen that predominates and may be useful in prenatal screening is:

A. Estradiol
B. Estriol
C. Estrone
D. Pregnanediol

A

B. Estriol

53
Q

TSH is produced by the:

A. Hypothalamus
B. Pituitary gland
C. Adrenal cortex
D. Thyroid

A

B. Pituitary gland

54
Q

Symptom of hypocalcemia:

A. Stupor
B. Tetany
C. Vomiting
D. Dehydration
E. Tremors

A

B. Tetany

55
Q

Physiologically active calcium is:

A. Protein bound
B. Complexed to oxalate
C. Complexed to citrate
D. Total calcium
E. Ionized calcium

A

E. Ionized calcium

56
Q

The chloride shift in blood takes place between chloride and:

A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Bicarbonate
D. Calcium
E. Oxygen

A

C. Bicarbonate

57
Q

What test is best to assess kidney glomerular filtration?

A. Urea nitrogen
B. Creatinine clearance
C. PSP
D. Urine protein
E. Serum protein electrophoresis

A

B. Creatinine clearance

58
Q

Which of the following light sources is used in atomic absorption spectrophotometry?

A. Hollow-cathode lamp
B. Xenon arc lamp
C. Tungsten light
D. Deuterium lamp
E. Laser

A

A. Hollow-cathode lamp

59
Q

The first step to take when attempting to repair electronic equipment is to:

A. Check all electronic connections
B. Turn instrument off and unplug it
C. Reset all the printed circuit boards
D. Review instrument manual

A

B. Turn instrument off and unplug it

60
Q

Acid cleaning solution contains:

A. 10% HCl
B. Potassium dichromate in concentrated H2SO4
C. Potassium chlorate in concentrated H2SO4
D. Dilute solution of any acid

A

B. Potassium dichromate in concentrated H2SO4

61
Q

Glassware is usually calibrated at:

A. 98F
B. 72F
C. 20C
D. 37C

A

C. 20C

62
Q

Typically, a full Six Sigma improvement project takes ______ to complete.

A. 1 to 2 weeks
B. 3 to 4 months
C. 6 to 8 months
D. 1 to 2 years

A

C. 6 to 8 months

63
Q

Smaller scale improvement projects typically headed by ______ belts use the same Lean Six Sigma principles condensed over 1 week to improve more focused and limited processes.

A. White belts
B. Yellow belts
C. Purple belts
D. Black belts

A

B. Yellow belts

64
Q

Gross hemolysis and extremely elevated bilirubin may cause ______ in HEXOKINASE results. (Bishop)

A. False increase
B. False decrease
C. No effect
D. Variable

A

B. False decrease

65
Q

Establishing a reference interval:

A new reference interval is established when there is no existing analyte or methodology in the clinical or reference laboratory with which to conduct comparative studies. It is a costly and labor-intensive study that will involve laboratory resources at all levels and may require from ____ to as many as ≈700 study individuals.

A. 20 study individuals
B. 50 study individuals
C. 100 study individuals
D. 120 study individuals

A

D. 120 study individuals

66
Q

Verifying a reference interval (transference): This is done to confirm the validity of an existing reference interval for an analyte using the same (identical) type of analytic system (method and/or instrument). These are the most common reference interval studies performed in the clinical laboratory and can require as few as ____ study individuals.

A. 20 study individuals
B. 50 study individuals
C. 100 study individuals
D. 120 study individuals

A

A. 20 study individuals

67
Q

Kayser-Fleischer ring in the cornea:

A. Cretinism
B. Hemochromatosis
C. Minamata disease
D. Wilson’s disease

A

D. Wilson’s disease

68
Q

This toxin has high affinity to keratin, can be identified from hair and nails:

A. Lead
B. Cyanide
C. Mercury
D. Arsenic

A

D. Arsenic

69
Q

The odor of garlic may be on the breath, and a metallic taste in the patient’s mouth:

A. Arsenic
B. Cyanide
C. Iron
D. Mercury

A

A. Arsenic

70
Q

A comatose 27-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room by paramedics, and the strong odor of bitter almonds is present. The di erential diagnosis must include the possibility of poisoning by:

A. Ethylene glycol
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Carbon tetrachloride
D. Cyanide
E. Arsenic

A

D. Cyanide

71
Q

Which of the following is considered as ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTANTS?

A. Elemental mercury
B. Mercurous mercury
C. Mercuric mercury
D. Alkyl mercury

A

D. Alkyl mercury

72
Q

The primary advantage of point-of-care testing (POCT), also known as bedside testing or near patient testing is:

A. POCT can be performed by nonlaboratorians at a lower cost
B. The turn-around time for test results is faster
C. POCT bypasses costly regulatory requirements that apply to testing in a central lab
D. Testing is easier to perform, which reduces the cost of training

A

B. The turn-around time for test results is faster

73
Q

Which of these attributes is the advantage for adding point-of-care testing?

A. Higher test accuracy
B. Lower costs
C. Faster TAT
D. More skilled test personnel

A

C. Faster TAT

74
Q

A delta check is a method that:

A. Determines the mean and variance of an instrument
B. Monitors the testing system for precision
C. Monitors patient samples day to day
D. Is determined by each laboratory facility

A

C. Monitors patient samples day to day

75
Q

Inoculum size for DISK DIFFUSION susceptibility testing:

A. 1 x 10^4 CFU/mL
B. 1.5 x 10^5 CFU/mL
C. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL
D. 5 x 10^5 CFU/mL

A

C. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL

76
Q

Inoculum size for AGAR DILUTION susceptibility testing:

A. 1 x 10^4 CFU/spot
B. 1.5 x 10^5 CFU/spot
C. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/spot
D. 5 x 10^5 CFU/spot

A

A. 1 x 10^4 CFU/spot

77
Q

Inoculum size for BROTH DILUTION susceptibility testing:

A. 1 x 10^4 CFU/mL
B. 1.5 x 10^5 CFU/mL
C. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL
D. 5 x 10^5 CFU/mL

A

D. 5 x 10^5 CFU/mL

78
Q

The solute that contributes the most to the total serum osmolality is:

A. Glucose
B. Sodium
C. Chloride
D. Urea

A

B. Sodium

79
Q

Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic pressure?

A. Chloride
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

A

D. Sodium

80
Q

Select the test which evaluates renal tubular function.

A. IVP
B. Creatinine clearance
C. Osmolality
D. Microscopic urinalysis

A

C. Osmolality

81
Q

An emphysema patient suffering from fluid accumulation in the alveolar spaces is likely to be in what metabolic state?

A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis

A

A. Respiratory acidosis

82
Q

A critically ill patient becomes comatose. The physician believes the coma is due to hepatic failure. The assay most helpful in this diagnosis is:

A. Ammonia
B. ALT
C. AST
D. GGT

A

A. Ammonia

83
Q

Cholinesterase levels are generally assayed to aid in diagnosis of:

A. Pancreatitis
B. Methamphetamine overdose
C. Organophosphate poisoning
D. Hepatobiliary disease

A

C. Organophosphate poisoning

84
Q
  1. The most heat labile fraction of alkaline phosphatase is obtained from:

A. Liver
B. Bone
C. Intestine
D. Placenta

A

B. Bone

85
Q

What substance gives feces its normal color?

A. Uroerythrin
B. Urochrome
C. Urobilin
D. Urobilinogen

A

C. Urobilin

86
Q

In familial hypercholesterolemia, the hallmark finding is an elevation of:

A. Low-density lipoproteins
B. Chylomicrons
C. High-density lipoproteins
D. Apolipoprotein A1

A

A. Low-density lipoproteins

87
Q

Effect of platelet clumping in automated cell counting:

A. Decrease platelets and WBCs
B. Decrease platelets, increase WBCs
C. Increase platelets and WBCs
D. Increase platelets, decrease WBCs

A

B. Decrease platelets, increase WBCs

88
Q

What is the number of bacteria needed to cause turbidity in broth culture and to be seen with an unaided eye?

A. 10^2 organisms
B. 10^4 organisms
C. 10^6 organisms
D. 10^8 organisms

A

C. 10^6 organisms

89
Q

When examining fluids by direct microscopic examination, if one organism is seen per oil immersion field, how many organisms per milliliter of specimen are present?

A. 5^5
B. 7^5
C. 15^5
D. 10^5

A

D. 10^5

90
Q

A process in which a segment of one chromosome BREAKS AWAY from its normal location:

A. Duplication
B. Deletion
C. Substitution
D. Translocation

A

D. Translocation

91
Q

Its most characteristic feature is that the nucleus begins to assume an indented or kidney bean shape, which will continue to elongate as the cell matures.

A. Promyelocyte
B. Myelocyte
C. Metamyelocyte
D. Band

A

C. Metamyelocyte

92
Q

Typically the size of a small lymphocyte and has a dark-staining, clumped, nuclear chromatin pattern; the distinctive folded, groove-like chromatin pattern is described as cerebriform.

A. Hairy cell
B. Sezary cell
C. Mott cell
D. Reed-Sternberg cell

A

B. Sezary cell

93
Q

The heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule consists of ____ iron (Fe2+) atom and ____ pyrrole rings that are joined to each other.

A. 4 iron atoms, 4 pyrrole rings
B. 1 iron atom, 2 pyrrole rings
C. 1 iron atom, 4 pyrrole rings
D. 4 iron atoms, 4 pyrrole rings

A

C. 1 iron atom, 4 pyrrole rings

94
Q

Values of the duplicate hematocrits should agree within ____.

A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%

A

A. 1%

95
Q

To improve accuracy of the retic count, have another laboratorian count the other film; counts should agree within _____.

A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%

A

D. 20%

96
Q

The difference between the total cells counted on each side of the counting chamber should be less than ______.

A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%

A

C. 10%

97
Q

High WBC count that can cause turbidity and a falsely high hemoglobin result:

A. WBCs > 10 x 10 9th/L
B. WBCs > 20 x 10 9th/L
C. WBCs > 50 x 10 9th/L
D. WBCs > 70 x 10 9th/L

A

B. WBCs > 20 x 10 9th/L

98
Q

High platelet count that can cause turbidity and a falsely high hemoglobin result:

A. Platelets > 150 x 10 9th/L
B. Platelets > 200 x 10 9th/L
C. Platelets > 500 x 10 9th/L
D. Platelets > 700 x 10 9th/L

A

D. Platelets > 700 x 10 9th/L

99
Q

Typical dilution for manual platelet count:

A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200

A

C. 1:100

100
Q

If fewer than 50 platelets are counted on each side, the procedure should be repeated by diluting the blood to:

A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200

A

B. 1:20

POPCORN (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions