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501-600 Flashcards

1
Q

If more than 500 platelets are counted on each side, a ___ dilution should be made.

A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200

A

D. 1:200

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2
Q

For manual WBC count, allow the dilution to sit for ________ to ensure that the red blood cells have lysed.

A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 15 minutes

A

C. 10 minutes

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3
Q

For manual WBC count, after charging the hemacytometer, place it in a moist chamber for _______ before counting the cells to give them time to settle.

A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 15 minutes

A

C. 10 minutes

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4
Q

For manual platelet count, place the charged hemacytometer in a moist chamber for _________ to allow the platelets to settle.

A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 15 minutes

A

D. 15 minutes

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5
Q

Culture media for Vibriospp., EXCEPT:

A. Buffered glycerol saline
B. Cary-Blair
C. Alkaline peptone water
D. Thiosulfate citrate bile salt (TCBS) agar

A

A. Buffered glycerol saline

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6
Q

Which is the most appropriate nonselective medium for recovery of mycobacteria from a heavily contaminated specimen?

A. Löwenstein–Jensen agar
B. Middlebrook 7H10 agar
C. Petragnani’s agar
D. American Thoracic Society medium

A

C. Petragnani’s agar

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7
Q

Fluorescence on Wood’s lamp, growth in rice medium:

A. Microsporum canis
B. Microsporum gypseum
C. Microsporum audouinii
D. Epidermophyton floccosum

A

A. Microsporum canis

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8
Q

Fluorescence on Wood’s lamp, no growth in rice medium:

A. Microsporum canis
B. Microsporum gypseum
C. Microsporum audouinii
D. Epidermophyton floccosum

A

C. Microsporum audouinii

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9
Q

It is a serious pathogen of the eye, causing progressive
endophthalmitis:

A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Bacillus thurigiensis

A

B. Bacillus cereus

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10
Q

Added to SDA to inhibit most contaminating bacteria:

A. Dextrose
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Cycloheximide
D. Nystatin

A

B. Chloramphenicol

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11
Q

Added to SDA to inhibit saprophytic fungi:

A. Dextrose
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Cycloheximide
D. Nystatin

A

C. Cycloheximide

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12
Q

Which Brucella species may require CO2 for growth, is urea positive in 2 hours, and is inhibited by thionine dye?

A. Brucella abortus
B. Brucella melitensis
C. Brucella suis
D. Brucella canis

A

A. Brucella abortus

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13
Q

Brucella isolate that does not produce H2S, does not require CO2, and is not inhibited by thionine and basic fuchsin is probably which species of Brucella?

A. Brucella canis
B. Brucella abortus
C. Brucella suis
D. Brucella melitensis

A

D. Brucella melitensis

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14
Q

Which test is used for the determination of inducible clindamycin resistance in staphylococci and streptococci?

A. E-test
B. D-zone test
C. A-test
D. CAMP test

A

B. D-zone test

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15
Q

The D-zone susceptibility test is used to test inducible resistance on S. aureus strains demonstrating an initial antibiotic susceptibility profile of

A. Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin sensitive
B. Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin sensitive
C. Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin resistant
D. Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin resistant

A

B. Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin sensitive

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16
Q

Resistance to clindamycin can be induced in vitro by

A. Ampicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Penicillin

A

B. Erythromycin

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17
Q

Staphylococcus aureus toxin which disrupts the smooth muscle in blood vessels and is toxic to erythrocytes, leukocytes, hepatocytes, and platelets:

A. Alpha toxin
B. Beta toxin
C. Delta toxin
D. Gamma toxin

A

A. Alpha toxin

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18
Q

An isolate of Staphylococcus aureus was cultured from an ulcer obtained from the leg of a diabetic 79-year-old female patient. The organism showed resistance to methicillin. Additionally, this isolate should be tested for resistance or susceptibility to:

A. Erythromycin
B. Gentamicin
C. Vancomycin
D. Kanamycin

A

C. Vancomycin

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19
Q

Access to the laboratory is limited or restricted, and there must be a biohazard sign posted at the entrance of the laboratory:

A. BSL-1
B. BSL-2
C. BSL-3
D. BSL-4

A

A. BSL-1

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20
Q

Access to the laboratory is limited when work is being conducted. The laboratory director is ultimately responsible for determining who may enter or work in the laboratory.

A. BSL-1
B. BSL-2
C. BSL-3
D. BSL-4

A

B. BSL-2

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21
Q

Laboratory should be separated from the other parts of the building and be accessed through two self-closing doors. An ANTEROOM may be used for access.

A. BSL-1
B. BSL-2
C. BSL-3
D. BSL-4

A

C. BSL-3

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22
Q

The BSL facility either is located in a separate building or is in an isolated zone within a building.

A. BSL-1
B. BSL-2
C. BSL-3
D. BSL-4

A

D. BSL-4

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23
Q

A catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus resembling staphylococci (clusters on the Gram- stained smear) was recovered from three di erent blood cultures obtained from a 60-year-old patient diagnosed with endocarditis. The following test results were noted:

PYR = Neg
Esculin hydrolysis = Neg
Vancomycin = Sensitive
LAP = Neg (V)
6.5% Salt broth = Neg CAMP test = Neg

What is the correct identification?

A. Leuconostoc spp.
B. Gemella spp.
C. Enterococcus spp.
D. Micrococcus spp

A

B. Gemella spp.

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24
Q

pH indicator incorporated in xylose-lysine-desoxycholate (XLD) agar:

A. Bromcresol purple
B. Bromthymol blue
C. Neutral red
D. Phenol red

A

D. Phenol red

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25
Q

SAFEST method to ensure that NO INFECTIVE MATERIALS REMAIN in samples or containers when disposed:

A. Autoclave
B. Incineration
C. Pasteurization
D. Filtration

A

B. Incineration

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26
Q

Unopened, sliced BACON, packaged in material somewhat highly resistant to oxygen permeability, is spoiled mostly by

A. Lactobacilli
B. Micrococci
C. Fecal Streptococci
D. Molds

A

A. Lactobacilli

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27
Q

ANAEROBES usually cannot grow in the presence of O2, and the atmosphere in anaerobe jars, bags, or chambers is composed of:

A. 5% to 10% H2, 5% to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% O2, and 0% N2

B. 5% to 10% H2, 5% to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% N2, and 0% O2

C. 5% to 10% N2, 5% to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% H2, and 0% O2

D. 5% to 10% H2, 5% to 10% N2, 80% to 90% CO2, and 0% O2

A

B. 5% to 10% H2, 5% to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% N2, and 0% O2

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28
Q

What is the stain that binds to the nucleic acid of organisms but does not discriminate between gram-positive or gram-negative organisms called?

A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
B. Auramine-rhodamine stain
C. Gram stain
D. Acridine orange stain

A

D. Acridine orange stain

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29
Q

The most important diagnostic tool in treating patients with clinical infections in the emergency department:

A. AFB stain
B. Culture
C. Gram stain
D. IMVic reaction

A

C. Gram stain

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30
Q

Centrifugation for urine microscopic examination:

A. RCF of 100 for 2 minutes
B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes
C. RCF of 500 for 5 minutes
D. RCF of 500 for 10 minutes

A

B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes

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31
Q

A white blood cell (WBC) count and WBC di erential are performed. WBC count: 7.0 × 10^9/L; of 100 WBCs classified:

● 70% neutrophils
● 20% lymphocytes
● 7% monocytes
● 2% eosinophils
● 1% basophil

The absolute neutrophil cell count is:

A. 2.10×10^9/L
B. 3.55×10^9/L
C. 3.99×10^9/L
D. 4.9×10^9/L

A

D. 4.9×10^9/L

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32
Q

A patient being treated for metastatic carcinoma was found to have a white cell count of 5×10^9/L with 5 metarubricytes (nucleated red cells) per 100 white WBCs. What is the corrected white cell count for this patient?

A. 2.1 × 10^9/L
B. 2.4 × 10^9/L
C. 4.8 × 10^9/L
D. 5.2 × 10^9/L

A

C. 4.8 × 10^9/L

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33
Q

The concentration of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is generally at a particular level in serum about 2 to 3 days after implantation. This is the concentration at which most sensitive laboratory assays can give a positive serum hCG result. What is the lowest level of hormone for which most current serum hCG tests can give a positive result?

A. 25 mIU/mL
B. 50 mIU/mL
C. 100 mIU/mL
D. 100,000 mIU/mL

A

A. 25 mIU/mL

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34
Q

Using serum electrophoresis, protein can be separated into how many fractions?

A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six

A

C. Five

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35
Q

Laseris an acronym for:

A. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
B. Light augmentation by stimulated emission of radiation
C. Light amplification of stimulated energy radiation
D. Large-angle stimulated emission of radiation

A

A. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

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36
Q

How would 6.32 be rounded o to one less decimal place?

A. 6.32
B. 6.4
C. 7.0
D. 6.3

A

D. 6.3

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37
Q

How would 15.57 be rounded o to one less decimal place?

A. 15.6
B. 15.5
C. 16.0
D. 15.0

A

A. 15.6

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38
Q

The purest type of reagent water is:

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. All are equal

A

A. Type I

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39
Q

In flow cytometry, the term “gating” refers to:

A. Selection of a subpopulation of cells to count
B. Determining the fluorescent emission spectrum of cells of interest
C. Interference caused by binding of more than a single antibody
D. Selecting the appropriate counting aperture

A

A. Selection of a subpopulation of cells to count

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40
Q

Major systems in a flow cytometer include all of the following except:

A. Fluidics
B. Optics
C. Computerized electronics
D. Gating

A

D. Gating

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41
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with hemolytic anemia?

A. Decreased hemoglobin and packed cell volume
B. Increased reticulocyte count
C. Increased serum haptoglobins
D. Decreased erythrocyte survival

A

C. Increased serum haptoglobins

42
Q

What is the most common glycolytic enzyme deficiency associated with the aerobic pathway of erythrocyte metabolism?

A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)
B. Pyruvate kinase (PK)
C. Methemoglobin reductase deficiency
D. Hexokinase deficiency

A

A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)

43
Q

What is the most common glycolytic enzyme deficiency associated with the anaerobic pathway of erythrocyte metabolism?

A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)
B. Pyruvate kinase (PK)
C. Methemoglobin reductase deficiency
D. Hexokinase deficiency

A

B. Pyruvate kinase (PK)

44
Q

Plasmodiumvivax:

A. The schizont contains 6 to 12 merozoites; generally abundant in hematin granules; may contain Ziemann stippling.

B. The most predominant species worldwide; 12 to 24 merozoites; may contain Schü ner dots or granules.

C. Infected erythrocytes may be enlarged and oval shaped; may contain Schü ner dots; 6 to 14 merozoites in the schizont.

D. Young trophozoites and gametocytes are generallyt he only stage seen in peripheral blood; gametocytes appear as crescent- or sausage-shaped structures in erythrocytes; Maurer dots may be present.

A

B. The most predominant species worldwide; 12 to 24 merozoites; may contain Schü ner dots or granules.

45
Q

Plasmodiummalariae:

A. The schizont contains 6 to 12 merozoites; generally abundant in hematin granules; may contain Ziemann stippling.

B. The most predominant species worldwide; 12 to 24 merozoites; may contain Schü ner dots or granules.

C. Infected erythrocytes may be enlarged and oval shaped; may contain Schü ner dots; 6 to 14 merozoites in the schizont.

D. Young trophozoites and gametocytes are generally the only stage seen in peripheral blood; gametocytes appear as crescent- or sausage-shaped structures in erythrocytes; Maurer dots may be present.

A

A. The schizont contains 6 to 12 merozoites; generally abundant in hematin granules; may contain Ziemann stippling.

46
Q

Plasmodiumfalciparum:

A. The schizont contains 6 to 12 merozoites; generally abundant in hematin granules; may contain Ziemann stippling.

B. The most predominant species worldwide; 12 to 24 merozoites; may contain Schü ner dots or granules.

C. Infected erythrocytes may be enlarged and oval shaped; may contain Schü ner dots; 6 to 14 merozoites in the schizont.

D. Young trophozoites and gametocytes are generally the only stage seen in peripheral blood; gametocytes appear as crescent- or sausage-shaped structures in erythrocytes; Maurer dots may be present.

A

D. Young trophozoites and gametocytes are generally the only stage seen in peripheral blood; gametocytes appear as crescent- or sausage-shaped structures in erythrocytes; Maurer dots may be present.

47
Q

Heinz bodies:

A. DNA
B. Precipitated denatured hemoglobin
C. Granules composed of ribosomes and RNA
D. Aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes

A

B. Precipitated denatured hemoglobin

48
Q

Pappenheimer bodies:

A. DNA
B. Precipitated denatured hemoglobin
C. Granules composed of ribosomes and RNA
D. Aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes

A

D. Aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes

49
Q

Basophilic stippling:

A. DNA
B. Precipitated denatured hemoglobin
C. Granules composed of ribosomes and RNA
D. Aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes

A

C. Granules composed of ribosomes and RNA

50
Q

If an alkaline (pH 8.6) electrophoresis is performed, hemoglobin E has the same mobility as hemoglobin:

A. S
B. F
C. A
D. C

A

D. C

51
Q

The alkaline denaturation test detects the presence of hemoglobin:
A. A1C
B. F
C. C
D. S

A

B. F

52
Q

Increased amounts of 2,3-DPG _____ the oxygen affinity of the hemoglobin molecule.

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Does not alter
D. Any of these

A

B. Decreases

53
Q

What could be the possible interpretation? ● HBsAg: negative
● Anti-HBc: positive
● Anti-HBs: positive

A. Recovering from acute HBV infection
B. Immune because of natural infection
C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination
D. Chronically infected

A

B. Immune because of natural infection

54
Q

What could be the possible interpretation?
● HBsAg: negative
● Anti-HBc: negative
● Anti-HBs: positive

A. Recovering from acute HBV infection
B. Immune because of natural infection
C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination
D. Chronically infected

A

C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination

55
Q

A stained blood film is held up to the light and observed to be bluer than normal. What microscopic abnormality might be expected on this film?

A. Rouleaux
B. Spherocytosis
C. Reactive lymphocytosis
D. Toxic granulation

A

A. Rouleaux

56
Q

Most common type of DNA change that can lead to leukemia. A part of one chromosome breaks o and becomes attached to a different chromosome

A. Addition
B. Deletion
C. Inversion
D. Translocation

A

D. Translocation

57
Q

Part of a chromosome is lost. This may result in the cell losing a gene that helped keep its growth in check, for example, a tumor suppressor gene.

A. Addition
B. Deletion
C. Inversion
D. Translocation

A

B. Deletion

58
Q

This occurs when part of a chromosome gets turned around, so it is now in reverse order. This can result in the loss of a gene (or genes) because the cell can no longer read its instructions in protein translation.

A. Addition
B. Deletion
C. Inversion
D. Translocation

A

C. Inversion

59
Q
  1. An extra chromosome or part of a chromosome is gained. This can lead to too many copies of certain genes within the cell.

A. Addition
B. Deletion
C. Inversion
D. Translocation

A

A. Addition

60
Q

Most commonly encountered autoimmune hemolytic anemia:

A. Drug-induced AIHA
B. Cold AIHA
C. Warm AIHA
D. Mixed-type AIHA

A

C. Warm AIHA

61
Q

One of the best ways to protect employees and keep a safe laboratory environment is to provide employees with:

A. Health insurance
B. Safety education
C. Rest breaks
D. Fluid-repellent laboratory coats

A

B. Safety education

62
Q

All blood banks as mandated by law must have a:

A. Water fountain
B. Written laboratory safety program
C. BSC
D. Foot-operated hand wash

A

B. Written laboratory safety program

63
Q

What is the purpose of competency assessment?

A. Identify employees in need of retraining
B. Evaluate an individual’s level of knowledge during a job interview
C. Identify employees who need to be fired
D. All of the above

A

A. Identify employees in need of retraining

64
Q

Select the term that describes the unique part of the antigen that is recognized by a corresponding antibody.

A. Immunogen
B. Epitope
C. Avidity
D. Clone

A

B. Epitope

65
Q

Which of the following cells expresses HLA class II antigens?

A. B cells
B. Erythrocytes
C. Platelets
D. T cells

A

A. B cells

66
Q

The average adult has _____ g of total iron.

A. 0.2 to 1.4
B. 1.5 to 3.4
C. 3.5 to 5.0
D. 5.1 to 10.0

A

C. 3.5 to 5.0

67
Q

Which of the following parameters can be abnormal in classic von Willebrand’s disease type I?

A. Bleeding time
B. PT
C. Platelet count
D. All of the above

A

A. Bleeding time

68
Q

A 21-year-old patient presents with pharyngitis. A throat swab is collected and submitted for anaerobic culture. This specimen should be:

A. Set up immediately
B. Rejected as unacceptable
C. Inoculated into thioglycolate broth
D. Sent to a reference laboratory

A

B. Rejected as unacceptable

69
Q

An organism that must be incubated in a microaerophilic environment for optimal recovery is:

A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Escherichia coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Proteus mirabilis

A

A. Campylobacter jejuni

70
Q

Which of the following is not a basic component of a QA program?

A. Calibration
B. Preventive maintenance
C. Viral marker testing
D. Record keeping

A

C. Viral marker testing

71
Q

What is the best source of an HLA-matched kidney?

A. Mother
B. Father
C. Cousin
D. Sibling

A

D. Sibling

72
Q

Which of the following describes the expression of most blood group inheritance?

A. Dominant
B. Sex-linked
C. Recessive
D. Codominant

A

D. Codominant

73
Q

An order for blood products for a recent recipient of a bone marrow graft was received in the transfusion service. Because these patients are especially susceptible to GVHD from a transfusion, which blood product would best prevent GVHD

A. Leukocyte reduction of the unit
B. Washing the unit with normal saline
C. Irradiation of the blood product
D. Providing HLA-matched blood products

A

C. Irradiation of the blood product

74
Q

An epitope is also termed a(n):

A. Binding site
B. Allotype
C. Antigenic determinant
D. Immunogen

A

C. Antigenic determinant

75
Q

The optimal collection of a wound specimen for culture of anaerobic organisms is a:

A. Swab of lesion obtained before administration of antibiotics
B. Swab of lesion obtained after administration of antibiotics
C. Syringe filled with pus, obtained before administration of antibiotics
D. Syringe filled with pus, obtained after administration of
antibiotics

A

C. Syringe filled with pus, obtained before administration of antibiotics

76
Q

The organism most commonly associated with otitis media infections is associated with which of the following positive test results?

A. Coagulase
B. VP
C. Optochin
D. Bacitracin

A

C. Optochin

77
Q

An ammonia-like odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients with:

A. Phenylketonuria
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Bacterial infection
D. Yeast infection

A

C. Bacterial infection

78
Q

Individuals who lack the Du y antigen on the surface of their red blood cells are protected against which species of Plasmodium:

A. P.vivax
B. P.falciparum
C. P.malariae
D. P.ovale

A

A. P.vivax

79
Q

A pregnant woman has routine coagulation testing performed. PT and aPTT are normal. Her fibrinogen level is elevated at 450 (reference range 150-350) due to acute phase reactants during pregnancy. The other factor that may be elevated due to this is:

A. FVII
B. FVIII
C. FXI
D. FXIII

A

B. FVIII

80
Q

One of the coagulation test results that correlates with mortality in patients with the SARS-CoV-2 virus was:

A. PT
B. APTT
C. D-dimer
D. Thrombin time

A

C. D-dimer

81
Q

A new PT reagent is being set up in the coagulation laboratory. The ISI of the new reagent is 1.0; the previous reagent had an ISI of 2.1. The new reagent is said to be:

A. More sensitive
B. Less sensitive
C. Insensitive
D. No change

A

A. More sensitive

82
Q

Platelet aggregation will occur with the end production of:

A. Cyclooxygenase
B. Arachidonic acid
C. Prostacyclin
D. Thromboxane A2

A

D. Thromboxane A2

83
Q

An initial prenatal evaluation at 10 weeks is conducted on a healthy female. PT, APTT and fibrinogen are normal with the exception of her platelet count, which is 42,000/ul. The peripheral smear shows platelet clumps. What is the next step?

A. Conduct a workup for an autoimmune disease
B. Evaluate for risk of thromboembolism
C. Recollect the sample in EDTA
D. Recollect the sample in sodium citrate

A

D. Recollect the sample in sodium citrate

84
Q

Which subtype of von Willebrand disease is the most common

A. Type 1
B. Type 2A
C. Type 2B
D. Type

A

A. Type 1

85
Q

In a patient diagnosed with liver disease, which one of the following factors typically shows an increase?

A. Factor VII
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor X

A

B. Factor VIII

86
Q

Protein C and its cofactor protein S proteolytically inactivate factors:
A. Ila and Xa
B. Va and VIIIa
C. VIIIa and IXa
D. XIa and Xlla

A

B. Va and VIIIa

87
Q

When a patient is placed on warfarin therapy, the first factor that will be decreased is:

A. Factor II
B. Factor V
C. Factor VII
D. Factor VI11

A

C. Factor VII

88
Q

This AML with recurrent cytogenetic abnormality often presents with disseminated intravascular coagulation:

A. Inv(3)
B. t(6;9)
C. t(8;21)
D. t(15;17)

A

D. t(15;17)

89
Q

The hemoglobin variant that is seen frequently in the South East Asian population, demonstrates a microcytic blood smear, and migrates with Hb C at pH 8.6 is:

A. Hb Barts
B. Hb F
C. Hb E
D. Hb H

A

C. Hb E

90
Q

Automated methods of measuring hemoglobin cannot detect this form:

A. Methemoglobin
B. Carboxyhemoglobin
C. Deoxyhemoglobin
D. Sulfhemoglobin

A

D. Sulfhemoglobin

91
Q

A common source of interference in measuring hemoglobin concentration is:

A. Hemolysis
B. Very high WBC count
C. Cold agglutinins
D. Clumped platelets

A

B. Very high WBC count

92
Q

Evidence of a hemolytic event is present in the peripheral blood smear when which of the following is seen?

A. Basophilic stippling
B. Increased polychromasia
C. Increased target cells
D. Stomatocytes

A

B. Increased polychromasia

93
Q

The disease state that presents with a quantitative platelet disorder is:

A. von Willebrand disease
B. Hemophilia A
C. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
D. May-Hegglin anomaly

A

D. May-Hegglin anomaly

94
Q

Which of the following is most closely associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia?

A. Ringed sideroblasts
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
C. Micromegakaryocytes
D. BCR/ABL fusion gene

A

D. BCR/ABL fusion gene

95
Q

Increased numbers of basophils are often seen in:

A. Acute infections
B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. Erythroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic disease of the newborn)

A

B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia

96
Q

The Philadelphia chromosome is formed by a translocation between:

A. Chromosome 22 and chromosome 9
B. Chromosome 21 and chromosome 9
C. Chromosome 21 and chromosome 6
D. Chromosome 22 and chromosome 6

A

A. Chromosome 22 and chromosome 9

97
Q

In a patient with an increased red cell mass into the 99th percentile and serum erythropoietin level below reference range for normal, which of the following criteria confirms a diagnosis of polycythemia vera?

A. Bone marrow panmyelosis
B. Inv(16) mutation
C. JAK2 V617F mutation
D. BCR/ABL 1 translocation

A

C. JAK2 V617F mutation

98
Q

What is the specificity of cold autoagglutinin disease?

A. Anti-i
B. Anti-H
C. Anti-Pr
D. Anti-I

A

D. Anti-I

99
Q

Which abnormal RBC morphology is associated with pyruvate kinase deficiency?

A. Acanthocytes
B. Dacryocytes
C. Echinocytes
D. Drepanocytes

A

C. Echinocytes

100
Q

Which of the following tumors are associated with erythrocytosis due to excessive erythropoietin production?

A. Renal cell carcinoma
B. Sarcoma
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

A

A. Renal cell carcinoma

POPCORN (7 decks)

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