55 Hemolytic Anemia resulting from Immune Injury Flashcards

1
Q

The two main features of immune red blood cell (RBC) injury are

A
  • (a) shortened RBC survival in vivo and
  • (b) evidence of host antibodies reactive with autologous RBCs, most frequently demonstrated by a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT) result, also known as the Coombs test
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2
Q

Most cases in adults are mediated by ___________ autoantibodies.

A

Warm-reactive autoantibodies

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3
Q

Sera of some patients with hemolytic anemia directly agglutinated saline suspensions of normal or autologous human RBCs

These serum factors, later shown to be specific antibodies (largely of the immunoglobulin [Ig] M class), were termed

A

Direct or saline agglutinins

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4
Q

The patients’ sera could mediate lysis of the test RBCs in the presence of fresh serum as a complement source.

The heat-stable factors (antibodies) necessary for in vitro complement-mediated lysis were called

A

Hemolysins

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5
Q

When the RBCs are coated chiefly with complement proteins, a positive DAT result depends on the presence of anticomplement (principally ____________) in the antiglobulin reagent.

A

anti-C3

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6
Q

Cryopathic hemolytic syndromes are caused by autoantibodies that bind RBCs optimally at temperatures less than _____°C and usually less than ______°C.

A

Less than 37°C and usually less than 31°C

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7
Q

Two major types of “cold antibody” may produce AHA:

A
  • Cold agglutinins: cold agglutinin disease; agglutinins
  • Donath-Landsteiner autoantibody: paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria; hemolysins
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8
Q

Immunoglobulin OR complement system

In both cryopathic syndromes, the ____________ plays a major role in RBC injury; as such, much greater potential exists for direct intravascular hemolysis than in warm antibody–mediated AHA.

A

Complement system

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9
Q

Cold agglutinin disease pertains to patients with chronic AHA in which the autoantibody directly agglutinates human RBCs at temperatures below body temperature, maximally at __________°C.

A

0°C–5°C

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10
Q

Cold agglutinins typically are Ig_____, although occasionally they may be immunoglobulins of other isotypes.

A

IgM

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11
Q

Monoclonal or Polyclonal

The cold agglutinins in chronic cold agglutinin disease generally are__________.

A

Monoclonal

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12
Q

Most cold agglutinins have specificity for _______________of the RBC

A

Oligosaccharide antigens (I or i)

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13
Q

Viral disease associated with Donath-Landsteiner antibody

A

Congenital or tertiary syphilis

rare

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14
Q

An increasing proportion of Donath-Landsteiner autoantibody-mediated hemolytic anemias occurs as a single postviral episode in children, without recurrent attacks (paroxysms).

The prognosis for such cases is excellent.

A

Donath-Landsteiner hemolytic anemia

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15
Q

When no recognizable underlying disease is present, the AHA is termed

A

Primary or idiopathic

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16
Q

Account for approximately half of all secondary warm AHA cases

A

Lymphocytic malignancies, particularly chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and lymphomas

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17
Q

The majority of AHA cases mediated by cold agglutinins have a

A

Clonal lymphoproliferative disorder

Without clinical or radiologic evidence of malignancy; these are considered primary

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18
Q

A large proportion of patients with mixed cold and warm autoantibodies have this autoimmune disease

A

SLE

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19
Q

Infections associated with AHA mediated by cold agglutinins

A

Infectious mononucleosis and Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Hemolysis is rare

Rarely, in children with chickenpox

Despite the frequent occurrence of immune thrombocytopenia and positive DATs in patients infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), AHA is relatively rare in these patients.

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20
Q

Two of the mechanisms of drug-immune hemolytic anemia that involve drug-dependent antibodies

A

Hapten-drug adsorption and ternary complex formation

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21
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Drug-related nonimmunologic protein adsorption by RBCs may result in a positive DAT without actual RBC injury.

A

TRUE

Drug-related nonimmunologic protein adsorption by RBCs may result in a positive DAT without actual RBC injury.

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22
Q

In general, AHA is considered secondary when

A

(a) AHA and the underlying disease occur together with greater frequency than can be accounted for by chance alone

(b) the AHA reverses simultaneously with correction of the associated disease, or

(c) AHA and the associated disease are related by evidence of immunologic aberration

Careful follow-up of patients with primary AHA is essential because hemolytic anemia may be the presenting finding in a patient who subsequently develops overt evidence of an underlying disorder.

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23
Q

The most common cause of drug-induced autoantibodies

A

Fludarabine

Replaced α-methyldopa

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24
Q

In warm-antibody AHA, the autoantibodies that mediate RBC destruction are predominantly (but not exclusively) ______ globulins

A

IgG

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25
Q

Although generally transient, the positive DAT result may persist for up to _____ days in some transfusion recipients, long after any transfused RBCs have disappeared.

A

300 days

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26
Q

Drug that can induce warm-reacting IgG anti-RBC autoantibodies in otherwise normal persons

A

α-methyldopa

A critical difference is that the drug-associated autoantibodies subside when the drug is discontinued, suggesting that
* (a) the latent potential to form this type of anti-RBC autoantibody is present in many immunologically normal individuals, and
* (b) the steps required to generate such autoantibodies do not necessarily create a sustained autoimmune state

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27
Q

The approximate frequency of positive DATs in the entire population

A

1 in 10,000

Also the prevalence of positive DATs in normal blood donors

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28
Q

Almost all patients with cold agglutinin disease display _______________ whose heavy-chain variable regions are encoded by ________________

A

Monoclonal IgM cold agglutinins (with either anti-I or anti-i specificity)
IGHV4–34 (immunoglobulin heavy chain variable region)

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29
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

There is a direct relationship between the quantity of RBC-bound IgG antibody and RBC survival

A

FALSE

There is an inverse relationship between the quantity of RBC-bound IgG antibody and RBC survival

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30
Q

In wAIHA, The macrophage has surface receptors for the Fc region of IgG, with preference for the:

A

IgG1 and IgG3 subclasses and surface receptors for opsonic fragments of C3 (C3b and C3bi) and C4b

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31
Q

RBC sequestration in warm-antibody AHA occurs primarily in the

A

Spleen

Very large quantities of RBC-bound IgG or the concurrent presence of C3b on the RBCs may favor trapping in the liver.

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32
Q

A consistent and diagnostically important hallmark of AHA, and the degree correlates well with the severity of hemolysis.

A

Spherocytosis

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33
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Direct complement-mediated hemolysis with hemoglobinuria is unusual in warm-antibody AHA, even though many warm autoantibodies fix complement.

A

TRUE

Direct complement-mediated hemolysis with hemoglobinuria is unusual in warm-antibody AHA, even though many warm autoantibodies fix complement.

Dahil may normal na protective mechanism ang body (CD55 and CD59)

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34
Q

Glycosylphosphatidylinositol-linked erythrocyte membrane proteins that limit the action of autologous complement on autoantibody-coated RBCs

A
  • Decay-accelerating factor (DAF; CD55)
  • Homologous restriction factor (HRF; CD59)
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35
Q

Inhibits the formation and function of cell-bound C3-converting enzyme, thus indirectly limiting formation of C5-converting enzyme

A

DAF

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36
Q

Impedes C9 binding and formation of the C5b–9 membrane attack complex

A

HRF

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37
Q

The highest temperature at which these antibodies cause detectable agglutination is termed the

A

Thermal amplitude

Generally, patients with cold agglutinins with higher thermal amplitudes have a greater risk for cold agglutinin disease.

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38
Q

The pathogenicity of a cold agglutinin depends on its ability to bind host RBCs and to activate complement. This process is called

A

Complement fixation

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39
Q

The great preponderance of cold agglutinin molecules are IgM (pentamers or hexamers)

A

IgM pentamers

Although in vitro agglutination of the RBCs may be maximal at 0°–5°C, complement fixation by these antibodies may occur optimally at 20°–25°C and may be significant at even higher physiologic temperatures.

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40
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Pentamers fix complement and lyse RBCs more efficiently than do hexamers, suggesting that pentameric IgM plays a role in the pathogenesis of hemolysis in these patients.

A

FALSE

Hexamers fix complement and lyse RBCs more efficiently than do pentamers, suggesting that hexameric IgM plays a role in the pathogenesis of hemolysis in these patients.

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41
Q

Cold agglutinins of the____ isotype, an isotype that does not fix complement, may cause acrocyanosis but not hemolysis.

A

IgA isotype

A:A IgA:Acrocyanosis

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42
Q

Complement fixation by cold agglutinins may effect RBC injury by two major mechanisms:

A

(a) Direct lysis and
(b) Opsonization for hepatic and splenic macrophages

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43
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Donath-Landsteiner antibody is a more potent hemolysin than cold agglutinin.

A

TRUE

Donath-Landsteiner antibody is a more potent hemolysin than cold agglutinin.

44
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Most of the antiglobulin-positive RBCs of patients with cold agglutinin disease are coated with C3dg

A

TRUE

Most of the antiglobulin-positive RBCs of patients with cold agglutinin disease are coated with C3dg

The surviving C3dg-coated RBCs circulate with a near-normal lifespan and are resistant to further uptake of cold agglutinins or complement.

However, C3dg-coated RBCs also may react in vitro with anticomplement (anti-C3) serum in the DAT.

45
Q

Prototype drug Brug-induced AHA

Hapten-Drug Adsorption:
Ternary Complex Formation:
Autoantibody Binding:
Nonimmunologic Protein Adsorption:

A

Hapten-Drug Adsorption:Penicillin
Ternary Complex Formation: Quinidine
Autoantibody Binding: α-Methyldopa
Nonimmunologic Protein Adsorption: Cephalothin

46
Q

Most individuals who receive penicillin develop ______antibodies directed against the _____________ determinant of penicillin

A

IgM antibodies

Benzylpenicilloyl determinant of penicillin

  • This antibody plays no role in penicillin-related immune injury to RBCs
  • The antibody responsible for hemolytic anemia is of the IgG class, occurs less frequently than the IgM antibody, and may be directed against the benzylpenicilloyl, or, more commonly, nonbenzylpenicilloyl determinants.
  • Antibodies eluted from patients’ RBCs or present in their sera react in the indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) only against penicillin-coated RBCs.
47
Q

This step is critical in distinguishing these drug-dependent antibodies from true autoantibodies.

Orher drugs: Cephalosporins, Tetracycline, tolbutamide, Carbromal

A

Antibodies eluted from patients’ RBCs or present in their sera react in the indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) only against penicillin-coated RBCs.

48
Q

Blood cell injury is mediated by a cooperative interaction among three reactants to generate a ternary complex involving

A

(a) the drug (or drug metabolite in some cases)
(b) a drug-binding membrane site on the target cell
(c) antibody

49
Q

Features of Ternary Complex Mechanism

A
  • Exhibit only weak direct binding to blood cell membranes
  • A relatively small dose of drug is capable of triggering destruction of blood cells
  • Cellular injury appears to be mediated chiefly by complement activation at the cell surface

The cytopathic process induced by such drugs previously has been termed the innocent bystander or immune complex mechanism.

Not only of RBCs but also of platelets or granulocytes

50
Q

Aside from methylodopa, other drugs that cause AHA thru Autoantibody Mechanism

A
  • Levodopa
  • Pentostatin
  • Fludarabine
  • Cladribine
  • Immune checkpoint inhibitors
  • Lenolidomide
  • Efalizumab
  • Tacrolimus
51
Q

Features of AHA thru Autoantibody Mechanism

A
  • DAT reaction usually is positive only for IgG
  • Development of hemolytic anemia does not depend on drug dose.
  • Frequently the autoantibodies are reactive with determinants of the Rh complex

Drugs probably bind to membrane antigens of cells that are relatively hemoglobin free, for example, cells at the early proerythroblast stage or RBC stroma

52
Q

Risk factors for hemolysis in patients with CLL treated with the purine analogues fludarabine, pentostatin, or cladribine

A
  • Previous therapy with a purine analogue
  • High β2-microglobulin
  • A positive DAT result before therapy
  • Hypogammaglobulinemia
53
Q

The most common offender among immune checkpoint inhibitors causing AIHA

A

Nivolumab

Most patients respond to glucocorticoid therapy.

54
Q

Antibiotics that may induce RBC injury by the hapten mechanism, by the ternary complex mechanism, by the autoantibody mechanism and nonimmunologic protein adsorption

ALL Mechanisms

A

Cephalosporin

The autoantibody mechanism are more serious but apparently occur less frequently than nonimmunologic protein adsorption.

55
Q

Hemolysis occurring in M. pneumoniae infections is acute in onset, typically appearing as the patient is recovering from pneumonia and coincident with peak titers of cold agglutinins.

The hemolysis is self-limited, lasting _____ weeks.

A

1–3 weeks

56
Q

Tyep of drug-induced AHA often causes sudden, severe hemolysis with hemoglobinuria.

Hemolysis can occur after only one dose of the drug in a patient previously exposed to the drug.

Acute renal failure may accompany severe hemolysis

A

Ternary complex mechanism

kasi nga complement

Others exhibit mild to moderate hemolysis, with insidious onset of symptoms developing over a period of days to weeks.

57
Q

Hemolytic anemia in infectious mononucleosis develops either at the onset of symptoms or within the ___________ weeks of illness.

A

First 3 weeks of illness

58
Q

Lab features of AIHA

A
  • Increased reticulocyte count and a positive DAT result
  • Polychromasia
  • Spherocytes
  • RBC fragments, nucleated RBCs, and occasionally erythrophagocytosis by monocyte
  • Mild leukocytosis and neutrophilia
  • Reticulocyte count usually is elevated
  • Hyperbilirubinemia (chiefly unconjugated)
  • Urinary urobilinogen is increased
  • Serum haptoglobin levels are low
  • Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) levels are elevated

Cold-antibody AHA: RBC autoagglutination

59
Q

Severe immune thrombocytopenia that is associated with warm-antibody AHA

A

Evans syndrome

May occur de novo or as a phenomenon secondary to an autoimmune disease, lymphoma, or immunodeficiency

60
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria have hematocrit levels that decrease rapidly during a paroxysm.

A

TRUE

Patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria have hematocrit levels that decrease rapidly during a paroxysm.

Chronic cold agglutinin disease: mild to moderate, fairly stable anemia

  • During a paroxysm, leukopenia is noted early followed by leukocytosis. (also in ternary complex-mediated hemolysis)
  • Complement titers frequently are depressed because of consumption of complement proteins during hemolysis.
61
Q

Hemoglobinuria is encountered in rare patients with warm-antibody AHA and hyperacute hemolysis, more commonly in patients with:

A
  • Cold agglutinin disease
  • Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
  • Drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia mediated by the ternary complex mechanism
62
Q

As a screening procedure, use of a _______________—that is, one that contains antibodies directed against human immunoglobulin and complement components (principally C3)—is customary.

A

“broad-spectrum” antiglobulin (Coombs) reagent

If agglutination is noted with a broad-spectrum reagent, antisera reacting selectively with IgG (the γ Coombs) or with C3 (the non-γ Coombs) are used to define the specific pattern of RBC sensitization.

63
Q

Three possible major patterns of direct antiglobulin reaction in AHA and drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia exist:

A

(a) RBCs coated with only IgG
(b) RBCs coated with IgG and complement components
(c) RBCs coated with complement components without detectable immunoglobulin

In patterns 2 and 3, the complement components most readily detected are C3 fragments (mainly C3dg).

64
Q

DAT Reaction pattern: Immunoglobulin (Ig) G alone

A
  • Warm-antibody autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AHA)
  • Drug-immune hemolytic anemia: hapten drug adsorption type or autoantibody type
65
Q

DAT Reaction pattern: Complement alone

A
  • Warm-antibody AHA with subthreshold IgG deposition
  • Cold-agglutinin disease
  • Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
  • Drug-immune hemolytic anemia: ternary complex type
66
Q

DAT Reaction pattern: IgG plus
complement

A
  • Warm-antibody AHA
  • Drug-immune hemolytic anemia: autoantibody type (rare)
67
Q

Major portion detected by the DAT

A

Autoantibody bound to the patient’s RBCs

68
Q

Major portion detected by the IAT

A

“free” Autoantibody

69
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Patients with a positive IAT as a result of a warm-reactive autoantibody should also have a positive DAT result.

A

TRUE

Patients with a positive IAT as a result of a warm-reactive autoantibody should also have a positive DAT result.

Pwede both positive DAT and IAT

Patients whose RBCs are heavily coated with IgG more likely exhibit plasma autoantibody.

70
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

A patient with a serum anti-RBC antibody (positive DAT result) and a negative IAT result probably have an autoimmune process.

A

FALSE

A patient with a serum anti-RBC antibody (positive IAT result) and a negative DAT result probably does not have an autoimmune process but rather an alloantibody stimulated by prior transfusion or pregnancy.

71
Q

There are three principal causes for the negative DAT reaction:

A

(a) IgG or complement sensitization below the threshold of detection of commercial antiglobulin (Coombs) reagents;

(b) low-affinity IgG sensitization with loss of cell-bound antibody during the cell washing steps before the direct antiglobulin reaction; and

(c) sensitization with IgA or IgM antibodies, which many commercial DAT reagents cannot detect because they contain only anti-IgG anti-C3.

72
Q

Techniques to address initial DAT-negative in clinical warm AHA

A
  • Specialized methods (eg, anti-IgG consumption assays, automated enhanced agglutination techniques, enzyme-linked immunoassays, radioimmunoassays, flow cytometry)
  • Highly concentrated RBC eluates
  • Cold washing (0°–4°C) or by use of low-ionic-strength saline
73
Q

The IgG subclass most commonly encountered

A

IgG1

74
Q

The IgG subclass autoantibodies that appear to be more effective in decreasing RBC lifespan

A

IgG1 and IgG3

  • Have greater affinity of macrophage Fc receptors
  • With higher complement-fixing activity
75
Q

Nearly half of all AHA patients have autoantibodies specific for epitopes on__________.

A

Rh proteins

Occasionally, the anti-Rh autoantibodies have anti-e, anti-E, or anti-c (or, more rarely, anti-D) specificity (Rh related)

76
Q

The major target of Rh-related autoantibodies is a 32- to 34-kDa nonglycosylated polypeptide lacking on Rhnull RBCs.

This polypeptide is similar, if not identical, to the polypeptide expressing the ______ alloantigen.

A

Rh(e) alloantigen

77
Q

Group of autoantibodies is designated non–Rh related

A

anti-Wrb, anti-Ena, anti-LW, anti-U, anti-Ge, anti-Sc1, or antibodies to Kell blood group antigens

78
Q

Autoantibodies with non-Rh serologic specificity react with the ___________________.

A
  • Band 3 anion transporter or
  • With both band 3 and glycophorin A

Naturally occurring anti–band 3 IgG autoantibodies are found in almost all humans.

These autoantibodies may play a role in the clearance of senescent RBCs by reacting with neoantigens formed on these cells by proteolytic alteration or aggregation of band 3 proteins.

79
Q

Cold agglutinins are distinguished by their ability to directly agglutinate saline-suspended human RBCs at low temperature, maximally at ________

A

0°C–5°C

80
Q

Cold agglutinins are characteristically ______.

A

IgM

The DAT result is positive with anticomplement reagents.

81
Q

Blood group antigens targets in Cold AHA

Mycoplasma:
Donath-Landsteiner antibodies:
idiopathic cold agglutinin disease:
Infectious mononucleosis:
Chickenpox:
Lymphoma:

A

Mycoplasma: Anti-I
Idiopathic cold agglutinin disease: Anti-I
Donath-Landsteiner antibodies: P blood group antigen (non-agglutinating)
Infectious mononucleosis:Anti-i
Chickenpox: anti-Pr
Lymphoma: Anti-I, Anti-i

Pr-es has Chicken pox; it’s P. Duterte; has to see small “i”M doctor and told it’s Infectious mononucleosis not chic pox

82
Q

The I/i system, which are precursors of the _________blood group substances.

  • I antigens are expressed strongly on adult RBCs but weakly on neonatal (cord) RBCs. The converse is true of i antigens, indicating I/i antigen expression is developmentally regulated.
A

ABH and Lewis

83
Q

The P antigen also occurs on

A

Lymphocytes and skin fibroblasts

Might be related in some way to the occurrence of cold urticaria in paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

84
Q

Coomb’s test oin Drug-Induced Immune Hemolytic Anemia

Hapten-drug adsorption mechanism:
Ternary complex mechanism:
Autoantibody:

A

Hapten-drug adsorption mechanism:Positive DAT reactions with anti-IgG, anti-C3d
Ternary complex mechanism: Positive DAT reactions with anticomplement serum
Autoantibody: Positive DAT reactions with anti-IgG only

React only with drug-coated RBCs

85
Q

In ternary complex mechanism, the IAT reaction with anticomplement serum may be positive only if the incubation mixture permits interaction of:

A

(a) normal RBCs;
(b) antidrug antibody from the patient’s serum;
(c) the relevant drug, either still in the patient’s serum or added in vitro in appropriate concentration; and
(d) a source of complement, that is, fresh normal serum or the patient’s own serum if freshly obtained

86
Q

Recipients of transplantations may also develop an alloimmune hemolytic anemia that mimics warm-antibody AHA.

The problem is seen in kidney, liver, or hematopoietic stem cell transplantations and usually occurs when :

A

An organ from a blood group O donor is transplanted into a blood group A or B recipient

87
Q

Indication for RBC transfusions

A
  • Symptomatic coronary artery disease
  • Anemia with signs or symptoms of circulatory failure
88
Q

Transfusion of RBCs in immune hemolytic anemia presents two difficulties:

A
  • (a) crossmatching
  • (b) the short half-life of the transfused RBCs
89
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Units that are incompatible because of the presence of autoantibody are less dangerous to transfuse than units that are incompatible because of an alloantibody.

A

TRUE

Units that are incompatible because of the presence of autoantibody are less dangerous to transfuse than units that are incompatible because of an alloantibody.

  • Before transfusing an incompatible unit, the patient’s serum must be tested carefully for an alloantibody that could cause a severe hemolytic transfusion reaction against donor RBCs, especially in patients with a history of pregnancy, abortion, or prior transfusion.
  • Packed RBCs should be administered slowly and in the case of cold hemolysis syndromes should be brought at least to room temperature.
  • Monitored for signs of a hemolytic transfusion reaction
90
Q

Glucocorticoids can cause dramatic cessation or marked slowing of hemolysis in about _________ of patients.

A

Two-thirds

20%: complete remission
10%: minimal or no response

91
Q

The best responses with glucocorticoids are seen in _________________.

A

Idiopathic cases or in those related to SLE

92
Q

Dose of steroids

A

Oral prednisone at an initial daily dose of 1–1.5 mg/kg

Critically ill patients with rapid hemolysis may receive: IV methylprednisolone 100–200 mg in divided doses over the first 24 hours

High doses of prednisone may be required for 10–14 days.

Therapy should not be stopped until the DAT reaction becomes negative.

93
Q

Monoclonal antibody that eliminate B lymphocytes, including, presumably, those making autoantibodies to RBCs

Initially in refractory AHA either unresponsive to or relapsed after oral glucocorticoid therapy.

A

Rituximab

Doses:
* 375 mg/m2 weekly for 2–4 weeks intravenously
* 100 mg/m2 weekly for 4 weeks along with a short course of oral glucocorticoid

The relapse-free survival was superior for the combination of glucocorticoids and rituximab.

94
Q

Primary site of RBC trapping

A

Spleen

95
Q

Approximately _________ of AHA patients have a partial or complete remission after splenectomy.

A

Two-thirds

96
Q

Reserved primarily for patients who do not respond to glucocorticoids or rituximab and for patients who are poor surgical risks.

A

Immunosuppressive therapy

  • Oral cyclophosphamide 50–100 mg daily
  • Oral azathioprine 2–4 mg/kg given daily
  • If the patient tolerates the drug, continue treatment for at least 3 months while waiting for a response.
  • Treatment with either agent increases the risk of subsequent neoplasia.

OTHERS:
* Mycophenolate mofetil
* Cyclosporin A
* High-dose cyclophosphamide 50 mg/kg ideal body weight per day for 4 consecutive days intravenously with granulocyte colony-stimulating factor support

97
Q

Used to treat five patients with refractory AHA associated with CLL

A

Alemtuzumab

98
Q

Other therapies for AIHA

A
  • Plasma exchange or plasmapheresis- life-threatening warm IgG-mediated AHA refractory to glucocorticoids and splenectomy
  • Plasma-derived C1 inhibitor concentrate: severe warm IgM-mediated AHA
  • Rituximab and eculizumab: refractory warm IgM-mediated AHA
  • High-dose IV γ-globulin
  • Danazol
99
Q

For patients with chronic compensated hemolysis, treatment with oral folate at _________ is recommended

A

1 mg/day

100
Q

Standard first-line therapy for patients with cold agglutinin disease.

A

Treatment directed at B lymphocytes
* Rituximab
* Rituximab in combination with bendamustine
* Bortezomib

In patients with lymphoma, treatment of the underlying disorder usually results in control of the cold agglutinin disease.

101
Q

Useful as a bridge by causing rapid cessation of hemolysis, allowing time for B cell–directed therapies to take effect

A

Complement-directed therapies
* Eculizumab
* Sutimlimab

It does not inhibit RBC agglutination, nor does it eliminate the symptoms caused by agglutination such as acrocyanosis and Raynaud phenomenon.

102
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Most contemporary cases of paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria are self-limited.

A

TRUE

Most contemporary cases of paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria are self-limited.

  • Glucocorticoid therapy and splenectomy have not been useful.
  • When paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is associated with syphilis, effective treatment of the infection may result in complete remission.
  • Antihistaminic and adrenergic agents may relieve symptoms of cold urticaria.
103
Q

Blood product for RBC transfusion in Cold AHA

A

Washed RBC

Avoid replenishing depleted complement components and reactivating the hemolytic process.

104
Q

Treatment for drug-induced hemolytic anemia

A

Discontinuation of the offending drug

105
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

In patients taking α-methyldopa in the absence of hemolysis, a positive DAT result has not necessarily been an indication for stopping the drug.

A

TRUE

In patients taking α-methyldopa in the absence of hemolysis, a positive DAT result has not necessarily been an indication for stopping the drug.

106
Q

Drug-induced AHA

Glucocorticoids are generally unnecessary, and their efficacy is questionable except in:

A
  • Immune checkpoint inhibitors
  • CLL and autoimmune hemolysis caused by purine analogues