476 - 500 Flashcards
Why is consultation about past injuries important during the assessment process?
To help understand which body part will never be trained
To serve as a predictor of future injury
None of these
To determine whether or not to accept a client
To understand the toughness of a client
To serve as a predictor of future injury: is correct because previous injury is a strong indicator of risk for future injury, and a health and fitness professional can design the program accordingly. Thorough discussion and documentation of previous injuries is important when making decisions as to whether or not exercise is recommended or a referral is necessary.
The other options: previous injury doesn’t exclude a body part from being trained, professional practitioners are able to successfully train client with previous injuries.
Chapter 12
The amount of blood ejected per heart beat is known as which of the following terms?
Pulse
Stroke volume
Blood volume
Heart rate
Cardiac output
Stroke volume: is correct because it is the volume ejected per stroke, or beat of the heart. Stroke volume increases during exercise and is another measurement that helps to determine an appropriate intensity level for a client. When combined with heart rate the product is cardiac output or the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute.
Heart rate: number of times the heart contracts or beats per minute
Blood volume: the total amount of blood circulating in the body
Pulse: measurement of the heart rate
Cardiac output: amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute
Chapter 5
Which of the following field cardiorespiratory fitness tests would provide the least accurate prediction of VO2 max?
1.5 mile run
3 mile run
12 minute run/walk
Rockport 1 mile walk test
Queen’s College Step Test
Queen’s College Step Test: is correct because the steps test have more error in prediction than the walk or run tests. In general, both walk/run performance tests and step tests are appropriate for a wide range of clients. This is as long as the appropriate health risk screening has occurred first.
The other answer options: accurately predict VO2 max or at least have less error of prediction.
Chapter 12
At which diastolic BP should a PT be concerned about hypertension in a client and refer him to a physcian as he may be pre-hypertensive?
Less than 80 mm Hg
Greater than 120 mm Hg
Greater than 90 mm Hg
Between 80 and 89 mm Hg
Between 70 and 79 mm Hg
Between 80 and 89 mm Hg: is correct because a normal diastolic BP is under 80 mm Hg, a pre-hypertensive BP is between 80 and 89 mm Hg, and hypertensive BP of 90 mm Hg or greater. Diastolic BP is the pressure within the arterial blood vessel when the heart is resting and filling with blood. It is measured during a blood measure test as the point at which the sound of the pulse fades away through the stethoscope.
Less than 80 mm Hg and Between 70 and 79 mm Hg: normal diastolic BP
Greater than 120 mm Hg: much higher than normal. Warrants a referral
Greater than 90 mm Hg: considered hypertensive, not pre-hypertensive, but warrants a referral.
Chapter 12
A male client is 40 years old, has not smoked last 10 years, has BMI 26.2, has BP of 125/87 mm Hg and no known personal or family history of cardiovascular disease. Which category of risk classificaton does he belong in?
High risk
No risk
Moderate risk
None of these
Low risk
Low risk: is correct because this client has no known CV, pulmonary or metabolic disease, nor any signs or symptoms to suggest these diseases, and has no CV risk factors. Risk classification is based upon whether an individual has known CV, pulmonary or metabolic disease, signs or symptoms of these diseases or whether an individual has two or more risk factors. Determining risk is important during the assessment process to ensure client safety.
The other answer options are incorrect because they have no known [or less than 2] CVD, or sign or symptoms of disease. In this example the client is low risk
Chapter 11
Which of the following is the most valid test to measure the energy system development of a hockey player?
Fat free mass
T drill
Wingate test
Stair sprint test
YMCA step-up test
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=e-uaKhOAn_A
Wingate test: is correct because it is the most valid test for this individual. Validity is the degree to which a test measures what is pertinent to the sport and athlete. As a hockey player’s shifts typically last 30-45 seconds, the Wingate test which measures anaerobic power and capacity for this approximate length is appropriate.
Fat free mass: measures body composition
The other 3 answer options don’t measure energy system development.
Chapter 12
What type of training can improve neuromuscular control, endurance, tissue tensile strength and metabolic efficiency?
Resistance training
Plyometric training
Balance training
Endurance training
Speed training
Resistance training: is correct because it can lead to a variety of adaptations that affact the cardiovascular, hormonal, neural, skeletal and muscular systems. One of the many amazing properties of the body is its ability to adapt to the specific stresses placed upon it. One such stress, is resistance training.
Balance training: endurance and metabolic efficiency are not typical consequences of this type of training
Endurance training: tissue tensile strength and neuromuscular efficiency are not large adaptation of the type of training
Plyometric training: this type of training doesn’t lead to increases in metabolic efficiency.
Speed training: metabolic efficiency and endurance are not typical consequences of this type of training.
Chapter 14
Which of the following exercises may require the support of more than one spotter when performed with a very heavy load?
Power and clean
Hang snatch
Back squat
Push press
Deadlift
Back squat: is correct because this exercise may require additional spotters at either side of the bar to ensure safety. The load of some exercises can dictate how many spotters should be used to guarnatee safe technique.
There is no need for spotters in the case of the other answer options.
Chapter 14
Which of the following test is the most valid for a cross-country runner?
1.5 mile run
Sit and reach
40 yard dash
Partial curl-up
Vertical jump
1.5 mile run: is correct because it is the most valid. Validity is the degree to which a test measures what is pertinent to the sport and athlete. As cross country runner’s most important attribute is aerobic power, using the 1.5 mile run test will measure this.
The other answer options are not the most valid tests for this situation.
Chapter 12
The catch position of the barbell clean mimics which of the following exercises?
Back squat
Shoulder press
Romanian deadlift
Front lunge
Front squat
Front squat: is correct because the barbell clean is caught with the bar on the deltoids with the elbows pointed forward and the hips and knees slightly flexed, the middle of a front squat exercise. The barbell clean is utilized to improve power and speed in strength training programs.
None of the othe answer options finish with the bar in the appropriate position to be the correct answer to this question.
Chapter 18
Which of the following movements is not allowed by the glenohumeral joint?
Flexion
Abduction
Elevation
Horizontal adduction
Internal rotation
Elevation: is correct as this motion does occur at the glenohumeral joint. This joint is a synovial ball and socket joint that allows for movement in every plane of motion. The other ball and socket joint found in the body is the hip. Elevation typically occurs in the shoulder girdle.
All of the other answer options do occur at the glenohumeral joint, so they are incorrect answers to this question.
Chapter 3
A previously untrained female has the following test results:
Partial curl-up: 15
Push-up: 4
Sit and reach: 15cm
1.5 mile run: 7 minutes
Which of the following parameters will not need to be addressed in her training program?
Flexibility
Core strength
Aerobic energy system capabilities
All of these
Upper body strength
Aerobic energy system capabilities: is correct because the results from this test would be considered excellent. Knowing a range of averages for the basic strength and conditioning test is important when working with clients. The upper body strength, core strength and flexibility scores are all well below average and would be considered poor.
The client in this example didn’t perform well on the other answer options for this question.
Chapter 12
Which of the following would be considered a “high quality” protein or complete protein?
Salmon
Peanuts
Cucumbers
Whole grain bread
Black beans
Salmon: is correct because this is an animal product. A complete or high quality protein source is one that contains all of the essential amino acids. The majority of complete protein sources are animal products that include meat, poultry and fish as well as dairy and eggs.
The other choices are incorrect because they are not animal products.
Chapter 6
Which of the body’s systems is responsible for delivery of nutrients to the cells?
Cardiovascular system
Muscular system
Hormonal system
Respiratory system
Digestive system
The cardiovascular system: is correct and consists of the heart and the blood vessels and is responsible for transporting blood and nutrients, hormones and enzymes to the various cell of the body and removing wast products. The cardiovascular system is also involved in acid-base, water, and temperature balance.
Respiratory system: responsible for transporting and exachanging gases [oxygen and carbon dioxide] with the cardiovascular system.
Digestive system: Food intake and digestion into nutrients. Exchanges nutrients and waste with the CV system and eliminates waste from the body.
Hormonal system: regulates various functions of the body, including metabolism, growth and development, reproduction, sleep and mood among other things.
Muscular system: this system moves the body through pulling on the skeleton and through contractions within the various vessels of the body.
Chapter 5
