376 - 400 Flashcards
What is the purpose of the Physical Activity Readiness questionnaire [PAR-Q]?
To determine the client’s motivation level
To determine how hard the individual can be pushed
To identify those who need further medical evaluation
To diagnose cardiovascular disease
To design the training program
To identify those who need further medical evaluation :
is correct because the PAR-Q is designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercise based on the specific health history questions.
It is primarily aimed at identifying those that require a more comprehensive medical evaluation prior to beginning a new exercise regime because they are at greater risk for cardiovascular disease.
PTs should refer the clients to a physician when they answer “yes” to one or more questions on the PAR-Q.
The other options area incorrect because the PAR-Q does not diagnose of assess them.
Why is it important to have the client in a relaxed state when taking their resting blood pressure measurements?
To eliminate false elevated readings
To eliminate unreadable measurements
To eliminate false lowered readings
To get clear Korotkoff sounds
None of these
To eliminate false elevated readings:
is correct because the anxiety and nervousness of taking the assessment may increase the client’s blood pressure.
This is known as the white coat syndrome and can occur with other physiological and psychological assessments.
Thus, maintaining a relaxed atmosphere sets the client at ease, which is important when performing blood pressure measurements.
The reasons the other options are incorrect are: anxiety and nervousness will increase the measurement, has no bearing on ability to hear Kortkoff sounds and anxiety and nervousness will not eliminate ability to obtain a measurement.
During an assessment that includes the 1.5 mile run, 1 RM bench press, Vertical jump, sit and reach and resting blood pressure, which test should occur first?
1.5 mile run
1 RM bench press
Vertical jump
sit and reach
Resting blood pressure
Resting blood pressure:
is correct because the ACSM recommends that resting measurements should be taking before any exertional assessments.
The exact sequence of assessments is dictated by the setting and equipment available.
Asssessment should only take pace after a client has completed a pre-participation screening.
The other options are all exertional assessments and should occur after the resting blood pressure assessment. Therefore they are incorrect.
Which of the following is not a trait possessed by a pro PT who creates a hospitality experience?
Work ethic
Empathy
Integrity
Optimistic warmth
Lecturing skills
Lecturing skills:
is correct because this skill is not an emotionally driven behavior that demonstrates to the client that they are special and cared for by the PT.
Warmth, friendliness, kindness and the instinct to want to do the right thing for the clients are ultimately at the core of hospitality.
Hospitality is a dialogue and lecturing a client about health and fitness is not recommended.
The other options show genuine kindness and thoughtfullness, shows that the PT is connecting with how the client feels, shows that the PT is accountable and that the PT is performing at max ability.
Which 2 factors determine the frequency and number of sessions a PT should recommend during the initial client consultation
Client’s schedule and motivation
Client’s needs and goals
Client’s schedule and goals
Client’s age and location
Client’s needs and income
Client’s needs and goals:
is correct because the experience level of a client and the magnitude and time line of their goals will determine how often they require a PT’s expertise.
Recommending the correct amount of sessions is essential to ensure client success and to provide approptriate customer service.
Ensuring the client understands your recommendation is an important part of a PT’s service.
All other options should not dictate or influence the recommendation.
While performing an initial consultation with a new client, which of the following is an indication that a client-centered approach is being used?
The PT is speaking very quickly to provide lots of information
The client is making outcome goals
The client is talking about behavior change
The PT is dominating the conversation
The PT is doing most of the talking
The client is talking about behavior change:
is correct because this indicates that motivational interviewing is taking place and the client is speaking about themselves in detail.
Further indicators that a client-centered approach is occurring is that the client is speaking more than the PT who is guiding the client to make realizations and connections not previously considered.
This client-centered approach can aid in obtaining a client and in them reaching their goals.
None of the other answer options can be considered a client-centered approach, therefore they are incorrect.
When measuring waist circumference, which 2 body landmarks should the tape be placed between?
Umbilicus and scapula
Umbilicus and lowest rib
Gluteal fold and umbilicus
Gluteal fold and xiphoid process
Umbilicus and xiphoid process
Umbilicus and xiphoid process:
is correct because this will give the most accurate measurement of the waiste circumference.
The smallest circumference in this area is what should be measured.
Waist circumference is an important measurement as large amounts of adipose tissue in this area is associated with many chronic diseases.
The other options are: too low on the body, or not a large enough area to allow a measurement, or too high to allow a measurement or would include the hip.
Which of the following foods or drugs does not need to be avoided leading up to a cardiovascular fitness test?
Alcohol
Caffeine
Vitamin C
Nicotine
Beta Blockers
Vitamin C:
is correct because this has no affect on cardiovascular performance.
It is important to standarize pretesting conditions for all clients who undergo these various test for CRF [Cardiorespiratory Fitness].
Standardization can also increase the accuracny of predicton of CRF as well as aid in client safety.
The other answer options: witing 24 hours may improve aerobic performance or affect test results.
Chapter 12
Which of the following is the most important assessment before training a new client?
Body composition
Aerobic capacity
Movement quality
Heart rate and blood pressure
Medical clearance
Medical clearance:
is the most important assessment before training a new client.
This must be obtained before beginning a new exercise program in order to rule out risk for a multitude of conditions that can be aggravated by physical activity.
The medical clearance is a way for PTs to provide risk assessments for their clients and determine which other tests and what type of training may be appropriate and protect themselves legally.
The other options are: either not related to client risk assessment or secondary to ensuring health of client.
Chapter 1
Which of the following skinfolds involves taking a diagonal fold in order to obtain an accurate reading?
Thigh
Supriliac
Triceps
Abdominal
Medial calf
Suprailiac: (Image below)
is correct because this skinfold follow the natural angle of the iliac crest.
Taking the skinfold with the correct position and angle is essential to taking a reliable and accurate measurement.
These measurements can be used to determine body composition.
Thigh measurement follows the line of the femur
Triceps measurement follows the line of the humerus
Abdominal measurement involves a vertcal line
Medial calf measurement follows the line of the tibia and fibula
Chapter 12
The one-repetition squat test can be categorized as what type of assessment?
Posture assessment
Cardiorespiratory fitness test
Muscular endurance test
Performance test
Sub-maximal estimation
Performance test:
is correct because the individual is performing test for muscular strength.
Muscular strength is defined as one-time maximal force that is exerted by a joint of muscle group.
Performance tests are often used by individuals looking to improve athletic performance.
The other options are either more than one rep, are a test for cardiorespiratory fitness or is done in a static position, not during a squat.
Chapter 12
What is the BMI for a client who is 2m tall and weighs 100kg?
20
25
50
- 02
- 04
25: is correct because:
BMI = weight [kg]/height [m2] = 100/4 = 25
BMI is rough estimate of body composition based on the concept that one’s weight should be proportional to his height.
Elevated BMIs are linked to increased risk of disease, especially if combined with a large waist circumference.
The other options were incorrect because: 50, height wasn’t squared. 20, BMI calculated incorrectly. 0.40, divided by weight instead of opposite. 0.02, divided by weight instead of opposite and height wasn’t squared.
Which of the following are the two primary types of vitamins?
Water and fat soluble
Antioxidants and oxidants
Oil and fat soluble
None of these
Water and food soluble
Water and fat soluble:
is correct because vitamins are broken down into two categories based on the solution that must be present for digestion and absorption.
Water soluble vitamins are typically associated with fruits while fat soluble vitamins are typically assciated with fats and oils.
The other options are incorrect because, they’re either not fat fat soluble or only fat soluble or because vitamins are not categorized as antioxidants.
What is the appropriate range of repetitions for a beginner adult client looking to improve muscular fitness?
15+
4 to 6
1 to 2
6 to 8
8 to 12
8 to 12:
is correct because this rep range encourages motor learning of the exercise while giving enough stimulus to increase strength and possibly muscle size.
Adult clients who are just beginning a strength training program to improve overall fitness are encouraged to use 8 to 12 reps for the first few months.
None of the other options are enough reps to encourage motor learning, enough chances to learn the exercise and not enough to stimulate muscle development.
Chapter 14
Which principle of resistance training is imperative to overtraining prevention and ensuring continued improvement?
Specificity training
Periodization
Prioritization
SAID principle
Progressive overload
Periodization:
is correct because this variation of training variables is a means of optimizing desired physiological outcomes while concurrently reducing the incidence of overtraining.
Periodization allows for optimal training and recovery time in a resistance training program.
Specificity: only the muscle being trained will adapt.
Here’s why the othe options are incorrect:
Progressive overload: relates to continuously increasing the training stimulus for continual adaptation.
Prioritization: addresses the separation of training goals.
SAID: indicates the the adaptation will be dependent on the applied stress.
Chapter 14
Which population would benefit most by including neuromotor exercise?
Those with mobility impairments
Individuals whose jobs involve the risk of falls
The elderly
All of these
Athletes
All of these:
is correct because these populations would benefit from training their balance, coordination, agility and proprioception.
Neuromotor-enhancing activities focus the communication between feedback from the periphery and the interpretation by the central nervous system.
As with any training, providing a challenge, or overload will allow for improvements.
Individually the other options are an incorrect answer. Because “All of these” is the correct response.
Chapter 13
When should flexibility training occur for a client whose goal is to improve strength and power?
After main lift
Before the trainng session
After plyometric exercises
After training session
During training session
After training session:
is correct because performing flexibility exercises may acutely reduce power and strength.
The timing of the different types of training is important to ensure that the benefit of each is realized.
Flexibility training could also be performed as a seperate session.
The other responses are incorrect because stretching then would reduce strength and power.
Chapter 16
During the dumbbell chest press, the client is unable to lower the dumbbells to the chest no matter which form of resistance is used. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this technique flaw?
Tight pectoral muscles
Weak triceps
Tight lat muscles
Weak lat muscles
Tight lower back muscles
Tight pectoral muscles:
is correct because this is the prime mover of the exercise and the inability to move the muscles through the full ROM may be either a mobility or flexibility problem or a stability or strength issue.
If a client is unable to move through the exercise with even light weights, it is most likely an issue with flexibility or mobility.
Other options:
Tight lats and weak triceps, more likely to result in inability to fully extend arms above the chest
Weak lats, plays stabilizing role, so lowering the weight would result in ability to perform exercise correctly.
Tight lower back, not involved in this exercise.
Chapter 14
The amount of available motion that occurs at a specific joint is known as which of the following?
Flexibility
Flexible joints
Range of muscles
Range of change
Range of motion
Range of motion:
is correct because this is an assessment of how much movement one is capable of in a given joint.
A client with low ROM in major joints such as the shoulders or knees would need special flexibility and anaerobic training programs in order to be successful.
ROM can be assessed with multiple tests such as the sit and reach or gonimeter tests.
Other options are incorrect because they’re either: elasticity of muscle and does not include the joint structure, is a description, not a measurement, is a movement around a joint not entirely dependent on the muscle.
During the downward phase of which machine based exercise is the bar pulled down and toward the upper chest while the torso is maintained in a slight backward lean?
Chin-up
Seated row
None of these
Machine chest press
Lat pull-down
Lat pull-down:
is correct because these cues are essential to the correct completion of the downward phase of this exercise.
In the upward movement phase, the athlete completes this exercise by allowing the elbows to slowly return to the starting position while keeping the torso in the same position.
Other options either, not a machine exercise or pushes handles away from the chest or bar is not pulled toward the upper chest.
Chapter 14
When progressing a cardiorespiratory exercise which variable should be increased last?
Frequency
Repetition
Intensity
Duration
None of these
Frequency:
is correct because this dramatically increases the weekly overall training volume.
Frequency should only be increased after duration and intensity are heightened.
Frequency is the number of training sessions per week.
Other options either:
Duration: this variable progressed first.
Intensity: progressed before frequency
Repetition: is not an endurance variable
Chapter 15
With a goal of weight gain, how many additional calories should be consumed per day?
1,000
500 to 700
300 to 400
400 to 800
100 to 200
300 to 400:
is correct because this is a safe and reasonable amount that will still achieve desired results.
This, of course, goes in conjuction with the proper training regiment.
300 t0 400 is the current ACSM recommendation.
The other options are either not enough or too much.
Chapter 6
What type of exercise would not be recommended for any adult with a regular exercise program but only average physical fitness?
Skating
Walking
Elliptical machine
Slow dancing
Spinning class
Skating:
is correct because this activity requires an aquired skill.
When selecting activities a PT must not only consider the accessibility and enjoyment of the activity but the physical capability and skill to perform it as well.
The ACSM classifies endurance activities into four groups based on fitness and skill levels.
Any adult with average physical fitness should or will be able to perform the other options offered in this question.
Chapter 15
Which of the following systems include the nose, trachea and lungs?
Respiratory system
Cardiovascular system
Muscular system
Nervous system
Endocrine system
Respiratory system: (image below)
is correct because these structures serve to filter inhaled air and transition it effectively into lungs.
At the lungs the inhaled air will exchanges gases with the blood stream.
The respiratory system includes the nose, trachea, lungs, pharynx, larynx, bronchial tree and the nasal cavity.
The other options:
Cardiovascular system: includes heart and blood vessels
Muscular system: includes muscles and connective tissues of the body.
Endocrine system: includes the endocrine glands
Nervous system: includes the brain, spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
Chapter 5
At what place in the body is the concentration of oxygen in the blood the highest?
Aorta
Left ventricle
Pulmonary
Superior vena cava
Pulmonary vein
Pulmonary vein:
is correct. Concentrations of blood oxygen are highest immediately after contact with the lungs, where gas exchange can occur to remove carbon dioxide and oxygenate the blood.
The blood vessel that returns the blood to the heart from the lungs is the pulmonary vein. Vein means return to the heart.
The pulmonary artery is carrying blood from the heart to the lungs and is where the concentration of oxygen is the lowest.
The aorta: blood is pumped out of the left ventricle into the aorta to distribute to the rest of the body. Though lots of oxygen is still in the blood at this point, some has been used to fuel the muscle contractions of the heart.
The superior vena: This blood vessel is carrying blood that has been stripped of much of its oxygen from the cells of the upper extremity of the body.
The left ventricle: The largest chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the rest of the body, though the blood’s concentration of oxygen was used to fuel the contractions of the heart.
Chapter 5
