126- 175

Question 1

When should a referral to a medical proffessional occur with a client?

Several months

After the risk assessment

At any time

After the exercise test

After the initial client consultation

Answer 1

At any time: is correct because the need of medical professional is not restricted to any one time.

Note: it is the responsibility of the personal trainer to refer clients to other members of the team when problems or potential problems arise or are identified that are beyond the personal trainer’s scope of practice.

Note: referral can occur any time over several months into training.

After th initial client consultation: is incorrect because, although this is an appropriate time if needed, it is not the only tim to refer.

After the exercise test: is incorrect because, although this is an appropriate time if needed, it is not the only tim to refer.

Several months into training: is incorrect because, although this is an appropriate time if needed, it is not the only tim to refer.

After the risk assessment: is incorrect because, although this is an appropriate time if needed, it is not the only tim to refer.

Question 2

What is the target heart rate of a client who has a maximum heart rate of 195, a resting heart rate of 65, and wants to exercise at 80% intensity?

175 beats per minute

169 beats per minute

156 beats per minute

160 beats per minute

164 beats per minute

Answer 2

169 beats per minute: is correct because using the heart rate reserve, or Karvonen method,

THR = [maximum HR - resting HR x % intensity]

In this case: THR = 195 - 65 x 0.8 = 169

Note: using this method can prescribe training intensities based on the difference between maximun and resting HR that are considered accurate.

Question 3

The Rockport 1 Mile Walk Test requires measurements of which two results at the time of the actual test to predict VO2 max?

Time and weight

Weight and age

Heart rate and age

Time and age

Time and heart rate

Answer 3

Time and heart rate: is correct because these measurements are needed to plug into the prediction formula.

Note: the time is the duration of walking the mile and heart rate is taken immediately after the test is over.

Note: age and weight are also part of the formula to predict VO2 max, but these can be measured at any time.

Weight and age: is incorrect because these can be taken before or after the test.

Time and weight: is incorrect because weight is not taken during the test.

Heart rate and age: is incorrect because age is not measured during the test itself.

Time and age: is incorrect because age is not measured during the test itself.

Question 4

Which of the following is not one of the three major types of muscles found within the body?

Smooth

Cardiac

Organic

None of these

Skeletal

Answer 4

Organic: is correct because, although every muscle is made of organic material, it does not describe one of the three types of muscles.

Note: the body has three major types of muscle within it: skeletal which attaches the skeleton, smooth which forms the internal organs and cardiac which is the heart muscle.

Question 5

Which of the following are two examples of groin stretches?

Supine knee to chest and child’s pose

Straddle and butterfly

Wall stretch and straddle

Sitting to touch and semistraddle

Butterfly and step stretch

Answer 5

Straddle and butterfly: is correct because the former affects the gastrocnemius, hamstrings, erector spinae, hip abductors and the sartorius. (See image below)

Note: although both the straddle, also known as the spread eagle, and the butterfly are groin stretches, they have different effects and goals.

Sitting to touch and semistraddle: is incorrect because these stretches are for different areas of the body.

Wall stretch and straddle: is incorrect because the wall stretch does not effect the groin.

Butterfly and step stretch: is incorrect because the step stretch does not effect the groin.

Supine knee to chest and child’s pose: is incorrect because these do not stretch the groin area.

Question 6

If a nutritional supplement includes leucine in its list of ingredients, which physiological mechanisms would it stimulate during exercise?

Beta blocker and reduced heart rate during exercise

Increased aerobic capacity

Increased muscle breakdown

Protein synthesis and protection from muscle catabolism during exercise

Raised core temperature during exercise

Answer 6

Protein synthesis and protection from muscle catabolism during exercise: is correct because leucine is a branched chain amino acid.

Note: these play a major role in stimulating muscle protein synthesis and helps protect the muscle protein from catabolism during exercise.

Note: leucine can be included in an ergogenic aid or as a part of consumed food.

Increased aerobic capacity: is incorrect because this not a function of proteins.

Raised core temperature during exercise: is incorrect because this is not a consequence of ingesting amino acids.

Beta blocker and reduced heart rate during exercise: is incorrect because this is not a function of branched chain amino acids.

Increase muscle breakdown: is incorrect because this is catabolic and leucine is anabolic.

Question 7

Which of the following sets of assessments are most appropriate for a teenage athlete?

Medical clearance, height, weight

Maximum cardiorespiratory fitness tests and muscular endurance tests

Medical clearance from a physician, resting heart rate, blood pressure, submaximal respiratory test

Medical clearance from a physician, maximal respiratory and strength performance tests

Resting blood pressure and heart rate fitness test

Answer 7

Medical clearance from a physician, maximal respiratory and strength performance tests: is correct because young athletic clients typically have high fitness levels and few health risk factors.

Note: medical clearance is always a good idea, but this client should be able to perform maximal or near maximal performance tests to determine his fitness level.

Note: the objective of a assessment is to safely determine a client’s initial level of fitness and other objective information that will aid in the program design in order to meet the client’s specific goals.

Medical clearance from a physician, resting heart rate, blood pressure, submaximal respiratory test: is incorrect because a young athlete can handle more intense assessments with little risk.

Maximum cardiorespiratory fitness tests and muscular endurance tests: is incorrect because a medical clearance is always the best practice.

Resting blood pressure and heart rate fitness test: is incorrect because a medical clearance is always the best practice.

Medical clearance, height and weight: is incorrect because these assessments give no indication of what the athlete is capable of in terms of performance.

Question 8

Which of the following is the correct term for high blood sugar?

Hyperglycemia

Insulitis

Glycemic index

Hypoglycemia

Hyperthermia

Answer 8

Hyperglycemia: is correct because hyper refers to high and glycemia refers to blood sugar.

Note: hyperglycemia is a serious condition where the blood sugar level is dangerously high.

Note: a trainer must be able to recognize symptoms of this condition and know how to respond accordingly.

Hypoglycemia: is incorrect because this is low blood sugar.

Glycemic index: is incorrect because this is the effect of food on blood sugar.

Inulitis: is incorrect becasue this is the cause of type I diabetes.

Hyperthermia: is incorrect because this is an elevated body temperature.

Question 9

Which test is recommended to measure sprint speed?

T-test

10 yard dash

40 yard dash

Verticle jump

100 yard dash

Answer 9

40 yard dash: is correct because maximal speed has been reached by this point and does not require to be maintained for a significant length.

Note: speed is the change of distance over time and sprint speed is determined by stride length and stride frequency.

Note: speed is an essential athletic componet.

100 yard day: is incorrect because this would require speed be maintained over half the distance.

10 yard dash: is incorrect because this distance does not allow one to reach top speed.

Verticle jump: is incorrect because this is a measure of muscle power.

T-test: is incorrect because this is a measure of agility.

Question 10

Which of the following methods of generating a client may be considered as devaluing a personal trainer’s service?

None of these

Fitness floor exposure

Complimentary consultations

Referrals

Internet marketing

Answer 10

Complimentary consultations: is correct because providing a free service can be considered as lowering the value of overall service.

However, this is up to one’s personal opinion and a personal trainer must decide for themselve about this issue.

Note: offering a complementay cosultation may be one method to differentiate a trainer of facility from the others.

Referrals: is incorrect because having a network to refer to or being part of another professional’s network increases value to a consumer.

Fitness floor exposure: is incorrect because interacting with clients on the floor increases the value of their membeship and may lead to them purchasing additional services.

Internet marketing: is incorrect because having a presence away from the fitness facility is adding value to future and current clients.

None of these: is incorrect because some view providing free consultations [or workouts] as devaluing a personal trainer’s overall service.

Question 11

Jane is a 25 year old endurance athlete. She consumes a strict vegetarian diet and does not take supplements. Which of the following supplements should Jane be taking for optimal running performance?

Iron and folic acid

Iron and cobalamin [B12]

Zinc and calcium

Iron and riboflavin

Iron and beta-carotene

Answer 11

Iron and cobalamin [B12]: is correct because iron aids in the oxygen carrying capacity of blood, which is essential for aerobic performance and vitamin B12 aid in iron absorbtion.

Note: supplementation of these is a must for vegetarian athletes as deficiancy can cause fatigue, depression, memory loss and anemia.

Note: vegetarian may not be able to achieve desired levels must be assessed to ensure overall health and performance.

Iron and riboflavin acid: is incorrect because riboflavin is not a typical deficiency for vegetarian athletes.

Iron and folic acid: is incorrect because folic acid is not a typical deficiency for vegetarian athletes.

Iron and beta-carotene: is incorrect because beta-carotene is not lacking in vegetarian athletes.

Zinc and calcium: is incorrect because, although commonly dificient in vegetarian athletes, these do not have specific effects on endurance athletes.

Question 12

Dan had two resting BP readings, 122/88 mm Hg and 130/95 mm Hg taken five minutes apart. What should occur next during the assessment process?

Stop the assessment

Refer to a physician

Begin exercise

Move on to body composition measurements

Take another BP reading

Answer 12

Take another blood pressure reading: is correct because the two readings during any one session should be within 5 mm Hg of each other.

Note: the difference may be due to anxiety of the client or tester error.

Move on to body composition measurements: is incorrect because the resting BP measurement is not reliable.

Begin exercise: is incorrect the assessment process is incomplete.

Refer to a physician: is incorrect because the assessment is incomplete and there is no evidence of risk.

Stop the assessment: is incorrect because the assessment is incomplete due to unreliable measurements.

Question 13

Which of the following set and repetition prescriptions is the most likely to result in muscle hypertrophy?

6 sets of 2 repetitions

3 sets of 10 repetitions

1 set of 8 repetitions

4 sets of 4 repetitions

3 sets of 20 repetitions

Answer 13

3 sets of 10 repetitions: is correct because resistance training protocols that emphasize hypertrophy involve a moderate volume of progressive overload.

Note: multiple sets [typically 3 or 4] of 8-12 repetitions are generally used.

Note: hypertrophy refer to the enlargement of the skeletal muscle fibers as a result of being utilized to produce high levels of tension.

1 set of 8 repetitions: is incorrect because this volume is not sufficient.

4 sets of 4 repetitions: is incorrect because the overall repetitions volume is not effective.

3 sets of 20 repetitions: is incorrect because this repetition prescription would not allow for the needed load overload.

6 sets of 2 repetitions: is incorrect because this repetition prescription does not include enough time under tension and volume.

Question 14

A client has complained of knee pain during a front lunge exercise, which of the following courses of action is appropriate?

Select an easier, safer upper leg exercise

Modify the front lunge exercise

Discontinue lower body training for the session

Discontinue using the front lunge exercise

All of these

Answer 14

All of these: is correct because all options put client safety as the priority.

Note: typically the personal trainer will try to modify the painful exercise, then select a different exercise for the same body part and finally continue to train the area.

Note: a referral to a medical professional may also be appropriate.

Modify the front lunge exercise: is incorrect because, although a true statement, all optons are correct.

Select an easier, safer upper leg exercise: is incorrect because, although a true statement, all optons are correct.

Discontinue using the front lunge exercise: is incorrect because, although a true statement, all optons are correct.

Discontinue lower body training for the session: is incorrect because, although a true statement, all optons are correct.

Question 15

During an incline bench press, where should the spotter’s hands be placed when aiding the lifter?

One hand inside the lifter’s hands and one hand outside the lifter’s hands

Outside of the weights

Between the lifter’s hands

Outside of the lifter’s hands

On the lifter’s wrists

Answer 15

Between the lifter’s hands: is correct because this position ensures the safety of the lifter by controlling the bar.

Note: unless aid is needed, the bar should only be touched to help the lifter lift off and place the bar back on the pins.

Note: with performing barbell exercise over the chest or head, the spotter should grab the bar between the lifter’s hands.

Outside the lifter’s hands: is incorrect because this position decreases the spotter’s leverage and decreases safety.

On the lifter’s wrists: is incorrect because this position decreases the spotter’s leverage and is unsafe.

One hand inside the lifter’s hands and one hand outside the lifter’s hands: is incorrect because this position is uneven on the bar and may cause it to tip.

Question 16

Which of the following is the most common muscle injury that results from a well-supervisded and well-designed strength training program?

Strain

Rhabdomyolysis

Contusion

Inflammation

Delayed onset muscle soreness

Answer 16

Delayed onset muscle soreness: is correct because this is often seen as a result of new stimuli to the musculature, which is a common occurrence during strength training.

Note: DOMS is characterized by pain, stiffness and swelling of the musculature.

Note: Typically onset occurs after 12-24 hours and can last up to 72 hours.

Note: DOMS is not a desired consequence of training and is an indication of over prescription.

Rhabdomyolysis: is incorrect because this disorder occurs in extreme cases and not as a result of a well-supervised and well-designed training program.

Strain: is incorrect because this is unlikely to occur with a well-supervised training program.

Contusion: is incorrect because well-supervised training program would not result in this injury.

Inflammation: is incorrect as this should not often occur as a result of a well-supervised and well-designed training program.

Question 17

Which of the following is not a benefit of performing plyometric training?

Increase speed of movement

Increased rate of motor unit firing

Enhanced muscular size

Improved agility

Increased power development

Answer 17

Enhanced muscle size: is correct because plyometric training leads to neural, not structural adaptations as the time under tension is much too low to lead to the change.

Note: plyometric training is used to improve speed of movement and power.

Note: due to the quick change of direction properties, agility is also and attribute that can be improved with plyometric training.

Increased power development: is incorrect because this is a benefit of plyometric training.

Improved agility: is incorrect because this can be improved with plyometric training.

Increased speed of movement: is incorrect because this is a benefit of plyometric training.

Increased rate of motor unit firing: is incorrect because this occurs as a result of plyometric training.

Question 18

Your client is performing his attempts at the 1RM bench press. What is the minimum amount of time that should be given between attempts?

5 minutes

1 minute

2 minutes

3 minutes

10 minutes

Answer 18

3 minutes: is correct because this allows for near to, or complete recovery.

Note: when performing one rep max testing, fatigue should not be a factor.

Note: for maximum validity and reliability, do not allow a client to take less than 3 minutes between attempts during the testing period.

2 minutes: is incorrect because this may not be enough time to recover between attempts.

10 minutes: is incorrect because this is more than enough time that is needed to recover from a one repetition of maximal effort.

1 minute: is incorrect because this is not enough time to recover.

5 minutes: is incorrect because though in the recommended range of recovery time, it is not the minimum amount of time needed to recover.

Question 19

Dave has been training for 3 months and currently has a 1RM bench press of 300 lbs., which of the following loads is the most appropriate for Dave to use for muscle hypertrophy?

150 lb.

195 lb.

225 lb.

265 lb.

280 lb.

Answer 19

225 lb:. is correct because this falls between 70 and 85 percent of the novice client’s 1RM.

Note: muscular hypertrophy is trained with 1-3 sets of 8-12 repetitions with this load.
Note: there are differenct recommendations for an advanced client.

150 lb: is incorrect because this is only 50% 1RM.

265 lb: is incorrect because this is a percent of one rep maximum greater than 85%.

195 lb: is incorrect because this is less than 70% 1RM.

280 lb: is incorrect because this load is to high to train hypertrophy in a novice client.

Question 20

Which of the following does not describe proper guidelines for achieving the parallel arm position of the front squat exercise?

Maintain an upright torso

Flex the elbows to position the upper arms parallel to the floor

Grasp the bar with a supinated grip

Place the bar on the anterior deltoids

Grip the bar with hands approximately hip-width apart.

Answer 20

Grasp the bar with a supinated grip: is correct because the proper grip is pronated.

Note: the front squat exercise is used to increase strength and size of the major muscles of the lower body [glutes, quads, hamstrings and calves].

Note: to maintain an upright torso and ensure safety while performing this exercise, the proper rack position must be achieved.

Question 21

During a back squat exercise, a client’s knees continually rotate inward despite repeated cueing. What is the most likely cause of this technique flaw?

Weak hip external rotators

Weak hip flexors

Tight hamstrings

Tight quadriceps

Weak quadriceps

Answer 21

Weak hip external rotators: is correct because the client is unable to maintain strength off an isometric contraction to keep the hips in a straight or slightly externally rotated position.

Note: therefore, muscles such as the piriformis and gluteus medius are causing the breakdown in technique.

Tight hamstrings: is incorrect because the hamstrings do not affect the internal or external rotation of the hip.

Weak hip flexors: is incorrect because these muscles have little bearing on the ability to prevent internal rotation of the hips.

Weak quadriceps: is incorrect because this muscle’s function is to extend the knee.

Tight quadriceps: is incorrect because this issue may affect the knee’s ability to extend.

Question 22

What tool is used to assess the range of motion from every joint?

Sit-and- reach box

Calipers

Measuring tape

Boniometer

Stethscope

Answer 22

Boniometer: is correct because this two lever tool can measure the angle of any joints start and end position.

Note: this measures one’s range of motion in a given joint.

Note: it helps to determine what exercises one can do, considering that specific joint.

Measuring tape: is incorrect because it cannot measure a joint.

Calipers: is incorrect because this measures small distances such as skinfolds.

Sit-and-reach box: is incorrect because this measures range of motion in specific joints.

Stethoscope: is incorrect because this measures heart rate and blood pressure.

Question 23

The primary movement of the power clean is which of the following joint movements?

Extension

Flexion

Abduction

Horizontal adduction

Internal rotation

Answer 23

Extension: is correct because the power clean exercise is characterized by triple extension, the extension [the joint angle increases], of the ankles, and hips.

Note: this exercise is used to develop power that can be transferred to activities such as running and jumping, which also contain triple extension.

Flexion: is incorrect because the power clean does not involve decreasing of the joint angles during the primary movement phases.

Abduction: is incorrect because a power clean occurs in the sagittal plane.

Horizontal adduction: is incorrect because a power clean does not occur in the transverse plane.

Internal rotation: is incorrect because a power clean does not occur in the transverse plane.

Question 24

How often should neuromotor exercises be included in a client’s program in order to improve balance agility?

Daily

Five days per week

Once per week

Three days per month

Three days per week

Answer 24

Three days per week: is correct because at least 10 minutes of training, three times per week for four weeks has been shown to elicit improvement in both static and dynamic balance.

Note: several studies have demonstrated increases in balance ability with neuromotor or propioceptive training.

Daily: is incorrect because this is more than what is needed.

Once per week: is incorrect because this is less than what is needed to show improvements.

Five days per week: is incorrect because this exceeds the recommendation for what is needed for adaptations to occur.

Three days per month: is incorrect because this is not enough stimulus to cause an adaptation.

Question 25

During the first five yards of the forty yard dash, where is the base of support in relation to the center of gravity?

Closer to the center of gravity

Remain to the center of gravity

Behind the center of gravity

Farther from the center of gravity

Above the center of gravity

Answer 25

Farther from the center of gravity: is correct because the body lean must increase as the rate of acceleration increases.

Note: nearing top end speed, posture shoulder approach equal to greater than 5 degrees as maximal velocity is acquired.

Note: speed can be improved by using form drills, linear sprints, overspeed training and resisted sprint drills.

Closer to the center of gravity: is incorrect because body lean is increased during acceleration.

Remain to the center of gravity: is incorrect because the body must lean forward to increase speed.

Above the center of gravity: is incorrect because this never occurs during forward movement.

Behind the center of gravity: is incorrect because this never occurs when running forward

Question 26

During a seated calf raise, which muscle is involved and which movement is taking place?

Gastrocnemius and dorsiflexion

Tibialis anterior and plantar flexion

Gastrocnemius and plantar flexion

Pernoneus longus and plantar flexon

Answer 26

Gastrocnemius and plantar flexion: are the correct answers.

Note: seated calf raises involve plantar flexion of the ankle joint and involves movement of the gastrocnemius, soleus, flexor digitorium longus, and flexor hallucis longus.

Note: the exercise is performed by sitting with the weight on the knees and toes raised and pushing through the ball of the foot to move the heels vertically.

Pernoneus longus and plantar flexon: is incorrect. The correct movement of a seated calf raiseis plantar flexion, however, the peroneus longus muscle is not involved with this movement.

Tibialis anterior and plantar flexion: is incorrect. Altough the seated calf raise is a plantar flexion movement, the tibialis anterior is a muscle that aids in dorsiflexion.

Gastrocnemius and dorsiflexion: is incorrect. The prime mover is the gastrocnemius, however, the movement of the seated calf raise is plantar flexion.

Question 27

What does the R stand for in the SMART acronym?

Radical

Ruthless

Relentless

Realistic

Reduntant

Answer 27

Realistic: is correct because this is an important aspect of goals that are appropriate and obtainable.

Note: someone who creats a SMART goal is much more likely to be successful.

Note: a perfect example would be someone who is overweight to lose 10 pounds in 2 months instead of increasing strength.

Radical: is incorrect because a radical goal may be unattainable or unlikely to be accomplished.

Ruthless: is incorrect because this has a negative connotation that is not needed for goal setting.

Redundant: is incorrect because this suggests something that has been done or tried before.

Relentlss: is incorrect because this is a behavior, not a description of a goal.

Question 28

Which of the following physiological variables will increase with physical activity for previously untrained individuals at both submaximal and maximal effort exercise?

Stroke volume

Blood volume

Heart rate

Systolic blood pressure

Blood lactate accumulation

Answer 28

Blood volume: is correct because this will increase due to elevated oxygen carrying capacity [red blood cell volume].

Note: this is a constant increase that will occur at rest, submaximal and maximal exercise.

Note: Understanding the adaptations of exercise is important for the personal trainer to prescribe exercise.

Stroke volume: is incorrect because this will be decreased at a submaximal level.

Heart rate: is incorrect because this will decrease at submaximal and increase at the maximal rate.

Systolic blood pressure: is incorrect because this will decrease overall.

Blood lactate accumulation: is incorrect because this will decrease at submaximal and increase at the maximal rate.

Question 29

Those who choose not to eat animal products may be at risk of being deficient in which mineral?

Iron

Sodium

Phosphorus

Magnesium

Potassium

Answer 29

iron: is correct because the best source of this nutrient is red meat.

Note: a deficiency in this mineral is often seen in those who avoid red meat or animal products all together.

Note: deficiencies have also been observed in elderly individuals and females [espesially endurance athleted].

Magnesium: is incorrect because this deficiency is not common for vegetarians.

Potassium: is incorrect because this mineral is abundant in many non-animal products.

Phosphorus: is incorrect because this mineral is found in fruits and vegetables.

Sodium: is incorrect because a deficiency in this nutrient is not common for vegetarians.

Question 30

During a push-up, a client moves upward at one meter per second throughout the upward phase. Which of the following describes the type of muscle action displayed?

Eccentric

Isometric

None of these

Isotonic

Isokinetic

Answer 30

isokinetic: is correct as during these muscle actions, the muscle contracts, or shortens, at a constant speed over the full range of motion.

Note: often, isokinetic contractions are performed in a rehabilitation setting on machines that allow certain speeds regardless of how much tension is produced.

Eccentric: is incorrect. This type of muscle action involves the muscle lengthening during the action and can occur at different velocities throughout the range of motion.

Isometric: is incorrect. This type of muscle action involves no movement speed as the muscle length stays constant during the period of force development.

Isotonic: is incorrect. Although this type of muscle action is defined by a constant level of force production, the speed at which the movement occurs can vary throughout the range of motion.

Question 31

Which of the following protein caloric intakes would be appropriate for a 135 lb male marathon runner?

75 kcal

250 kcal

295 kcal

442 kcal

648 kcal

Answer 31

295 kcal: is correct because this falls within the protein recommendation of athletes.

Note: the protein recommendation for athletes are between 1.2 and 1.7 g of protein per kg

Note: there are 4 kcal/g of energy.

Therefore a 135 lb athlete would require between 74 and 104 grams of protein or 295 kcal of protein daily.

648 kcal: is incorrect because this answer failed to convert pounds to kilograms.

75 kcal: is incorrect because the answer did not convert grams to calories.

250 kcal: is incorrect because this is not enough protein.

442 kcal: is incorrect because this is too much proteins.

Question 32

Which of the following sensory receptors is not important for controlling movement?

Golgi tendon organ

Pacinian corpuscle

Joint receptor

Muscle spindle

Foliate papillae

Answer 32

Foliate papillae: is correct. Movement is controlled through propioception.

(Foliate papillae are short vertical folds and are present on each side of the tongue.)

Note: propioception uses mechanoreceptors such as muscle spindles, golgi tendon organs and joint receptors; touch receptors such as pacinian corpuscles; and the vesibular system to provide information about body position and movement.

Joint receptors: are sensory receptors found in the joint capsule that detects mechanical deformation in the capsule and is directly involved controlling movement. The answer is incorrect.

Muscle spindle: is incorrect. The sensory receptor found parallel to the muscle fibers detect change of length of the muscle fiber and the rate of change of length and aids in controlling movement.

Golgi tendon organ: is found withing the tendons and detects tension in the muscle to help move the body. This answer is incorrect.

Pacinian corpuscle: is incorrect. This sensory receptor in the skin detects pressure and vibration to help the body move.

Question 33

Which of the following is not one of the three primary goals of resistance training?

Muscular endurance

Muscular strength

All of these

Hypertrophy

Muscular definition

Answer 33

Muscular definition: is correct because this is not an outcome of resistance training.

Note: When designing a resistance training program, the three main goals are:

hypertrophy

muscular strength

muscular endurance.

Note: goals such as these dictate the volume and intensity required for such workouts.

Question 34

Which structure in the heart allows the ventricles to fill with blood before contraction occurs?

Purkinje fibers

AV node

SA node

Bundle of his

Bundle branches

Answer 34

AV node: is correct. The electrical impulse that causes the heart to contract is originated in the SA node.

Note: this impulse causes the atria to contract, pushing blood into the ventricles.

Note: The AV node delays the impulse for about 1.2 seconds, giving blood time to fill the ventricles before ventricular contraction occurs.

SA node: is the structure in the heart where electrical impulse originates but has no bearing on the timing of contractions. Thus, this answer is incorrect.

Purkinje fibers: is incorrect. This structure does not delay the electrical signal of the heart, allowing the ventricles to fill, rather this carries the electrical signal throughout the ventricles to ensure complete contraction.

Bundle of His: is the structure in the heart that carries the electrical signal without delay from the AV node to the purkinje fibers. This answer is incorrect.

Bundle branches: is incorrect. The electrical signal conductor in the heart is the off-shoot of the bundle of His and continues the signal to the purkinje fibers.

Question 35

Which chamber of the heart is responsible for delivering blood to the lungs for gas exchange?

Left ventricle

Left atrium

Right ventricle

Pulmonary artery

Right atrium

Answer 35

Right ventricle: is correct because the right side of the heart is responsible for collecting blood from the body and pumping the blood through pulmonary circulation.

Note: the atrium collects the blood from the body and the ventricle pumps it away from the heart.

Note: the heart is divided into two main pumps.

Right atrium: is incorrect because this collects the blood from the rest of the body.

Left ventricle: is incorrect because this pumps blood to the rest of the body.

Left atrium: is incorrect because this collects the blood returning from the lungs.

Pulmonary artery: is incorrect because this is a blood vessel, not a chamber of the heart.

Question 36

Which advantage does a sport drink have over water?

Contains some carbohydrate

All of these

Improved flavor

Contains sodium

Contains electrolytes

Answer 36

All of these: is correct because the benefits are multi-factorial.

Note: Sport drinks are more beneficial for adults after a strenuous duration of physical activities.

Note: They help to replace lost electrolytes and sodium from exercising.

Note: additionally, they have some carbohydrates which help to replenish depleted muscles.

Question 37

During which stage of change is overcoming barriers and distractions the most important aspect?

Action

Maintenance

Preparation

Pre-contemplation

Contemplation

Answer 37

Action: is correct because it is at this stage that the barriers and distractions come into focus and can derail any progress. (Page 559 ACSM Resources “Transtheoretical Model TTM”)

Note: steps should be taken to both anticipate and address these issues.

Note: an individual who has started to exercise, but has not maintain the behavior for six months is in the acton phase.

Pre-contemplation: is incorrect because the barriers and distractions may not be known at this stage.

Contemplation: is incorrect because the barriers and distractions have not come into focus at this stage.

Maintenance: is incorrect because the barriers and distractions have been overcome.

Preparation: is incorrect because this client is more focused on beginning to exercise than barriers and distractions.

Question 38

When choosing a training niche, which of the following questions does not need to be considered?

Are there any other competitors is this market?

Does this market fit with my skills and abilities?

Does this market suit my location?

What is the potential income for this market?

Is this the biggest market available?

Answer 38

Is this the biggest market available? is correct because the size of the market is not as important as whether a personal trainer can make a good income from the market.

Note: other factors such as market fit with the personal trainer, location fit and the ability to reach the market are important as well.

Note: determining a market niche will make marketing more specific and, hopefully, more profitable.

Does this market fit with my skills and abilities?: is incorrect because this needs to be considered when determining a market niche.

What is the potential income for this market?: is incorrect because this needs to be considered when determining a market niche.

Are there other competitors in this market?: is incorrect because this needs to be considered when determining a market niche.

Does this market suit my location?: is incorrect because this needs to be considered when determining a market niche.

Question 39

Which of the following is not part of the model of behavior change counseling?

Advise

Assess

Assist

Arrange

Intimidation

Answer 39

Intimidation: is correct because this is more likely to trigger a negative response.

Note: there are 5 “A”s of behavior change counseling that are frequently used to guide activities:

Advise

Assess

Agree

Assist

Arrange

These are all incorrect because the actually are counseling techniques that support change.

Question 40

During which stage of change is the personal trainer responsible for helping the client set realistic goals and expectations?

Maintenance

Preparation

Contemplation

Pre-contemplation

Action

Answer 40

Preparation: is correct because during this stage their expectations for change may be unrealistic, and disappointment and early drop-out is common unless the personal trainer acts to guide clients through this stage.

Note: in the preparation stage, people are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month.

Action stage: is incorrect because this stage entails performing the behavior change and their expectations are already in place.

Pre-contemplation: is incorrect because the client has little or no expectations as they are only considering a change.

Contemplation stage: is incorrect because in this stage expectations are still being formulated by the client.

Maintenance stage: is incorrect because the goals have been set and are in the pursuit of meeting the goals.

Question 41

What is the main purpose of discussing previous negative exercise experiences with a potential client?

Te determine motivation levels

To determine a client’s goals

To determine barriers to exercise

To determine current fitness level

To determin possible health problems

Answer 41

To determine possible barriers to exercise: is correct because discussing previous negative exercise experiences can give the personal trainer insight into factors that could inhibit the new exercise progra.

Note: by exposing these potential barriers, the personal trainer can anticipate and possibly prevent these issues.

To determine current fitness levels: is incorrect because a fitness assessment is needed to achieve this.

To determine motivation level: is incorrect because this could not be determined from this information.

To determine client’s goals: is incorrect because this could not be determined from this information.

To determine possible health problems: is incorrect because this is outside the scope of a personal trainer’s practice.

Question 42

Which of the following may serve to decrease rapport with a client?

Sharing nutrtion knowledge gained from reading a current article

Reaching out with a phone call between training sessions

Communicating in advance of an upcoming vacation

Publically rewarding a client for reaching a goal

Arriving late for a training session

Answer 42

Arriving late for a training session: is correct because this shows disrespect for the client.

Note: developing a relationship with a clients is one of the most important aspects of being a personal trainer.

Note: potentially harming that relationship through neglect, carelessness, disrespect or lack of communication often leads to losing the client.

Sharing nutrtion knowledge gained from reading a current article: is incorrect because this will build rapport with a client.

Rewarding a client publically for reaching a goal: is incorrect because this will strengthen the relationship.

Communicating in advance of an upcoming vacation: is incorrect because this will strengthen the relationship.

Reaching out with a phone call between training sessions: is incorrect because this will improve communication and shows caring.

Question 43

Which of the following is not considered to be a SMART goal for a client?

Improve my overall health

Increase bench press by ten pounds before the holidays

Eliminate symptoms of hypertension

Run the annual ten-kilometer race next year

Lose ten pounds in three months

Answer 43

Improve my overall health: is correct because this goal is not specific, timely, or measurable.

Note: for goals to be effective, they should follow the SMART principle: specific - measurable - attainable - realistic - timely.

Lose ten pounds in three months: is incorrect because this goal follows SMART principles.

Increase bench press by ten pounds before the holidays: is incorrect because this goal follows SMART principles.

Run the annual ten-kilometer race next year: is incorrect because this goal follows SMART principles.

Eliminate symptoms of hypertension: is incorrect because this goal follows SMART principles.

Question 44

Which of the following is not a fixed cost business expense?

Rent

Salary

Liability insurance

Professional memberships

Utilities

Answer 44

Salary: is correct because this cost can vary base on the number of clients that a business has.

Note: in general having to spend more on salaries equates occures because of an increase in revenues.

Note: business expenses include both fixed and varying costs.

Rent: is incorrect because it is a fixed cost.

Liability insurance: is incorrect because it is a fixed cost.

Utilities: is incorrect because it is a fixed cost. Although the amount may vary per month, this must be paid monthly to remain in business.

Professional memberships: is incorrect because it is a fixed cost.

Question 45

Why should a trainer pre-screen a client:

To identify health concerns

To identify special needs

To protect the trainer and client from risk

All of these

Identify any potential complications

Answer 45

All of these: is correct because client screening is extremely important for both parties involved to ensure the training process is safe to begin.

Note: some exercises can worsen a pre-existing health condition.

Note: additionally, some clients might need medical approval before beginning an exercise routine.

Question 46

From a litigation standpoint, why are the obligations and duties of a fitness facility heightened?

A fitness facility is a paid service

A fitness facility is a customer service business

None of these

A fitness facility is a business/invitee relationship

A fitness facility is a healthcare business

Answer 46

A fitness facility is a business/invitee relationship: is correct because when a business invites someone onto their premises, the invitee must be provided a safe premises.

Note: it is up to the business to regularly inspect the premises for the presence of dangerous conditions.

Note: when exercising reasonable care, it is important that the business not only perform regular inspections but also establish a policy or guidelines for the inspection and a method of record-keeping for evidence of these inspections.

A fitness facility is a customer service business: is incorrect because this is not related to litigation.

A fitness facility is a paid service: is incorrect because this fact is not the reason the relationship is heightened.

A fitness facility is a healthcare business: is incorrect because it is not a healthcare business.

Question 47

When is it appropriate for a trainer to recommend a client seek medical advice after the pre-screening phase?

When the client has well documented medical conditions

When the client can’t afford a long term exercise regiment

When the client has a history of weight management problems

When an undisclose medical condition is discovered

After the initial client consultation

Answer 47

When an undisclose medical condition is discovered: is correct because this is an important aspect of risk aversion.

Note: possible conditions like hypertension, cardiovascular disease and joint limitations can be discovered in screeing.

Note: however, the personal trainer must refer to a medical professional for a diagnosis to be made.

When the client has well documented medical conditions: is incorrect because a medical professional has already diagnosed these conditions.

When the client has a history of weight management problems: is incorrect because these can occur without any specific health conditions that would require a medical professional.

When the client can’t afford a long term exercise regiment: is incorrect because this obstacle does not require a medical professional.

After the initial client consultation: is incorrect because this consultation may not reveal a possible medical condition.

Question 48

To design the most effective marketing plan, what must the fitness professional completely understand?

Training services provided

Target customer

Sales conversion rate

Most cost-effective promotions

Price of training services

Answer 48

Target customer: is correct because the customer’s needs, wants, demographic and socioeconomic status must be identified.

Note: the product, price, place and promotions can then be tailored to fit the customer.

Price of training services: is incorrect because this is dependant on the customer.

Most cost-effective promotions: is incorrect because this is dictated by the target customer.

Sales conversion rate: is incorrect because this is a measure of effectiveness, which comes after marketing has occurred.

Question 49

Which of the following subjective findings during an initial consultation may lead a personal trainer to add a postural evaluation to the comprehensive fitness assessment?

Family history of heart attacks

Hobbies that include daily walking with friends

Occupation that is stressful

Personal history of hypertension

Occupation that includes extended periods of sitting

Answer 49

Occupation that includes extended periods of sitting: is correct as occupations that include repetitive movements or static positions are red flags for posible postural imbalances.

Note: extended periods of sitting can induce tight hip flexors, rounding of the shoulders and a forward-tilted head.

Note: a postural evaluation can identify these issues that can then be addressed within the training program.

Personal history of hypertension: is incorrect as this is not involved with chronic static positioning or repetitive movements associated with postural imbalances.

Family history of heart attacks: is incorrect because static positioning or repetitive movements is not involved with this risk factor.

Occupation that is stressful: is incorrect as this is not involved with chronic static positioning or repetitive movements associated with postural imbalances.

Hobbies that include daily walking with friends: is incorrect because although walking is a repetitive movement, the fact that it is a hobby does not indicate these movements are constantly repetitive.

Question 50

Which of the following is not a location to measure pulse through palpation?

Carotoid artery

Radial artery

Brachial artery

None of these

Femoral artery

Answer 50

Femoral artery: is correct because this artery would not allow palpation as it is not on the surface.

Note: palpation can be used to measure heart rate, but it is advised to practice with a heart rate monitor to ensure accuracy.

Note: of the three sites, the radial and brachial arteries are the locations of choice as the cartoid artery may sometimes supply false readings.

Radial artery: is incorrect because this is a recommended palpation site.

Brachial artery: is incorrect because this is a recommended palpation site.

Cartoid artery: is incorrect because this is a possible palpation site to determine heart rate.

None of these: is incorrect because the femoral artery cannot be palpated to determine heart rate.