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Question 1

Which respiratory muscle is constantly involved with breathing at any exercise instensity, including rest?

Scaline

Diaphram

Internal intercostals

External intercostals

Rectus abdominus

Answer 1

Diaphram:

is correct because this is the only respiratory muscle to cause inspiration during quiet, restful breathing. Exhalation is passive movement at rest.

The other respiratory muscles are only activated when breathing frequency and volume must increase with exercise and stress.

Internal intercostals: this muscle aids in breathing only during increased stress.

Rectus abdominus: this muscle is only activated when ventilatory requirements are increased.

External intercostals: this muscle is not activated at rest.

Scaline: this is not a respiratory muscle.

Chapter 5

Question 2

Which physiological measure will increase only through lower submaximal exercise intensities and possible decrease at maximal exertion?

Stroke volume

Arterial-ventricular oxygen difference

Heart rate

Cardiac output

Blood pressure

Answer 2

Stroke volume:

is correct because at maximal exercise a decrease may occur because the heart is beating too fast to allow ventricular filling.

Stroke volume increases curvilinearly with intensity until reaching near-maximal levels approximately at 40% to 50% of maximum aerobic capacity, increasing only slightly thereafter.

Arterial-ventricular oxygen difference: though it may level off at a given exercise intensity, it will not decrease.

The other options: increase linearly with exercise intensity.

Chapter 5

Question 3

Walking knee lifts, the inchworm and the lunge walk are all classifiend as which type of warm-up activity?

Free weight exercises

Dynamic stretches

Static stretches

Ballistic stretches

PNF stretches

Answer 3

Dynamic stretches:

is correct because these involve stretches that incorporates movement along with muscle tension development.

In addition to walking knee lifts, the inchworm and the lunge walk, arms swings, lunge with twist, the forward lunge with elbow to instep, the heel-to-toe walk and walk over and under are also classified as dynamic stretches.

Ballistic stretches: the stretches involve a bouncing movement.

The other 3 options are involve either: no movement, passive movement or isn’t a warm up activity.

Chapter 16

Question 4

Which of the following accounts for similar resting cardiac outputs in trained and untrained individuals despite the fact that those who are trained have a lower resting heart rate?

Larger stroke volume in trained individuals

Higher blood volume in trained individuals

Neural factors in untrained individuals

Lower blood pressure in trained individuals

Decreased resistance to blood flow in trained individuals

Answer 4

Lager stroke volume in trained individuals:

is correct. Cardiac output (Q) is the product of heart rate and stroke volume.

A certain resting cardiac output is needed to maintain the health and productivity of the various tissues of the body.

When individuals perform endurance training, one adaptation is increased contractility of the heart muscles, thus increasing stroke volume.

As a result, a trained individual’s resting heart rate will be lower to maintain resting cardiac output.

None of the other answer options have any effect on cardiac output.

Chapter 5

Question 5

Which of the following molecules directly provide the energy needed to form myosin cross-bridges?

Fat

Creatine phosphate

Glucose

Adenosine triphosphate

Protein

Answer 5

Adenosine triphosphate: is correct.

During muscle contraction, myosin cross-bridges are formed.

At those cross-bridges a phosphate is separated from ATP, the direct energy supplier of muscle contraction, releasing energy that is used for actin and myosin to pull across one another.

None of the other answer options are involved directly with myosin cross-bridges.

Chapter 5

Question 6

Which of the following systems of the human body is not involved in movement?

Skeletal system

Cardiovascular system

None of these

Muscular system

Nervous system

Answer 6

Cardiovascular system:

is correct as it is not an aspect of movement. Human movement is made possible through the integration of the nervous, muscular and skeletal sytems.

These systems must work together as one linked system to produce motion.

Nervous system: initiates movement by sending electrochemical signals to the muscle to contract.

Muscular system: generates movement, the muscles contract, pulling on bones to move them.

Skeletal system: muscular system pulls on bones to move them.

Chapter 5

Question 7

The tibialis anterior (diagram below) is considered which type of muscle during a calf press exercise?

Antagonist

Agonist

Passive

Synergist

Non-specific

Answer 7

Antagonist:

is correct because this muscle is not concentrically involved in a movement.

Antagonists relax to permit the primary movement and contract to act as a brake at the completion of the movement.

Another example would be the hamstrings in a leg [knee] extension exercise.

Non-specific: is involve with the movement.

Passive, synergist and agonis: aren’t involved as th prime mover and don’t aid in the movement.

Chapter 3

Question 8

Which of the following nutrients should not be consumed during exercise?

Fats

Water

Protein

Carbohydrates

Potassium

Answer 8

Fats:

is correct because fats are not digested or absorbed well during exercise, and ther consumption can even decrease performance.

Carbohydrate and protein that is consumed during exercise can provide energy and prevent protein degradaton of the musculature.

Water and minerals [especially sodium and potassium] consumption will maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.

The other answer options: are essential for preventing dehydration, are easily digested for energy and aid in maintaining fluid balance.

Chapter 6

Question 9

When should an athlete consume between 30 and 60 grams of carbohydrates?

The day before a competition or activity

After a competition or activity

During a competition or activity

None of these

Before a competition or activity

Answer 9

During a competition or activity:

is correct because this is enough to prevent or physical or mental fatigue.

This can also improve time fatigue during endurance activities.

The other goal of the nutrition during a competition or activity is to avoid dehydration, which is why carbohydrate is often in solution.

Before a competition or activity is incorrect because carbohydrate intake during this time should be 200-300 grams.

After a competition or activity is incorrect because carb intake during this period should be 50-100 grams.

The day before a competition or activity is incorrect because carbohydrate intake during this time should be 200-300 grams.

Chapter 6

Question 10

What does the A stand for in the SMART acronym?

Actual

Advantageous

Aerobic

Attainable

Answer 10

Attainable:

is correct because the individual must feel that the goal is within reach with dedication and hard work.

Goals that are SMART are more useful for the PT and client to get results.

Actual: all goals are actual

Aerobic: not all goal include aerobic training

Advantageous: all goals should be, whether they are SMART or not.

Chapter 7

Question 11

Which energy source is predominantly used during high intensity exercise?

ATP-PC

Aerobic

Glucose

Glycolsis

All of these

Answer 11

ATP-PC: (Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and Phosphocreatine (PC). Diagram below.

is correct as it is the energy system most predominantly used during high intensity exercise because it is the simplest and fastest.

It involves creating a new ATP molecule from a phosphocreatine molecule.

This system occurs without the presence of oxygen; therefore, along with glycolysis, it is anaerobic.

Glucose: an energy substrate [a chemical that can be used in reactions to produce energy] but isn’t a part of body’s fastest energy system.

Glycolysis: involves more chemical reaction the ATP-PC and is not predominantly used in high intensity exercise.

Aerobic: system involves many steps, is the slowest and is predominantly used for lower intensity exercise.

Chapter 5

Question 12

Which of the following marketing strategies has the lowest return on investment?

Advertising

Community involvement

Lead boxes left at various businesses

Direct mail

Strategic alliances

Answer 12

Advertising:

is correct because this is a shotgun approach to marketing that is designed to promote brand recognition in the marketplace.

This is a high-cost approach that typically has the lowest return on investment.

Marketing involves trying to identify potential clients, or leads and sales involves converting these leads into current clients.

Direct mail: not a shotgun approach, more like a sniper attack.

Lead boxes: this is a low cost approach

Strategic alliances: this has no cost

Community involvement: has little or no cost.

Chapter 20

Question 13

What does the acronym K.S.A stand for?

Knowledge, Science, Aerobics

Knowledge, Skills, Assessments

Knowledge, Skills, Abilities

Kinesiology, Science, Anatomy

Knowledge, Science, Abilities

Answer 13

Knowledge, Skills, Abilities:

is correct because these are essential to becoming a professional PT.

ACSM has well over 100 KSAs with which a trainer should be familiar.

Not only will this help keep the trainer in good standing with the ACSM, it will help the trainer become an authority in the fitness world.

Chapter 1

Question 14

What does the S stand for in SMART?

Simple

Simulated

Sanctioned

Specific

Strutured

Answer 14

Specific:

is correct because this targets a defined behavior and provides a detailed plan.

This clarifies a goal and makes it specific to the client.

For example, if a client said they wanted to lose weight, you would pinpoint the exact amount they want to lose.

Structured: doesn’t include a defined behavior

Simulated: not an effective method of creating a goal

Sactioned: will not lead to results

Simple: doesn’t always result in an appropriate goal

Chapter 7

Question 15

Which of the following allows a PT to distinguish his/her product?

Becoming an exert in training the elderly population

Using social media to promote training services

Utilizing direct mailing advertisements

Offering a low price for training services

Offering boot camps and group training

Answer 15

Becoming an expert in training the elderly population:

is correct because this niche or specialty will distiguish oneself.

One of the four Ps of marketing, the product is the specific product or service offered to customers.

Developing a niche or specialty, such as becoming an expert in training a certain population, is one method for developing a unique product.

Offering a low price for training services: focuses on the price, not the product

Offering boot camps and group training: common method of training and not distinguishable

Utilizing direct mailing advertisements: is a form of promotion and not a product

Using social media to promote training services: is a form of promotion and not a product

Chapter 20

Question 16

A PT who wants to perform within their scope of practice would not perform which of the following actions?

Help a client set, modify and adhere to goals

Develop exercise regimes and programs

Educate clients about exercises that contraindicated

Perform screens on clients to determine their readiness to exercise

Diagnos cardiovascular disease risk

Answer 16

Diagnos cardiovascular disease risk:

is correct because diagnosing any health ailment or disease is outside the scope of a PT.

Understanding scope of practice is essential to minimize risk and avoid litigation for a PT.

Despite many activities that are outside the scope of practice, the PT has a wide range of potential responsibilities.

All of the other answer options fall within a PT’s scope of practice.

Chapter 1

Question 17

Which of these skills can help a client with time management?

Delegation

Using a time log

Learning to say no

All of these

Prioritization

Answer 17

All of these:

is correct because these are all strategies that can aid with time management.

Time management is crucial in everyone’s life.

A client may have poor time management skills; as a trainer, you can offer tips on how to improve these skills, effectively boosting their rate of success.

Chapter 8

Question 18

Which of these forms serve to protect a trainer from litigation?

Incident report

All of these

Assumption of Risk

Informed consent

Release or waiver of liability

Answer 18

All of these:

is correct because these will all remove the risk of a client filing a claim against a PT.

States are now upholding these forms in court on a regular basis.

They all serve to protect a trainer from litigation brought on by a client.

A PT should have at least one of these forms signed by every client.

Chapter 21

Question 19

To prevent claims of sexual harassment, what actions should a PT consistently perform?

Date a client

Manually move clients with the hands

None of these

Give a client a hug before and after training session

Perform body composition measurements behind closed doors

Answer 19

None of these:

is correct because all of these actions listed may lead to a claim of sexual harassment.

Sexual harassment claims represent a third area of potential liability for PTs.

Because the PTing relationship can seem “intimate”, it lends itself to creating more opportunity for abusive conduct on the part of the PT or misinterpretation of actions on the part of the client.

The other options: could be considered inappropriate touching, crosses the boundary between personal and professional relationships, is unwanted physical contact or shouldn’t be performed without the presence of witnesses.

Question 20

Which of the following is not one of the 4 Ps of marketing?

Place

Price

Phylosophy

Product

Promotion

Answer 20

Phylosophy:

is correct because the 4 Ps of marketing include:

Product, price, place and promotion.

The 4 Ps of marketing is part of the marketing mix that a PT can control to produce a response from a target market.

Chapter 20

Question 21

During which stage of change is motivation the most important aspect?

Action

Maintenance

Preparation

Pre-contemplation

Contemplation

Answer 21

Contemplation:

is correct because taking a potential client through the pros and cons of exercising and dealing with the cons through positive reinforcement and motivation is the key to reaching the next stage.

To guide clients from contemplation, during which the thought of becoming more active is being considerd but no planning has taken place, motivation is of the upmost importance.

Pre-contemplation: this stage is dealing with learning the pros and cons of exercising

Action: less motivation is required to continue a behavior is less than that required to begin a new behavior

Maintenance: in this stage the client no longer needs motivation to continue

Preparation: here, the client is motivated enough to plan to exercise.

Chapter 7

Question 22

What should a trainer do if a client sustains a serious joint injury?

Treat the injury

Diagnose the injury

Stop the workout and continue in a few days

Train a different area of the body

Urge client to see a doctor

Answer 22

Urge client to see a doctor:

is correct because this type of injury is outside the scope of practice of a PT.

A trainer should never try to diagnose or treat an injury. Immediately stop the client’s training and have them consult their doctor before continuing.

Diagnose the injury: is outside the scope of practice

Treat the injury: to be done by a trained medical pro

Stop the workout and continue in a few days: injury should be treated by a doctor who will then inform the client when to continue training

Train a different area of the body: injury should be referred to medical pro, before training continues

Chapter 21

Question 23

What must occur before progressing the exercise intensity of a client?

A minimum of 6 months of exercise

Document the client’s sets and reps

Discuss with a physician

Discuss with PTing mgr

Discuss the progress with the client

Answer 23

Discuss the progress with the client:

is correct because this will reveal the client’s feelings of readiness to increase intensity and further evaluate whether the timing is appropriate for such a change.

A PT should also use documentation to determine when a possible progression was suitable after it has been made.

These are measures of reducing the risk surrounding exercise progressions.

The other answer options: not necessary to consult doctor, is necessary and wise to consult client, waiting 6 month doesn’t apply because progression is an individualized process

Chapter 21

Question 24

What is the purpose of measuring resting blood pressure during a comprehensive fitness assessment?

To screen for hypertension or hypotension

To diagnose cardiorespiratory disease

To aid in program design

To measure cardiorespiratory fitness

To diagnos hypertension

Answer 24

To screen for hypertension or hypotension:

is correct because this can determine if further evaluation is warranted in order to keep the client safe and is a method of risk management for the PT.

Many aspects of a comprehensive fitness assessment are designed to determine risk factors of an individual seeking to begin an exercise program.

Resting blood pressure is one such screen.

The other answer options: don’t determine shape the program design, PT should never diagnose illness or disease.

Question 25

Which of the following is not a purpose of performing a physical fitness assessment?

To determine the effect of a training program

To aid in goal setting

To share the information with others

Te determine the health risk of exercising

To represent a potential for change

Answer 25

To share the information with others:

is correct because this should not occur without the permission of the client and is not a reason to perform an assessment.

Physical fitness assessments are utilized to determine the current abilities of the client [including their risk], determine the guidelines for the training program and to evaluate the training program.

Which assessments are used should be based on the client’s needs and abilities.

The other answer options fall into the category: purpose of performing physical fitness assessments

Chapter 12