426 - 450 Flashcards
A 42-year old female client has a BMI of 24.5, has no family history of cardiovascular, pulmonary or metabolic disease and walks for an hour four times per week, but sometimes experiences shortness of breath when walking up moderate hills. What category of risk should this client be placed in?
High risk
No risk
Low risk
Moderate
High risk:
is correct because this client is experiencing a sign or symptom of cardiovascular, pulmonary or metabolic disease [shortness of breath with mild exertion].
This client should be referred to a medical professional and obtain a medical clearance before exercise participation with a PT begins.
Risk does not equal diagnosis.
The other answer options are incorrect because this client exhibits high risk symptoms.
Chapter 11
Which stage of readiness to change is characterized by the change being planned within the next 30 days?
Action
Maintenance
Preparation
Pre-contemplation
Contemplation
Preparation:
is correct because this is the stage where a client is getting closer to putting the change into action.
The individual has decided that it is worth making this change.
At this phase, they are still mentally or physically preparing for the upcoming change.
Contemplation: at this stage a decision hasn’t been made and there isn’t a timeline to change
Maintenance: at this stage a change has been made over 6 months.
Action: at this stage a change is currently occurring
Pre-contemplation: at this stage the client is not even aware that a change needs to be made.
Chapter 7
Which of the following is not where the PT should focus the client’s attention during the consultation and assessment period?
The education level of the PT
The level of safety provided by the PT
The cost of the PT’s services
The PT’s customer-focus service
The PT’s enthusiasm for the client’s health
The cost of the PT’s services:
is correct because this is an extraneous factor and is not client-centered.
During the initial consultation period, the PT must always keep in mind that the client has sought out his expertise, passion, energy and client-centered focus.
Extraneous factors such as schedule, location and price can be addressed but shouldn’t be emphasized during the early stages of the client-trainer relationship.
The education level of the PT: this is an attribute the client has sought out.
The other answer options are also incorrect because: they are exactly where the focus should be and they are client-centered.
Chapter 10
Which of the following cardiorespiratory fitness assessments is the least appropriate for a client with a BMI of 33.2?
Astand-Rhyming test
12 minute run
YMCA submaximal cycle test
None of these
Queen’s college step test
12 minute run:
is correct because this may be unsafe for an obese or previously sedentary individual.
The exertion required during this test may cause cardiopulmonary duress or musculoskeletal injury.
Submaximal assessment would be more appropriate for this individual.
Astand-Rhyming test and None of these: these are not appropriate for an obese individual.
Queen’s college step test: this is a submaximal test.
YMCA submaximal cycle test: this test has a lower cardiopulmonary requirement.
Chapter 12
When more calories are consumed than expended, what is the body’s response?
Strength gain
Strength loss
Weight gain
Weight loss
Weight maintenance
Weight gain:
is correct because this indicates a positive caloric balance.
There is a simple relationship between weight and caloric intake; consuming more calories that needed after factoring in resting metabolic rate and exercise translates to weight gain.
While calories consumed does play into strength gain, training is the primary mechanism for improving one’s strength.
Strength gain or loss: are not dependant upon caloric intake.
Weight loss and maintenance: these require caloric balance.
Chapter 6
Which of the following risk factors is most likely to become acutely aggravated by resistance training?
Obesity
Hypertension
Sedentary lifestyle
Dyslipidemia
Glucose intolerance
Hypertension:
is correct because blood pressure can rise significantly with resistance training.
This is especially true wih heavy loads and the use of the valslva maneuver.
As a result, special consideration should be given to clients with hypertension when screening for exercise testing or training.
The other option answers are incorrect because they’re not affected by acute resistance training and or not aggravated by resistance training.
Chapter 11
During an initial client contact it is discovered that their schedule conflicts with your available times. What is the next appropriate course of action?
Ask the client to rearrange their schedule
Severe contact with the potential customer
Move a current client to another time slot
Refer to another appropriate health and fitness professional
Any of these
Refer to another appropriate health and fitness professional:
is correct because this is a client-centered and professional approach.
While this may lead to not obtaining this particular client it can foster a relationship with the client as well as to the referred professional that may lead to other business in the future.
A client-centered approach is always best to build rapport.
What is the most important purpose of measuring body composition?
The strong correlation between obesity and chance of success
The strong correlation between obesity and behavior change
The strong correlation between obesity and other fitness measurements
The strong correlation between obesity and the risk of many chronic diseases
The strong correlation between obesity and eating diorders
The strong correlation between obesity and the risk of many chronic diseases:
is correct because assessing risk is the main purpose of many of the assessments used with a new client.
The diseases that are associated with obesity are coronary artery disease, diabetes, hypertension, certain cancers and hyperlipidemia.
Another purpose of measuring body composition is to establish goals.
Reasons other options are incorrect, they’re either: non existent, inaccurate statements, not the purpose of body measurements or PTs do not diagnos eating disorders.
Chapter 12
The following are purposes of screening except which statement?
Identification of clients with medical contrindications to exercise
Identification of clients at increased risk of disease
Identification of PT best suited to work with client
Identification of clients with special needs
Indentification of physical abilities of a client
Indentification of physical abilities of a client:
is correct because this is a purpose of the assessment, not the screen.
The overall purpose of screeing is to optimize client safety during exercise participation.
The PT is looking for risk factors and/or symptoms of cardiovascular, pulmonary and metabolic diseases and conditions that may be aggravated by exercise.
All of the other answer options are incorrect because they the purpose of screening.
Chapter 11
Which of the following is an impediment of progress or achieving goals?
An obstacle
Support
A challenge
A trigger
An excuse
An obstacle:
is correct because these are reasons not to exercise.
Obstacles are a necessary part of the change process as they reveal our humanity and demand our perseverance.
It’s important to recognize these obstacles, overcome them and learn from them.
Support: aids in progress of achieving goals
An excuse: not a true barrier of achieving goals
A trigger: may not stop one from of achieving goals
A challenge: may not stop one from of achieving goals
Chapter 8
What is used when measuring blood pressure and what sounds are heard.
Thermometer and Korotkoff sounds
Sphygocalculator and Korotkoff sounds
Sphygmomanometer and Korotkoff sounds
Sphygmomanometer and Karavonen sounds
Thermometer and Karavonen sounds
Sphygmomanometer:** is used when measuring BP and **Korotkoff sounds are heard.
BP is measured with a sphygmomanometer and stethoscope to listen for Korotkoff sounds.
(Korotkoff sounds are the sounds that medical personnel listen for when they are taking blood pressure using a non-invasive procedure.)
BP is pressure of the calculating blood against the walls of the blood vessels after being ejected by the heart.
Readings that are not normal can indicate blood vessel blood vessel blockages and may lead to heart attacks or strokes.
Sphygmomanometer and Karavonen sounds: Karavonen refers a formula for calculating THRs.
Thermometer and Korotkoff sounds: Thermometer measures temperature, not BP.
Thermometer and Karavonen sounds: Thermometer measures temperatureand Karavonen sounds don’t exist.
Sphygocalculator and Korotkoff sounds: a sphygocalculator doesn’t exist.
Chapter 12
For the assessment of a previously sedentary client, which of the following assessments is the least appropriate ot conduct?
1.5 mile run
Resting heart rate
Waist-to-hip ratio
submaximal cycle ergometer test
Sit-and-reach
1.5 mile run:
is correct because this may be an over-exertion for the client.
When choosing which assessments to perform a PT must consider a client’s needs, goals and ability.
Other considerations include the PT’s training and experience as well as the setting and available equipment.
All other responses are appropriate assessments for the client in this example.
Which of the following are the most important to be emulated within a test in order for the test to be considered valid?
I = Environment II = Energy requirements
III = Movements IV = Time of Day
II and IV only
I and III only
II and III only
I and II only
I and IV only
II and III only:
is correct because metabolic energy systems and biomechanical motor pattern specificity are the most important attributes that make a test valid.
Validity is the degree to which a test measures what is pertinent to the sport and athlete.
I = Environment II = Energy requirements
III = Movements IV = Time of Day
All other combinations are not the most valid aspects of test selection.
Chapter 12
Which of the following is not a method that a PT can use to increase the intensity of a balance exercise?
Narrowing the base of support
Changing the client’s footwear
Having the client close his eyes
Displacing the center of mass outside th base of support
Keeping the center of mass withing the base of support
Keeping the center of mass within the base of support:
is correct because this makes maintaining balance easier.
Balance training can be used to improve coordination between th peripheral and central nervous system and the associated motor pathways.
The intensity of the balance exercise can be increased by narrowing the base of support, displacing the center of mass or manipulating peripheral cues of the visual, vestibular or proprioceptive pathways.
Having the client close his eyes: takes away visual cues, increasing the difficulty of maintaining balance.
Narrowing the base of support: increases balance difficulty
Displacing the center of mass outside th base of support: maintaining balance becomes more challenging.
Changing the client’s footwear: changes the proprioceptive cues that a client is accustomed to.
Chapter 18
Which of the following resistance training exercises would be the most effective for an obese client?
Crunch
Squats
Triceps extension
Biceps curl
Shoulder press
Squats:
is correct because this exercise utilizes multiple joints and multiple large muscle groups, which is recommended for obese clients.
This type of exercise will utilize the most energy in order to be performed and have the greatest effect on daily metabolism.
Other reponses either do not use multiple large muscle groups or are single joint exercises.
Chapter 19
In a classic periodization model what training adaptation should occur prior to increasing force production capabilities?
Power
Flixibility
Hypertrophy
Aerobic capacity
Muscular endurance
Hypertrophy:
is correct because the increased muscle circumference area will include more actin-myosin interactions that can produce enhanced tensile strength.
In many periodization models, hypertrophy training is performed prior to maximum strenght training.
Force production is not dependant upon “power” or “muscle endurance”.
Force production doesn’t follow the adaptations of aerobic “capacity” and/or “flexibility”.
Chapter 14
Which of the following is an appropriate rest period for a client performing a few repetitions of a heavy load during the bench press exercise?
90 seconds
60 seconds
None of these
8 minutes
3 minutes
3 minutes:
is correct because this allows the energy systems needed to perform the set to recover and the neural system to return to a rested state.
For a structural exercise that is being performed with maximal strength protocol [low volume, high intensity] an extended rest period of a minimum of 2 to 3 minutes would be recommended.
If the exercise was a single joint movement, 1 to 2 minutes may suffice.
The other responses are either too long or too short.
Chapter 14
Which of the following exercises would be the most appropriate to increase a client’s ability to perform a movement in a short amount of time?
Box jumps
Single leg lift and chop
Hip flexor stretch
60% VO2 max joggin
Push-ups
Box jump:
is correct because the ability to perform a movement in a short amount of time is defined a speed.
Exercise to improve speed include plyometric drills, sprints and high velocity resistance training [such as Olympic lifts].
Push-ups: rarely involves movement speed needed to improve overall speed.
Hip flexor stretch: this is a flexibility exercise.
Single leg lift: this is a core strengthenng exercise
60% VO2 max jogging: this is a cardiorespiratory fitness prescription.
Chapter 13
Which of the following tests are the most sport-specific to women’s field hockey?
I T-Test II 40-yard [37-m] sprint
III 1RM back squat IV 1RM bench press
II and IV only
I and III only
II and III only
I and II only
III and IV only
I and II:
is correct because these match the abilities of the sport.
I Test validity is determined by matching the test with the abilities needed to excel at the sport.
Slow speed strength is not a major requirement of field hockey, but speed and agility are.
I = T-Test II = 40-yard [37-m] sprint
III = 1RM back squat IV = 1RM bench press
Chapter 12
A client wants to contract their muscles fully throughout their ROM, which resistance training modality should they use?
Dynamic contant external resistance
Static velocity devices
None of these
Static resistance devices
Variable resistance devices
Variable resistance devices:
is correct because these alter the resistance throughout the ROM in order to match the increases and decreases in strength.
Variable resistance equipment operates through a lever arm, cam, or pulley arrangement.
Proponents of variable resistance devices claim that these result in maximal strength gains.
Dynamic contant external resistance: resistance will change throughout the ROM
Static resistance devices: this involves no ROM
Static velocity devices: muscular force can change throughout the ROM
None of these: variable devices will produce constant muscle force throughout the ROM
Chapter 14
Who would benefit the most from using the rate of perceived exertion [RPE] to assign cardiorespiratory exercise intensity?
An individual taking arthritis medication
All of these
Athletes
Novice exercisers
Older adults
Older adults:
is correct because of their wide range of fitness levels.
For example, for some older adults, moderate-intensity activity may be a slow walk, whereas for others it may be a brisk walk or jog.
Other methods of assigning intensity are through heart rate, METS or number of steps per minute.
Novice exercisers: they may have enough experience to accurately assess their perceived exercise.
An individual taking arthritis medication: this medication should have no effect on heart rate.
Athletes: this population may have a lowered RPE compared to others.
All of these: novice exercisers, individuals taking arthritis medications and athletes would not benefit more from using RPE.
Chapter 15
Which of the following does not measure force output at a high velocity?
1RM power clean
Standing long jump
Vertical jump
1RM bench press
Stair sprint test
1RM bench press:
is correct because the movement velocity or 1RM strength test is too low.
Tests of max muscular power [high speed strength] are very short duration, performed at maximal movement speeds and produce very high outputs.
Examples of these tests are vertical or broad jumps.
Vertical jump: a test of max muscular power
Stair sprint test: a test of high velocity of force output
Standing long jump: this is a measure of power
1RM power clean: ia a measure of speed-strength
Chapter 12
When programming anaerobic capacity intervals at 85% of maximum heart rate or higher, which of the following interval lengths would be the most appropriate?
5 seconds
30 seconds
2 minutes
15 seconds
4 minutes
30 seconds:
is correct because this fits within the duration that the body is able to repeatedly maintain at this intensity.
When performing anaerobic capacity intervals, the work intensity is above the lactate threshold, and the glycolytic system is the dominant energy system.
The absolute highest duration that the body can maintain at this intensity is approximately 60 seconds.
However, to be able to repeat these intervals, duration should range between 20 and 45 seconds.
5 seconds: this fits in an interval duration to train the ATP-PC system.
2 minutes: this interval length is more fitting to aerobic intervals.
4 minutes: the prescribed exercise intensity could be maintain for this interval duration.
15 seconds: this interval is too short to maximize training at this intensity.
Chapter 18
When measuring BMI and % body fat on a team of female basketball players where should the results fall below to support optimum performance?
BMI > 20 and % body fat > 15
BMI < 26 and % body fat < 22.4
BMI < 28 and % body fat < 23.1
BMI > 35 and % body fat > 28
BMI < 24.5 and % body fat < 20.7
BMI < 28 and % body fat < 23.1:
is correct because these numbers indicate a body composition that supports the speed, power, strength and endurance required by female athletes.
Athletes typically require body compitions with less fat mass than the general population.
It is important to include % body fat as BMI does not difference fat mass from fat free mass.
Other options are: below or above or unhealthy for female athletes.
At the sticking point of a dumbbell lateral raise, the fifteen pound weights are two feet away from the mid-line of the body. How much torque must be generated by the shoulder muscles to complete the movement?
Greater than 60 lb*ft
Greater than 7.5 lb*ft
Less than 30 lb*ft
Greater than 30 lb*ft
Greater than 15 lb*ft
_Greater than 30 lb*ft:_ is correct.
Torque = Force x Distance
_In this case: 15 lb x 2 ft = 30lb*ft._
In this example the external force is the dumbbell, which is fifteen pounds, and the momentum arm is the perpendicular distance from the center of mass to the dumbbell, which is two feet.
Greater than 15 lb*ft: does not take into account the distance of the dumbbell away from the midline of the body to determine torque [=F x D].
Greater than 7.5 lb*ft: this answer divided force by distance to determine torque instead of multiplying the two variables.
Less than 30 lb*ft: the torque needed to hold the dumbbells in position is 30 lb*ft [T = F x D], therefore anymore than the torque needed to hold the dumbbells will move them through the sticking point.
Greater than 60 lb*ft: if torque is force multiplied by distance, this number is much greater than what is needed.
Chapter 4
