276 - 300

Question 1

A male client is 40 years of age, has not smoked in the last 10 years, has a BMI of 26.2, has BP of 125/87 mm Hg and no known personal or famliy history of cardiovascular disease. Which category of risk classification does he belong in?

High risk

No risk

Moderate risk

None of these

Low risk

Answer 1

Low risk:

is correct because this client has no known CV, pulmonary or metabolic disease, nor any signs or symptoms to suggest these diseases, and has no CVD risk factors.

Risk classification is based upon whether an individual has known CV, pulmonary or metabolic disease signs or symptoms of these diseases or whether an individual has two or more risk factors.

Determining risk is important during the assessment process to ensure client safety.

High risk: is incorrect because this client has no known CVD or sign or symptoms of disease.

Moderate risk: is incorrect because this client has less than two CVD risks.

No risk: is incorrect because this is not a category of risk.

None of these: is incorrect because the client has low risk.

Question 2

Which of the following waist-to-hip ratio would be considered an elevated risk of disease for a male client?

0. 5
1. 79
2. 81
3. 93
4. 96

Answer 2

0.96:

is correct because a ratio greater than 0.8 for women and greater than 0.95 for men is considered a greater risk for a number of diseases in these populations.

The waist-to-hip ratio is one of the most used clinical applications of girth measurement.

It is utilized due to the correlation between chronic disease and fat stored in the midsection.

0. 81: is incorrect because this is too low of a ratio.
1. 93: is incorrect because this ratio lies just below the level considered an elevated risk.
2. 5: is incorrect because this ratio is much lower than the elevated risk level.
3. 79: is incorrect because the elevated risk level is higher than this number.

Question 3

How long should a proper cool-down period last?

5 minutes

20 minutes

1 minute

15 minutes

10 minutes

Answer 3

10 minutes:

is correct because this allows the body to transition from high intensity to a low intensity.

During this time the heart rate, blood pressure and breathing rate will/can return to normal levels.

A cool-down can help prevent post-exercise hypotension and dizziness.

5 minutes and 1 minute: is correct because this is too short to allow the body to gradually recover from intense exercise.

15 and 20 minutes: is incorrect because these are too long and not necessary.

Question 4

All accept which of the following are benefits of a body composition assessment?

Monitor progress

Assist in exercise program design

Identify possible health risks

Diagnose eating disorders

Estimate a healthy body weight

Answer 4

Diagnose eating disorders:

is correct because this disorder cannot be determined by body composition, nor should a personal trainer ever make this diagnosis.

Body composition is used to determine an individual’s fat free mass and fat mass.

The measurement can help a health professional identify health risks, evaluate progress, estimate healthy weight, assist in program design and motivate a client.

Question 5

What body part must touch the mat during the push-up test to count the repetition?

Chin

Nose

Chest

None of these

Forehead

Answer 5

Chin:

is correct because this indicates that the push-up has moved through the entire range of motion.

It is also easy to observe by the tester and unambiguous for both the tester and the client.

The push-up test is a measure of muscular endurance.

Nose: is incorrect because failure at the bottom position may lead to injury.

Forehead: is incorrect because the forehead could touch the mat without the body moving through the full range of motion.

Chest: is incorrect because this range of motion may be difficult and unsafe.

None of these: is incorrect because the chin must touch the mat.

Question 6

At which BMI is a client considered to have a high risk of disease?

Between 18.6 and 21.99

Greater than 40

Between 25 and 29.99

Between 35 and 39.99

Between 30 and 34.99

Answer 6

Between 30 and 34.99:

is correct because science has shown that the risk of premature death and illness is associated with a high [30 and 34.99] BMI score.

Though not a true measure of body composition, BMI can be used to determine whether a client’s weight is appropriate for his height.

Those with very high [35 and 39.99] and extremely high [greater than 40] BMIs are associated with elevated risks.

Between 35 and 39.99 or Greater than 40: are incorrect because these are considered very high to an extremely high risk.

Between 25 and 29.99: is incorrect because this is an increased risk.

Between 18.6 and 21.99: is incorrect because this is considered normal.

Question 7

Which of the following is not a risk factor for Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease?

Family history of heart attacks

High density lipoprotein greater than 60 mg/dL

Systolic blood pressure greater than 140 mm Hg

Current cigarette smoking

Age greater than 60

Answer 7

High density lipoprotein greater than 60 mg/dL:

is correct because this is a negative risk factor, meaning that this decreases the risk of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease.

The risk factors are thresholds to determine the chance of someone having CVD and is not meant to be diagnostic tool.

Only a medical professional should diagnose disease.

Family history of heart attacks, Systolic blood pressure greater than 140 mm Hg, Current cigarette smoking and Age greater than 60: is incorrect because these are risk factors.

Question 8

During the initial consultation which of the following questions would best build rapport with a client?

Is exercising important to you?

What do you enjoy about exercising?

Have you ever exercised before?

How many days per week do you exercise?

Do you enjoy exercising?

Answer 8

What do you enjoy about exercising?:

is correct because this is an open-ended question.

Open-ended questions elicit details and allows the client to express themselves.

This is a client centered approach which aids in building rapport and allows the personal trainer to actively listen and ask follow-up questions.

Do you enjoy exercising?, Have you ever exercised before?, How many days per week do you exercise? and Is exercising important to you?: is incorrect because these are closed-ended questions with short specific answers that don’t elicit details.

Question 9

Which of the following circumferences is most associated with increase risk of disease and illness?

Arm

Hip

Thigh

Waist

None of these

Answer 9

Waist:

is correct because of the correlation between chronic disease and fat stored in the midsection.

Often, the waist to hip ratio is used to determine this risk.

When [waist ÷ hip] ratio is greater than 0.8 in women and greater than 0.95 in men, an elevated risk is observed.

Thigh and hip: are each incorrect because there is no correlation between fat stored in each and chronic disease.

Question 10

When is an initial clearance from a physician required to begin an exercise program?

Never

Always

If possible

When necessay

Whenever possible

Answer 10

When necessary:

is correct because the need for a medical clearance is based upon determining risk through pre-participation screening.

This screening should include a pre-participation questionaire and a health history.

The clearance from the physician also known as a medical clearance, indicates that it is safe for the client to begin exercising, though it may include outlines from the physician.

Always: is incorrect because some clients may have no risks based on pre-participation screening.

Never, if possible and whenever possible: is incorrect because a client may be determined as moderate and high risk, to maintain safety, should see a physician before exercising.

Question 11

Which of the following is not a risk factor for CVD?

Current exercise regime comprised of three days of brisk walking for 30 minutes?

Smokin for longer than 6 months

Obesity

Hypertension

Family history of CVD

Answer 11

Current exercise regime comprised of three days of brisk walking for 30 minutes?:

is incorrect because physical activity is not a risk factor.

Risk factors for CVD should not be seen as a diagnosis or all-inclusive; rather, they should be considered collectively when determining whether further medical clearance for exercise is necessary.

The risk factors include age, family history of CVD, sedentary lifestyle, obesity, hypertension, dyslipidemia and diabetes.

Smokin for longer than 6 months, Hypertension, Obesity and Family history of CVD: is incorrect because these are all documented risk factors of CVD.

Question 12

Tony, a 56-year-old male, has a bp of 165/101 mm Hg, which classification of resting bp is he within?

Normal

Stage 2 hypertension

Stage 1 hypertension

Prehypertension

Hypotension

Answer 12

Stage 2 hypertension:

is correct because this bp is extremely high.

If a client is measured with this resting bp, it is imperative to refer them to a physician for further evaluation.

Only after three similar measurements by a medical professional can a diagnosis be made.

Prehypertension: is incorrect because this measurement is only slightly above normal.

Normal: is incorrect because this measurement would be less than 120/80 mm HG.

Hypotension: is incorrect because this measurement is sugnificantly lower.

Stage 1 hypertension: is incorrect because this measurement is classified as 104-149/90-99 mm Hg.

Question 13

Which of the following gives a client guidance with the desired speed of a repetition?

Load

Tempo

Volume

Number of reps

Rest interval

Answer 13

Tempo:

is correct because this refers to the speed of a repetition.

Many variables can be manipulated to change the adaptations that may occur as a result of training.

The speed of the rep or tempo, can be altered to result in hypertrophy [by increasing the time under tension] or power [increasing the velocity through faster tempos].

Rest interval: is incorrect because this refers to time between sets.

Load: is incorrect because this refers to the intensity of a set or rep.

Number of reps: is incorrect because this refers to this is the volume of a set.

Volume: is incorrect because this doesn’t include speed of reps.

Question 14

Which of the following should be adminstered first in a sequence of tests for a javelin thrower?

Height

1.5 mile run

One rep max squat

300 yard shuttle

Vertical jump

Answer 14

Height:

is correct because this is a non-fatiguing test.

The testing sequence that provides the most reliable results due to the demands of the tests is: non-fatiguing, agility, max strength or power, speed, muscular endurance, anaerobic energy system and aerobic energy system.

Height is an aspect of body composition measurement.

300 yard shuttle: is incorrect because this is a fatiguing test and should be performed much later in the testing sequence.

Vertical jump: is incorrect because this is a max power test that is performed after agility and non-fatiguing tests.

One rep max squat: is incorrect because this is a max strength test that is performed later in the testing sequence.

1.5 mile run: is incorrect because this aerobic endurance test should be performed last.

Question 15

Which of the following exercises involves extending the torso at the hips then returning back to the standing position?

Forward lunge

Biceps curl

Calf raise

Deadlift

Bench press

Answer 15

Deadlift:

is correct because the deadlift is completed by standing straight up, this extending the torso.

The deadlift exercise involves a hinge at the hips to bring the torso down towards the floor.

It is a posterior chain [hamstrings and glutes] exercise to build strength and size.

Bench press and biceps curl: is incorrect because the torso is stable during these movements.

Front lunge: is incorrect because the movement primarily comes from the knees, not the hips.

Calf raise: is incorrect because the movement is generated at the ankle.

Question 16

During plyometric training, which of the following is minimized in order to increase the effectiveness of the stretch shortening cycle?

Load

Exercise intensity

Ground contact time

Jump height

Stride length

Answer 16

Ground contact time:

is correct because a shorter ground contact time or amoritization phase will ensure that the neural and mechanical response will be maximized.

Plyometric involve the stretch shortening cycle, which is broken down into 3 phases:

The eccentric or stretch phase, the amortization or transition phase and the concentric or contraction phase.

Jump height: is incorrect because increasing this factor is desired.

Exercise intensity: is incorrect because increasing this factor [not decreasing] is desired.

Stride length and load: are incorrect because these factors are not involved in plyometric training.

Question 17

Which of the following exercises is the least appropriate to follow a warm-up?

Box agility drill

Multi-planar lunge

Seated dumbbell overhead press

Power step-up

Barbell jerk

Answer 17

Seated dumbbell overhead press:

is correct because it is a slower exercise that has lower neurological challenge.

Consideration should be given to implementing high velocity movements before slower exercises, multi-joint exercises before single joint movements and higher neurological challenge exercises.

Power step-up: is incorrect because it has a high velocity component.

Multi-planar lunge: is incorrect because this exercise has a high neurological demand.

Barbell jerk: is incorrect because this an explosive exercise.

Box agility drill: is incorrect because this drill has a high velocity and a high neurological demand.

Question 18

When a client is experiencing DOMS, which stage of General Adaptation Syndrome is he experiencing?

Adaptive stage

Exhaustion stage

None of these

Resistance development stage

Alarm reaction stage

Answer 18

Alarm reaction stage:

is correct because after being stimulated, the body may experience a temporary decrease in performance and some inflammation or pain reaction to the stress.

The General Adaptation Syndrome [GAS] is a term used to describe how the body reacts and adapts to stress [exercise].

Resistance development stage and Adaptive stage: is incorrect because these stages involve increased performance and lack of pain and inflammation.

Exhaustion stage: is incorrect because this includes chronic pain and swelling, not the acute symptoms of DOMS.

None of these: is incorrect because the alarm stage may include DOMS or other consequences of training.

Question 19

What is the common compensation of the push-up exercise that indicates weak core stability?

Feet placed too wide

Inability to lower body fully

Elbows that move out wide

Lower back arch

Scapular winging

Answer 19

Lower back arch:

is correct because when the hips sag/lower back arches/stomach falls to the ground, this is an indication that the stabilizing muscles of the core may be weak.

The push-up exercise may focus on the chest as the agonist, but involves full body stabilization. In this case, regressing the exercise until it can be performed properly is advised.

Elbows that move out wide, Inability to lower body fully and Scapular winging: are incorrect because they indicate a lack of upper body strength or an upper body issue.

Feet placed too wide: is incorrect because this technique error doesn’t necessarily indicate a lack of core strength.

Question 20

Which of the following best describes the amount of vertical displacement of the bar during a descent or countermovement of the jerk exercise?

None

Significant [6-8 cm]

Minimal [2-4 cm]

Maximal [10-12 cm]

Moderate [4-6 cm]

Answer 20

Minimal [2-4 cm]:

is correct because this is an explosive movement that requires a quick [and thus, short displacement] eccentric contraction.

The descent of the jerk exercise is used as a countermovement prior to the explosive vertical thrust.

It involves knee flexion and ankle dorsflexion with slight forward lean.

Moderate [4-6 cm]: is incorrect because this much displacement would decrease the strength shortening cycle involved in the countermovement.

None: is incorrect because this exercise requires a countermovement.

Maximal [10-12 cm]: is incorrect because this much countermovementis too large to produce an explosive movement.

Significant [6-8 cm]: is incorrect because this exercise requires a countermovement to achieve the desired effect of the exercise.

Question 21

What is the best method of a personal trainer to help clients become intrinsically motivated?

Discuss relapse after it happens

Use long term goals only

Dictate SMART goals to client

Use outcome goals

Use SMART goals

Answer 21

Use SMART goals:

is correct because these goals do not focus on outcomes, but actions that will lead to the outcomes.

Using short and long term goals will keep a client on track and able to feel in control of their actions.

Success with these goals will improve self-efficacy and intrinsic motivation.

Use outcome goals: is incorrect because this is and extrinsic process.

Discuss relapse after it happens: is incorrect because relapse must be discussed before it happens.

Dictate SMART goals to client: is incorrect because making this a collaborative process will increase intrinsic motivation.

Use long term goals only: is incorrect because this will decrease self-efficacy and motivation.

Question 22

Which of the following %s of one’s maximum HR is most appropriate as a THR for a client looking to train at his lactate threshold?

40%

60%

70%

80%

90%

Answer 22

80%:

is correct because the lactate threshold is generally within zone two [76-85% of HR max].

It corresponds with the point at which the energy systems that are providing the majority of the ATP to the working muscles go from aerobic to anaerobic.

70% and 40%: is incorrect because these heart rates are too low, to too much too low.

90%: is incorrect because this HR is too high.

60%: is incorrect because this HR is typically lower than an average lactate threshold.

Question 23

Which of the following is not a benefit of including a comprehensive warm-up?

Increased neuromuscular coordination

Increased force production capabilities in trained musculature

Increased muscle elasticity

Increased temperature in musculature

Increased heart rate

Answer 23

Increased force production capabilities in trained musculature:

is correct because the warm-up is designed to physically prepare the body for the increased rigors ahead, but will not actually increase the body’s abilities.

A comprehensive warm-up will increase the body’s temperature and prime the muscle’s ability to stretch and contract and the joint’s ability to move through a full ROM.

Increased temperature in musculature, Increased neuromuscular coordination, increased heart rate and increased muscle elasticity: are all incorrect because they are all a benefit of or occur during a comprehensive warm-up.

Question 24

During the upward movement phase of the step-up exercise, which of the following is an appropriate recommendation to make regarding proper technique?

Push down on the top of the box with the leading foot

Focus the eyes on the floor

Lean the torso backward

Drive off the floor with the trailing foot

Place only the lead foot’s toes on the box

Answer 24

Push down on the top of the box with the leading foot:

is correct because safety is ensured by pushing through the heel of the lead leg with one foot completely on the box, torso upright and gaze straight ahead.

The step-up exercise is designed to increase the force production capabilities of the extension muscles of the lower body.

These muscles include the glutes and the quadriceps.

Focus the eyes on the floor and Lean the torso backward: are incorrect because the eyes should be focused straight ahead to ensure the spine isn’t leaning but is vertical.

Drive off the floor with the trailing foot: is incorrect because this doesn’t allow the working leg to create max force.

Place only the lead foot’s toes on the box: is incorrect because this is an unsafe foot positon on the box.

Question 25

Which of the following nutrients is the most important?

Water

Protein

Carbohydrates

None of these

Vitamins

Answer 25

None of these:

is correct because no nutrient should be thought of as more important than any other.

Rather, the focus should be on nutrient balance, which is criticl to good health and performance.

There are 6 classes of nutrients: carbs, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals and water.

No nutrient is more important than the others.