3.2.4 Flashcards

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1
Q

What impacts do antibodies have on antigens (4)

A
  1. Inactivation
  2. Agglutination
  3. Phagocytosis
  4. Produce compliment proteins
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2
Q

How do antibodies inactivate antigens

A

They bind to + neutralise bacterial toxins

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3
Q

What’s agglutination

A

When antibodies force pathogens to clump together making them a bigger target for phagocytosis

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4
Q

What do compliment proteins do

A

Attach to antibody antigen complexes and get broken into smaller fragments eventually being able to burst the pathogen membrane

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5
Q

What does the humoral response include (3)

A

Production of antibodies
B lymphocytes
T helper lymphocytes

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6
Q

Example of a cell that may have more than 1 type of antigen on the surface

A

Bacterial

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7
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies

A

An antibody from 1 WBC that’s extracted and cloned

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8
Q

What white blood cells are used for monoclonal antibodies

A

B-lymphocytes (produce antibodies)

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9
Q

What can you do with monoclonal antibodies if u know the correct antibody the body needs to fight a particular pathogen

A

They can be injected into a patient with the disease to help fight it

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10
Q

What do antibodies have that’s complementary to 1 specific antigen

A

A specific shape

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11
Q

What can some monoclonal antibodies bind to on chemicals

e.g of chemicals

A

Receptor sites on chemicals

E.g toxins produced by bacteria

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12
Q

How can monoclonal antibodies be injected into patient

A

Using a syringe/needle/pen

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13
Q

Why are monoclonal antibodies difficult to obtain

A

As b lymphocytes don’t divide easily (mitosis)

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14
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies made (7)

A
  1. Mouse exposes to non-self antigen to stimulate mouses B-cells
  2. B-cells extracted from mouses spleen
  3. B cells fused with tumour cells so mitosis can continue
  4. Detergent added to break down membranes so B cells + tumour cells can fuse forming a hybridoma
  5. Hybridoma cells are separated + cloned, the clones are tested. The correct clones are cloned on a larger scale + purified
  6. Antibodies are modified to be more like human cells (humanisation)
  7. Monoclonal antibodies are injected into patient
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15
Q

Why are mice used to obtain monoclonal antibodies

A

Small
Cheap
Reproduce quickly

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16
Q

What are b-lymphocytes extracted from the mouse in

A

The spleen (blood sample with lots of plasma that gets separated)

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17
Q

What are B cells fused with so mitosis can continue outside the body

A

Tumour cells - divide quickly and can be easily grown in a lab

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18
Q

What is added to break down cell membranes of B cells and tumour cells so they can fuse

A

Detergent

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19
Q

What’s a B cell and tumour cell fused together called

A

Hybridoma

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20
Q

What’s humanisation

A

When antibodies can be modified to make them more like human cells before they’re used

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21
Q

3 uses of monoclonal antibodies

A

Cancer treatments
Diagnosis
Pregnancy tests

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22
Q

What do cancer cells have that’s different to healthy body cells due to mutation in their dna

A

Different antigens on their surface

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23
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies used to treat cancer (4) - type of blocking

A
  1. Isolate + clone antibody complementary to cancerous cells antigen
  2. Inject into patient
  3. Antibodies bind to cancer cells
  4. Antibodies block chemical signals so stop uncontrolled growth in cancer cells
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24
Q

What do antibodies do when they bind to cancer cells

A

Block the chemical signals that cause uncontrolled growth in the cancer cells

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25
Q

What’s. An advantage of treating cancer with monoclonal antibodies

A

It ignores the rest of the healthy body cells, unlike chemotherapy and radiotherapy

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26
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies used to treat cancer (5) - attatching

A
  1. Specific antibody is isolated and cloned
  2. Radioactive/cytotoxic marker is attached to antibody
  3. Antibodies inserted
  4. Specifically attach to cancerous cells only
  5. Radioactive/cytotoxic component kills the cell
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27
Q

What type of marker is attached to an antibody to kill cancerous cells

A

Radioactive/cytotoxic marker

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28
Q

E.G.s of diseases monoclonal antibodies are used to diagnose

A

Flu
Cancer
Hepatitis
Chlamydia

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29
Q

What is used to identify chlamydia

A

Fluorescent antibodies complimentary to the antigen on the bacteria that causes chlamydia

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30
Q

How can scientists predict if a man has prostrate cancer using monoclonal antibodies

A

As men with prostrate cancer produce high PSA levels, so the antibodies specific to PSA can identify it

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31
Q

What do monoclonal antibodies bind to for diagnosis

A

Hormones/chemicals in the blood to measure their levels

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32
Q

What can monoclonal antibodies test during diagnosis

A

Test samples for specific pathogens

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33
Q

What does the placenta produce that’s present in the urine of a pregnant woman

A

HCG

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34
Q

What do home pregnancy tests contain

A

Monoclonal antibodies complimentary to the HCG that have blue beads attached to them

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35
Q

How does a coloured line appear in a pregnancy test

A

As the HCG antibody complex travels down the stick until it’s trapped by another antibody

36
Q

How do pregnancy tests work (5)

A
  1. Woman urinates on the stick with antibodies in it
  2. HCG hormone binds to the antibodies with the blue beads
  3. Urine travels up the stick carrying the antibodies with the blue beads
  4. The hormone/bead/antibody bind to more antibodies attached to the strip in the stick
  5. The blue beads get stuck to the strip turning it blue
37
Q

What shows a positive result that you’re pregnant on a pregnancy test

A

2 lines

38
Q

What happens if you’re not pregnant but still urinate in the stick

A

Urine still travels along stick with blue beads but there’s nothing to stick the blue beads to the test strip do it won’t turn blue

39
Q

What’s the order of the displays on a pregnancy stick going down

A

Control window
Results window
Reaction zone

40
Q

How would u know the pregnancy test is faulty

A

If there’s no line in the control window

41
Q

3 advantages of monoclonal antibodies

A

Are specific, only targeting cancerous cells
Cheap to use
Can be used in smaller doses
Fewer side effects than chemotherapy/radiotherapy

42
Q

What’s the main disadvantage of monoclonal antibodies

A

There are possible side effects e.g fever, vomiting, low blood pressure

43
Q

Why are monoclonal antibodies not widely used as treatments as hoped

A

As they have more side effects than initially expected

44
Q

What are polyclonal antibodies

A

The mixture of different antibodies produced by different types of B cells due to microbes having for than 1 type of antigen on their surface

45
Q

2 hazards monoclonal antibodies have caused (ethical issues)

A

Deaths - virus that attacks the brain

Organ failure

46
Q

What’s a big concern with the production of antibodies

A

That cancer is induced in mice - animal misuse in medical research

47
Q

Example of natural passive immunity

Factor of natural passive immunity

A

When mother passes antibodies to specific pathogens to a foetus through the placenta + to their children through breast milk

Temporary

48
Q

What’s natural active immunity

A

When offspring must make their own antibodies when exposed to microbes (pathogen) to have memory cells

49
Q

How are antibodies made in artificial active immunity

A

Vaccinations

50
Q

What are the 2 types of active immunity

A

Natural active immunity

Artificial active immunity

51
Q

What’s passive immunity like

A

Passed onto you giving instant protection

52
Q

What’s active immunity

A

Body working to protect you as come into contact with pathogen and fight it off

53
Q

What could vaccines contain (1 of 5)

A
  1. Weakened (attenuated) strain of microbe
  2. Dead microbe
  3. Modified toxins of bacteria
  4. Isolated antigens
  5. Harmless bacteria genetically modified to carry pathogens’ antigens
54
Q

What does attenuated mean

A

Weakened/reduced

55
Q

What does a vaccination consist of

What is a vaccine

A

Needle + fluid

Material inside needle that stimulates primary response

56
Q

What productions do vaccines stimulate

What does this mean

A

Stimulate memory cells production

So if you’re exposed to actual pathogen, the secondary response will be strong enough to prevent illness

57
Q

What’s herd immunity

A

When a large proportion of the community are vaccinated, so this reduces chance of a pathogen being transferred (majority vaccinated)

58
Q

Why is herd immunity important

A

As it’s not possible to vaccinate everyone

59
Q

What must a successful vaccination programme have (4)

A
  1. Limited side effects
  2. Technology to produce, store + transport vaccine
  3. Not cost too much
  4. Trained staff must be available to administer vaccine
60
Q

If a vaccine has limited side effects what does this mean

A

More people will be willing to have vaccination

61
Q

Why are diseases rarely completely eradicated (6)

A
  1. Vaccine may not work on some compromised immune systems
  2. Some may get disease before vaccination has time to work
  3. Not enough people have vaccine
  4. Pathogen may mutate a lot
  5. People my not get vaccine for religious/ethical regions
  6. Some pathogens ‘hide’ inside cells/ in intestines so are difficult to get vaccines against
62
Q

E.G.s of compromised immune systems that vaccines might not work on

A

Cancer

Diabetes

63
Q

What disease has pathogens that mutate a lot

A

Flu

64
Q

In what disease do pathogens hide in the small intestine

A

Cholera

65
Q

Which immune response is more rapid and why

A

Secondary immune response

So you don’t get ill

66
Q

When may the antibodies produced by B cells no longer work and vaccines become useless

What’s this called

A

If the pathogens antigens change due to its DNA mutating as B cells are specific to 1 antigen

Antigenic variability

67
Q

Example of a retrovirus

A

HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)

68
Q

What enzyme is in HIV

A

Reverse transcriptase enzyme

69
Q

Explain HIV replication

A
  1. HIV protein binds to CD4 protein on t helper cells
  2. HIV capsid fuses with cell membrane (membranes fuse) so RNA and enzymes enter t helper cell
  3. Reverse transcriptase changes HIV RNA -> DNA
  4. HIV DNA inserted into T cell DNA
  5. Produces mRNA which instructs cell to make viral proteins
  6. New HIV particles leave T helper cell using cell membrane as vesicle
70
Q

What protein on t helper cells does HIV protein bind to

A

CD4 protein

71
Q

What does reverse transcriptase enzyme do in HIV replication

A

Changes HIV RNA -> DNA so it can be read and used by the cell

72
Q

Where in the cell does mRNA instruct it to make viral proteins

A

At t helper cell ribosomes

73
Q

How do HIV particles leave the t helper cell

A

Vesicles

74
Q

Why can’t you get ride of t helper cells yourself

A

As it only targets t-helper cells

75
Q

On a graph how would u recognise if aids has developed due to t helper cells

A

If number of t helper cells reduces

76
Q

What does AIDS stand for

A

Acquire immune deficiency syndrome

77
Q

What 2 cells does AIDs kill/disrupt

A

T helper cell

Memory cells

78
Q

Why is a decrease in t helper cells disadvantageous (2)

A

Less B cells are made to produce antibodies

Less cytotoxic T cells made

79
Q

Why is a decrease in memory cells disadvantageous

A

Less able to launch secondary immune response

80
Q

What test relies on monoclonal antibodies

A

The Elisa Test

81
Q

What does the Elisa test stand for

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

82
Q

What antigen does the Elisa test use

A

Antigen of HIV

83
Q

Examples of diseases the Elisa test is use to detect

A

HIV
Cancers
Tuberculosis

84
Q

What’s the Elisa test procedure (10)

A
  1. Antibodies to pathogen bound to slide/ plate well
  2. Blood sample added
  3. Antigens of pathogen bind to antibodies
  4. Antigens that don’t bind are washed out
  5. More antibodies are added + enzyme is attached (also bind to HIV)
  6. Enzyme-antibody binds to antibody-antigen complexes in well
  7. Unbounded antibodies removed/washed out
  8. Colourless substrate of enzyme added
  9. Enzyme converts into coloured product
  10. Sample colour change if positive test
85
Q

What test does the Elisa test have a similar principle to

A

Pregnancy test